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CHAPTER-1
1.For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running with a test
automation tool?
Select one:
a. The total cost of the test project always decreases
b. The number of round bugs is reduced.
c. test coverage is increased.
d. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.
2.A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age
groups are:
Group I: 0-12
Group II: 13-18
Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?
Select one:
a. (0,12,13,18,19)
b. (-1,0,12,13,18,19)
c. (4,5,15,20)
d. (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)
3.Consider the following excerpt from a test report:
"we tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To recreate the failure, we used test
file
PR624_DR78_TCB0022.pkr,available under the PR624_DR78 repository in the Ck01
server"
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?
Select one:
a. Does not belong to an incident report
b. Provides project managers with information on the project risks.
c. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.
d. Provides test managers with information to report test progress.
4.Which type of automation test design is used in the example below, An automation team
designs an automation framework for testing of their web based applications. Realizing that they
need to use different test cycles, they decide not to hardcode any data in their scripts. Instead
they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.
Select one:
a. data coverage analysis
b. dynamic test design
c. keyword-driven
d. data driven
5.Mark the correct sentences,
l. Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as Failures,
ll. A human mistake may produce a defect
lll. A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it,
lV. When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure,
V. Defects occur only as a result of technology changes
Select one:
a. lV, V
b. l, ll
c. ll, lll, IV
d. ll, lV
6.A Test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developers has fixed the defect, the test
engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
a. The test engineer should not re-run the tests; they should be part of the developer tests
b. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need
to be updated
c. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already be run, and results
recorded
d. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not
been introduced by the fix
7.Which of the following statements about exit criteria is true?
Select one:
a. Exit criteria are decided on the basis of entry criteria only
b. Once finalized, exit criteria cannot be changed by the test manager
c. Completion of regression testing is never a part of exit criteria
d. Exit criteria evaluation results in decision to continue or stop testing
8.You are managing the testing of a fluid dynamics package to be used for designing the sewage
system of an upcoming city. All testers are domain experts who understand fluid dynamics and
hydraulic engineering and all of them have tested similar packages in the past. Which of the
following statements is most likely to be true?
Select one:
a. The test specification should follow IEEE standard template.
b. The tests should be very detailed with step by step procedures, including button clicks,
tabs and menu selections
c. The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise
d. The test specification should be written very detailed to ensure that everyone understands
the application.
9.Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static
analysis of code using a tool?
Select one:
a. peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds failures.
b. peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.
c. static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to
together aspects.
d. peer reviews cannot find missing requirements where as static analysis can find Incorrect
10.Which of the following is not a part of the test plan (IEEE 829 standarard) ?
Select one:
a. Information about test environment and test data
b. Test policy
c. The features not to be tested
d. Time schedule and deadlines
11.When is use case testing appropriate ?
I. For acceptance testing with user participation,
II. For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the system is specified by use cases,
III. For testing the interaction between the user and the system depending on user input and
system state.,
IV. For tests reflecting real-world use of the system under test,
V. For testing mathematical algorithms if the program flow differs depending on the input
given.
Select one:
a. I, II, III, V
b. I, III, IV
c. I, III, IV, V
d. II, IV
12.Which statement about use case testing is true?
Select one:
a. the test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers.
b. the test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.
c. the test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.
d. the test cases are always designed by customers or end users.
13.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 45
d. 11
14
Select one:
a. X-Time, Y-Percent, A-% of functional tests in the test suite, B-% of non-functional tests in
the test suite
b. X-Time, Y-Cost, A-Cost of test(per week), B-Cost of finding a single bug(per week)
c. X-Time, Y-Number of defects, A-Number of open defects, B- Number of closed defects
d. X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed tests, B- Number of open bugs.
15.What is a major difference between use case based testing and other specification-based
testing techniques?
Select one:
a. Use case based testing is used only for object-oriented projects where as other techniques
can be used for all types of projects.
b. Use case-based testing cannot be used in agile projects but other techniques can be used
for other models.
c. Use case based testing is more efficient than other techniques.
d. Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario based tests.
16.Which of the following is not a test level according to the V-model?
Select one:
a. System Test
b. Performance test
c. Unit Test
d. Acceptance test
17.In the fundamental test process, what does primarily entail the test analysis and design
activity?
Select one:
a. The continues comparison between current progress and the test plan, in order to identify
deviations
b. The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases
c. The testability evaluation of the test basis and test objects and the root-cause analysis
d. The data collection on the completed test activities, in order to consolidate experience,
testware, facts and figures
18.Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the
fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel
to all the other activities)?
Select one:
a. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure
activities, evaluating exit criteria.
b. Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities,
evaluating exit citeria.
c. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing
d. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria
and reporting, test closure activities
19.Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. monitoring tools are available only for functional testing
b. COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific
needs
c. stress testing is focused on the ability of the system to work under minimum load
d. a test suite must include static and dynamic code analysis tool
20.A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer.
- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.
- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15.
- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer
values can occur.
Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?
Select one:
a. 0-100-2000-6000
b. 1-2000-5001-10000
c. 0-1999-2000-5000
d. 0, 99-1-2000-4999, 99
21.Which of the following statements describe regression testing ?
I.Retesting of a fixed defect,
II.Testing of an already tested program,
III.Testing of new functionality in a program,
IV.Regression testing applies only to functional testing,
V.Tests that do not have to be repeatable, because they are only used once.
Select one:
a. I,IV
b. I,III,IV
c. II
d. II,IV,V
22.Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance
personnel in looking for defects prior to dynamic testing?
Select one:
a. configuration management tool
b. modeling tool
c. test data preparation tool
d. static analysis tool
23.Which of the following statements correctly describes traceability?
Select one:
a. The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test
design.
b. The capability of software product to enable modified software to be tested.
c. An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component
hierarchy is tested first.
d. The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs
software design.
24.Which of the following describes best, when incident reporting may occur?
Select one:
a. during development, review, testing and use of a product
b. during review and testing of a product
c. during testing and maintenance of a product
d. during development and testing of a product
25.Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829 standards is correct?
Select one:
a. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation.
b. IEEE standard 829 doesn't cover test case design. It only relates to test planning.
c. IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design specifications.
d. IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing projects.
26.The following program part is given,
IF (condition A),
Then DO B,
END IF.
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?
Select one:
a. 4
b. A very high number
c. 2
d. 1
27.Which of the following is an example of static testing?
Select one:
a. Usability testing
b. Requirements review
c. Performance testing
d. Calculating path coverage using tools
28.Consider the following pseudo code,
Integer k;
If (k > 1 && k < 30),
Then ....
End if,
Which of the following sets of test input values is the result of correct boundary value
analysis?
Select one:
a. 0, 1, 30, 31
b. -1,0,1,2,29,30,31
c. 1, 2, 29, 30
d. -3, -2, -1, 0, 30, 31, 32, 33
29.What is Integration testing?
Select one:
a. Testing that the interfaces work correctly.
b. Specifying which components to integrate in which order.
c. Looking for faults in larger components or subsystems.
d. Another term for testing system integrity.
30.Which of the following structure-based technique has the strongest code coverage?
Select one:
a. condition coverage
b. multiple condition
c. statement coverage
d. decision coverage
31.In maintenance testing, What is the relationship between impact analysis and Regression
testing?
Select one:
a. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be
performed
b. There is no relation between impact analysis and regression testing.
c. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements when there are new
changes integrated (new functionalities).
d. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in
Previous SW release.
32.Which of the following statement is true?
Select one:
a. Experience-based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been
used.
b. Black-box testing is equivalent to equivalence partitioning
c. white-box testing is equally useful for low-level and high-level testing
d. Experience-based testing is best used in integration testing.
33.Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?
Select one:
a. A tester installs a test item in the test environment
b. A test leader writes a test summary report
c. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
d. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release
34.Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). Form the specifications you
know that:
. If n<0, a message “value out of range“ must be issued.
. If 0<=n<20, the program returns the exact factorial number
. if 20<=n<=200 the factorial number must be approximated and visualized in floating point
notation.
. if n>200 a message “value out of range” must be issued
Which of the following equivalence partitioning is correct?
Select one:
a. n<=0, n<20, n>=20, n>200
b. n<0, 0<=n<200, n>200
c. n<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200
d. n<0, 0<=n<20, n>=20
35.What is true about software testers?
Select one:
a. Testers need good communication skills
b. Testers and programmer must always have opposite mindsets
c. Experienced testers always guarantee high software quality
d. The evaluation done by testers is not influenced by personal experience
36.Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true?
Select one:
a. Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product
b. Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they
cannot be raised during development
c. Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and
confirmation of the solution
d. The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents
37.Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning
should not take into account constraints from the development team.
b. Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project.
c. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the
availability of resources.
d. Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start
before the entire project plan of the development team is available.
38.Which of the following describes the pesticide paradox principle?
Select one:
a. A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during pre-release
testing, or show most of the operational failures
b. If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test
cases will no longer find any new bugs
c. Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible, except
for trivial cases
d. Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects
39.Which of the following sentence lists the main advantage of reviews over testing?
Select one:
a. Clear allocation of roles to review members, confidence that participants are familiar with
the reviewed subject.
b. No need to write specific plans for reviews , code reviews can save white box testing
c. Low cost of defects detection, enhancement of code and documents quality,
identification improvement opportunities
d. no need of specific tools, lower risk verification, better classification of detected defects
40.Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model?
Select one:
a. RAD
b. iterative or incremental
c. V Model
d. Agile development is not related to any life cycle model
© TalentSprint 2011

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Topic 5 chapter 1

  • 1. CHAPTER-1 1.For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running with a test automation tool? Select one: a. The total cost of the test project always decreases b. The number of round bugs is reduced. c. test coverage is increased. d. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced. 2.A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are: Group I: 0-12 Group II: 13-18 Group III: over 18 Which of the below represent boundary values? Select one: a. (0,12,13,18,19) b. (-1,0,12,13,18,19) c. (4,5,15,20) d. (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19) 3.Consider the following excerpt from a test report: "we tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To recreate the failure, we used test file PR624_DR78_TCB0022.pkr,available under the PR624_DR78 repository in the Ck01 server" Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?
  • 2. Select one: a. Does not belong to an incident report b. Provides project managers with information on the project risks. c. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure. d. Provides test managers with information to report test progress. 4.Which type of automation test design is used in the example below, An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web based applications. Realizing that they need to use different test cycles, they decide not to hardcode any data in their scripts. Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress. Select one: a. data coverage analysis b. dynamic test design c. keyword-driven d. data driven 5.Mark the correct sentences, l. Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as Failures, ll. A human mistake may produce a defect lll. A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it, lV. When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure, V. Defects occur only as a result of technology changes Select one: a. lV, V b. l, ll c. ll, lll, IV d. ll, lV
  • 3. 6.A Test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developers has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct? Select one: a. The test engineer should not re-run the tests; they should be part of the developer tests b. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated c. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already be run, and results recorded d. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix 7.Which of the following statements about exit criteria is true? Select one: a. Exit criteria are decided on the basis of entry criteria only b. Once finalized, exit criteria cannot be changed by the test manager c. Completion of regression testing is never a part of exit criteria d. Exit criteria evaluation results in decision to continue or stop testing 8.You are managing the testing of a fluid dynamics package to be used for designing the sewage system of an upcoming city. All testers are domain experts who understand fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering and all of them have tested similar packages in the past. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? Select one: a. The test specification should follow IEEE standard template. b. The tests should be very detailed with step by step procedures, including button clicks, tabs and menu selections c. The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise d. The test specification should be written very detailed to ensure that everyone understands the application.
  • 4. 9.Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool? Select one: a. peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds failures. b. peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects. c. static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects. d. peer reviews cannot find missing requirements where as static analysis can find Incorrect 10.Which of the following is not a part of the test plan (IEEE 829 standarard) ? Select one: a. Information about test environment and test data b. Test policy c. The features not to be tested d. Time schedule and deadlines 11.When is use case testing appropriate ? I. For acceptance testing with user participation, II. For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the system is specified by use cases, III. For testing the interaction between the user and the system depending on user input and system state., IV. For tests reflecting real-world use of the system under test, V. For testing mathematical algorithms if the program flow differs depending on the input given. Select one: a. I, II, III, V b. I, III, IV c. I, III, IV, V
  • 5. d. II, IV 12.Which statement about use case testing is true? Select one: a. the test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers. b. the test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow. c. the test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow. d. the test cases are always designed by customers or end users. 13. Select one: a. 3 b. 5 c. 45 d. 11 14
  • 6. Select one: a. X-Time, Y-Percent, A-% of functional tests in the test suite, B-% of non-functional tests in the test suite b. X-Time, Y-Cost, A-Cost of test(per week), B-Cost of finding a single bug(per week) c. X-Time, Y-Number of defects, A-Number of open defects, B- Number of closed defects d. X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed tests, B- Number of open bugs. 15.What is a major difference between use case based testing and other specification-based testing techniques? Select one: a. Use case based testing is used only for object-oriented projects where as other techniques can be used for all types of projects. b. Use case-based testing cannot be used in agile projects but other techniques can be used for other models. c. Use case based testing is more efficient than other techniques. d. Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario based tests. 16.Which of the following is not a test level according to the V-model? Select one: a. System Test b. Performance test c. Unit Test d. Acceptance test 17.In the fundamental test process, what does primarily entail the test analysis and design activity? Select one: a. The continues comparison between current progress and the test plan, in order to identify deviations b. The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases
  • 7. c. The testability evaluation of the test basis and test objects and the root-cause analysis d. The data collection on the completed test activities, in order to consolidate experience, testware, facts and figures 18.Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)? Select one: a. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria. b. Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit citeria. c. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing d. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities 19.Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. monitoring tools are available only for functional testing b. COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific needs c. stress testing is focused on the ability of the system to work under minimum load d. a test suite must include static and dynamic code analysis tool 20.A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer. - Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10. - Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15. - Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes? Select one:
  • 8. a. 0-100-2000-6000 b. 1-2000-5001-10000 c. 0-1999-2000-5000 d. 0, 99-1-2000-4999, 99 21.Which of the following statements describe regression testing ? I.Retesting of a fixed defect, II.Testing of an already tested program, III.Testing of new functionality in a program, IV.Regression testing applies only to functional testing, V.Tests that do not have to be repeatable, because they are only used once. Select one: a. I,IV b. I,III,IV c. II d. II,IV,V 22.Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance personnel in looking for defects prior to dynamic testing? Select one: a. configuration management tool b. modeling tool c. test data preparation tool d. static analysis tool 23.Which of the following statements correctly describes traceability? Select one: a. The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test design.
  • 9. b. The capability of software product to enable modified software to be tested. c. An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first. d. The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs software design. 24.Which of the following describes best, when incident reporting may occur? Select one: a. during development, review, testing and use of a product b. during review and testing of a product c. during testing and maintenance of a product d. during development and testing of a product 25.Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829 standards is correct? Select one: a. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation. b. IEEE standard 829 doesn't cover test case design. It only relates to test planning. c. IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design specifications. d. IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing projects. 26.The following program part is given, IF (condition A), Then DO B, END IF. How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage? Select one: a. 4 b. A very high number c. 2
  • 10. d. 1 27.Which of the following is an example of static testing? Select one: a. Usability testing b. Requirements review c. Performance testing d. Calculating path coverage using tools 28.Consider the following pseudo code, Integer k; If (k > 1 && k < 30), Then .... End if, Which of the following sets of test input values is the result of correct boundary value analysis? Select one: a. 0, 1, 30, 31 b. -1,0,1,2,29,30,31 c. 1, 2, 29, 30 d. -3, -2, -1, 0, 30, 31, 32, 33 29.What is Integration testing? Select one: a. Testing that the interfaces work correctly. b. Specifying which components to integrate in which order. c. Looking for faults in larger components or subsystems. d. Another term for testing system integrity.
  • 11. 30.Which of the following structure-based technique has the strongest code coverage? Select one: a. condition coverage b. multiple condition c. statement coverage d. decision coverage 31.In maintenance testing, What is the relationship between impact analysis and Regression testing? Select one: a. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed b. There is no relation between impact analysis and regression testing. c. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements when there are new changes integrated (new functionalities). d. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in Previous SW release. 32.Which of the following statement is true? Select one: a. Experience-based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used. b. Black-box testing is equivalent to equivalence partitioning c. white-box testing is equally useful for low-level and high-level testing d. Experience-based testing is best used in integration testing. 33.Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality? Select one: a. A tester installs a test item in the test environment b. A test leader writes a test summary report
  • 12. c. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort d. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release 34.Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). Form the specifications you know that: . If n<0, a message “value out of range“ must be issued. . If 0<=n<20, the program returns the exact factorial number . if 20<=n<=200 the factorial number must be approximated and visualized in floating point notation. . if n>200 a message “value out of range” must be issued Which of the following equivalence partitioning is correct? Select one: a. n<=0, n<20, n>=20, n>200 b. n<0, 0<=n<200, n>200 c. n<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200 d. n<0, 0<=n<20, n>=20 35.What is true about software testers? Select one: a. Testers need good communication skills b. Testers and programmer must always have opposite mindsets c. Experienced testers always guarantee high software quality d. The evaluation done by testers is not influenced by personal experience 36.Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true? Select one: a. Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product b. Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development
  • 13. c. Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution d. The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents 37.Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning should not take into account constraints from the development team. b. Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project. c. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources. d. Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start before the entire project plan of the development team is available. 38.Which of the following describes the pesticide paradox principle? Select one: a. A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during pre-release testing, or show most of the operational failures b. If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs c. Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible, except for trivial cases d. Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects 39.Which of the following sentence lists the main advantage of reviews over testing? Select one: a. Clear allocation of roles to review members, confidence that participants are familiar with the reviewed subject. b. No need to write specific plans for reviews , code reviews can save white box testing c. Low cost of defects detection, enhancement of code and documents quality, identification improvement opportunities
  • 14. d. no need of specific tools, lower risk verification, better classification of detected defects 40.Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model? Select one: a. RAD b. iterative or incremental c. V Model d. Agile development is not related to any life cycle model © TalentSprint 2011