1. CHAPTER-2
1)A functional test is?
Select one:
a. A dynamic test for which the tests are based on the specification of the t test object
b. A test for which the test cases and test data are based on the structure of the test object
c. A static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object
d. A test focused on the efficiency of the system
2) A static analysis tool analyzes a given programs CONTROL FLOW among other things.
Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis?
Select one:
a. Identification of unreachable code
b. Report on adherence to the coding standards
c. Number of source code lines
d. Number of comment lines
3) An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing
form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that
can be processed is 10$. The credit cards have a limit of $10,000.00 (Ten Thousand). Which of
the following set of boundary values you will choose for efficient testing for the amount of
money that can be spent?
Select one:
a. 9,10, 10,000 and 10,001
b. 10, 10,000, 10,001
c. 9, 10, 11, 9990, 10,000, 10,001
d. 9, 10, 9990, 10,000, 10,001, 10,010
4) Consider the following bug report,
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2. Summary: The application does not install
System Test procedure details:
Obtain a CD with the application and the installer
Configure your test system as described in test-environment TE-32
Install on the test system: Insert the CD and run the "autorun.exe"
Results: The installer aborted with no error messages
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Select exactly 3 items from the list below that are missing from the report, and are an
important part of a good bug report
a. Root cause of the failure
b. The applications and the installers versions
c. Impact of the bug
d. Expected results
e. Steps to reproduce
f. Test level
Select one:
A. b, c, d
B. a, b, e
C. a, d, f
D. b, c, f
5) Consider the following statements about risk-based testing:
I. Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of project risks.
II. Tests should be prioritized to find the critical defects as early as possible.
III. Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk.
IV. Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.
3. V. The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks.
Select one:
a. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false
b. II, III, IV and V are correct. I is false
c. II, III and V are true. I and IV are false
d. I, III, IV and V are true. II is false
6) Due to the importance of the software reliability the project manager and the QA manager
decided to execute on each new module code inspection, static analysis and white box
(structural) tests. The recommended sequence for these activities is?
Select one:
a. Static analysis, code inspection, white box testing
b. Code inspection, white box testing, static analysis
c. White box testing first, other two can be done in any order
d. White box first (if black box testing is not planned), static analysis and finally code
inspection
7) During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which at the
following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?
Select one:
a. 100% Statement coverage
b. 100% Equivalence class coverage
c. 100% State transition coverage
d. 100% Boundary value coverage
8) For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required
for statement and branch coverage respectively?
discountRate = 1;
fare = 1000;
If ((person=="senior citizen") and (travelmonth==January))
4. Bonus points=100+bonuspoints;
If (class=="first")
discountRate = 5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
Select one:
a. Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 3
b. Statement coverage = 2, Branch coverage = 4
c. Statement coverage = 1, Branch coverage = 2
d. Statement coverage = 2, Branch coverage = 2
9) For which of the following activities is a static analysis tool not useful?
Select one:
a. Quantitative analysis related to the tests (e.g tests passed)
b. Analysis of linked web pages
c. Calculation of complexity of the code
d. Enforcement of coding standards
10) For withdrawing money from an automated teller machine (ATM), the following conditions
are required:
- The bank card is valid
- The PIN code is correct
- Money is available in the users account
The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:
- The entered card is invalid: The card is rejected
- The PIN code is wrong: The ATM asks for another PIN code
-The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for
another amount
- The requested amount is available in the user's account: The ATM dispense the money
5. Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input
conditions?
Select one:
a. Decision table
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Use case based testing
d. Equivalence class partitioning
11) Four equivalences classes are given for integer value,
0<x<100,
100<=x<=200,
200<x<500,
x>=500,
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class
partitions?
Select one:
a. 50, 100, 250, 1000
b. 50, 100, 200, 1000
c. 0, 1, 99, 100, 200, 201, 499, 500
d. 0, 50, 100, 150, 200, 350, 500
12) In what way do configuration management effects testing?
Select one:
a. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the
tested item
b. Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed
c. Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers
d. There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project
6. 13) The following program part is given:
IF (condition A) or (condition B)
Then DO C
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 1
d. 3
14) What are the elements of the following list ?
Functional testing
Non-functional testing
Structural testing
Change related testing
Select one:
a. The elements are, test types
b. The elements are, test levels
c. The elements are, test objects
d. The elements are, test techniques
15) What is basic idea of structure-based testing techniques?
Select one:
a. The more details of the source code are executed, the more faults can be found
b. To gain time, since structure-based techniques are easier to implement than specification-
based techniques
7. c. To allow developers to have their own testing technique
d. To do better testing, since the specifications are not needed
16) What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?
Select one:
a. System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other
systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements
b. System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the
customer
c. System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements. Acceptance testing verifies
correct interaction with other systems existing in the users environment
d. System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements. Acceptance testing
concentrates on the functionality of the system
17) What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?
Select one:
a. Until the quality requirements are met
b. 1
c. As many as time an budget allow
d. 2
18) Which of the following activities is most relevant to when a software system is to be retired
or replaced?
Select one:
a. Testing for data migration or archiving
b. Performing regression testing
c. Performing confirmation testing
d. Testing the old systems reliability
19) Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?
Select one:
8. a. Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and
execution, Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Test closure activities
b. Test planning and control, Test specification and design, Test implementation and
execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test
closure activities
c. Test planning, Test specification and design, Test implementation and execution,
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Retesting and test closure activities
d. Test planning, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and control, Checking test
coverage and reporting, Test closure activities
20) Which of the following are typical testers tasks?
Select one:
a. Develop test specification, decide what should be automated and low
b. Acquire test data, organize training in tool use, execute tests, monitor and control the
execution
c. Prepare test data, review test scripts developed by others, develop test specifications
d. Acquire and prepare test date, set up configuration management of test ware
21) Which of the following are valid testing principles ?
I. Exhaustive testing is in general impossible
II. Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused
III. Testing may guarantee that a program is correct
IV. Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct
V. Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product
Select one:
a. I, IV, V
b. I, V
c. I, III
d. II, IV
9. 22) Which of the following is a better incident report?
Select one:
a. The displayed result is 50,37 But the expected result, according to the requirements
document. V2.5, chapter 5.1, should be 100.74 in other words twice the displayed value.
The displayed value is wrong for the last few releases but not in the same way as it is
now
b. The displayed result in the cost field is wrong.It displays 50,37 instead of 100.74
(requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1) Note that it was already wrong in release V5.23,
although there it was worse (see incident report 958)
c. How is that possible that you display 50,37? If you had a look at the requirements
document, V2.5, chapter 5.1, you could see that you should display 100.74. By the way, it
was already wrong in release V5.23, (see incident report 958)
d. Until release V5.22 the displayed value was always correct. Since release V5.23 it is
always wrong (see incident report 958). And it is getting worse and worse. This time the
displayed value is half of the correct one. The value I want to see is 100.74 (see requirements
document)
23) Which of the following is a project risk?
Select one:
a. Resource availability
b. Performance
c. Data integrity
d. Interface complexity
24) Which of the following is a true example of a software bug harming a user?
Select one:
a. The website is unavailable resulting in a penalty because of late payment of an
invoice
b. The website takes 5 seconds more to load than the stipulated time
c. The system is difficult to use due to lack of user training
d. The system does not display the last character of the logged in users first name
10. 25) Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem,
An integer numeric field shall contain values from 1 to 80 both values inclusive?
Select one:
a. Less than 1, 1 to 80, more than 80
b. Less than 0, 1 to 80, more than 80
c. Less than 1, 1 to 79, more than 80
d. Less than 1, 1 to 79,80 and more than 80
26) Which of the following is a valuable objective for software testing?
Select one:
a. To gain confidence about the level of quality and to provide information about the
test object
b. To guarantee the protection against unauthorized access
c. To fulfill the requirements for testing specified in the project handbook
d. To prove the correctness of a specific feature
27) Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
a. Testing tools can be use by both developers and testers
b. Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect
c. Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system
d. Testing tools allow developers do testing. Use of such tools changes the role of the test
team
28) Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?
Select one:
a. Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan
b. Change the test schedule due to availability of a test environment
c. Re-priortize tests because of time pressure
11. d. Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them
into a build
29) Which of the following is wrong?
Select one:
a. Test execution tools generate test inputs or executable tests e.g. from requirements
b. Static analysis tools support developers and testers in finding defects before dynamic
testing
c. Security tools check for viruses and denial of service attacks
d. Monitoring tools provide information that can be used for testing purposes
30) Which of the following options represents equivalence classes for the station name in the
given requirement snippet, If the input is a valid station name(case-insensitive) then the code
corresponding to the station name will be displayed?
Select one:
a. There are two equivalence classes, One valid and one invalid station name
b. There are three equivalence classes: two with valid names (upper-and lower case), one
invalid name
c. This specification is not solvable by equivalence partitioning
d. There are as many test cases as there are valid station name
31) Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
Select one:
a. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project
b. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn
up
c. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not
known
d. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques
32) Which of the following statements about experience-based testing is true?
Select one:
12. a. This technique is context-driven
b. Writing test cases is the starting point of this test technique
c. The general flow of this testing process is requirements -> test cases -> Bugs
d. It focuses on generating reports
33) Which of the following statements are true ?
I. Defects in a program do not always cause failures.
II. A defect in a program may cause more than one failure during execution
III. If there is a fault in the program, at least one test will fail
IV. After fixing a bug, the program may still fail under test
V. Errors in the program lead to side-effects
Select one:
a. I, II and IV are true. The others are false
b. II and III are true. The others are false
c. I and V are true. The others are false
d. I and IV are true. The others are false
34) Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. A failure is the deviation of the program from its expected behavior
b. A failure is a cause of a defect
c. A failure is a design error in the product
d. A failure is an error in the code
35) Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method
b. Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection
13. c. Pair programming is used usually in water fall model
d. Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together
36) Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to
the system under test
b. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box
testing has been finished
c. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing
d. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only
37) Which of the following test types are EXAMPLES of non-functional tests ?
I. Acceptance test
II. Regression test
III.Load test
IV.Component test
V. Usability test
Select one:
a. III and V
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and V
d. II, III and V
38) Which of the following tools targets testing of user requirements?
Select one:
a. Static analysis tool
b. Load test tool
c. Code coverage tool
