Nursing research quiz series

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Nursing Research (Biostatistics) Quiz
NOTE: Questions from various medical/nursing entrance examinations conducted in India.
1. Random sampling or probability sampling includes all the following techniques,
except:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Stratified random Sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Purposive Sampling
2. Gender, age-class, religion, type of disease, and blood group are measured on:
A. Nominal scale of measurement
B. Ordinal scale of measurement
C. Interval scale of measurement
D. Ratio scale of measurement
3. Which scale of measurement has an absolute zero?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
4. The variable which is influenced by the intervention of the researcher is called:
A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Discrete
D. Extraneous
5. The statistical approach which helps the investigator to decide whether the outcome
of the study is a result of factors planned within design of the study or determined by
chance is called:
A. Descriptive statistics

B. Inferential statistics
C. Normal distribution
D. Standard deviation
6. Which of the following methods is a form of graphical presentation of data?
A. Line Diagram
B. Pie diagram
C. Bar diagram
D. Histogram
7. All the following are measures of central tendency, except:
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Variance
8. Which measure of central tendency is Influenced by extreme scores and skewed
distributions?
A. Mean Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range
9. A measure of central tendency which is calculated by numbers arranging in
numerical order is:
A. Standard deviation
B. Range
C. Median Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
D. Mode
10. The proportion of observations fall above the median is:
A. 68%

B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 95%
11. The indices used to measure variation or dispersion among scores are all, except:
A. Range
B. Variance
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean
12. A measure of dispersion of a set of observations in which it is calculated by the
difference between the highest and lowest values produced is called:
B. Variance Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
C. Range
D. Mode
13. A statistic which describes the interval of scores bounded by the 25th and 75th
percentile ranks is:
A. Inter quartile range
B. Confidence Interval
D. Variance Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
14. The Median value is the:
A. 25th percentile
B. 50th percentile
C. 75th percentile
D. 95th percentile
15. Large standard deviations suggest that:
A. scores are probably widely scattered.

B. there is very little deference among scores.
C. mean, median and mode are the same
D. the scores not normally distributed.
16. The formula given below is computational formula for:
A. Variance
B. Mean Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
D. t-statistic
17. The squire of the standard deviation is the:
A. Variance.
B. Standard error
C. Z-score Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
D. Variance
18. Which is NOT a characteristic of normal distribution?
A. Symmetric Copyright@ http://nursingplanet.com/Quiz
B. Bell-shaped
C. Mean = median = mode
D. Negative skewness
19. Skewness is a measure:
A. of the asymmetry of the probability distribution
B. decides the distribution may have high or low variance
C. of central tendency
D. None of the above

20. The formula given below is used to calculate:
O= Observed frequency
E= Expected frequency
A. t-test statistic
B. chi-squire statistic
C. correlation coefficient
21. The variable in an experiment that is known from the start and does not change is
called the:
A. dependent variable.
B. extraneous variable.
C. independent variable.
D. confounding variable.
22. Type I errors occur:
A. when the null hypothesis is rejected but it should have been retained.
B. accepting the null hypothesis when it should have been rejected.
C. considering the alternate hypothesis as false when it actually it was true .
D. when the obtained p-value is higher than 0.05.
23. How many degrees of freedom would a table with 3 rows and 2 columns have?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
24. Determining the Degrees of Freedom for a 2X2 contingency table for Chi-squire
distribution is:
A. 4

B. 2
C. 0.05
D. 1
25. The degree of flatness or peakedness of a graph of a frequency distribution is
termed as:
A. standard deviation
B. kurtosis
C. skewness
D. mode
26. In a negatively skewed distribution, the mean generally falls to:
A. the left of the median and the median usually lies to the left of the mode.
B. the right of the median and the median usually lies to the right of the mode.
C. the middle of median and mode.
D. the centre of the distribution.
27. Which statement about normal distribution is FALSE:
A. 50 percent of the observations fall within one standard deviation sigma of the mean.
B. 68 percent of the observations fall within one standard deviation sigma of the mean.
C. 95 percent of observation falls within 2 standard deviations.
D. 99.7 percent of observations fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
28. A measure used to standardize the central tendency away from the mean across
different samples is:
A. skewness
B. Range
C. Z-score
D. mode
29. Probability values fall on scale between:
A. -1 to +1

B. 0 and 1.
C. -3 to + 3
D. 0.05 to 0.01
30. Standard error is calculated by:
A. dividing standard deviation by the square root of the sample size.
B. dividing number of nominated outcome by number of possible outcome.
C. adding all the numbers and then dividing by the numbers of observations.
D. arranging the numbers in numerical order, then taking the middle one.
31. When explaining the direction of the linear association between two numerical
paired variables, a positive correlation is stated when:
A. one variable increases and the other variable decreases or vice versa.
B. dependent variable increases and independent variable decreases
C. both variables increase and decrease at the same time.
D. correlation coefficient is stated close to 0.
32. A type of graphical presentation data used to explain correlation between
dependent and independent variable is:
A. Histogram
B. Frequency polygon
C. Frequency curve
D. Scatter plot
33. Correlation coefficient ranges from:
A. 0.01 to 0.05
B. 0 to 1
C. -1 to +1
D. -3 to +3
34. A contingency table (2x2) is used to calculate:
A. t-statistic

B. correlation coefficient
C. variance
D. chi-squire statistic
35. The listed observations- 1,2,3,4,100, suggest the distribution:
A. is positively skewed
B. is negatively skewed
C. has zero skewness
D. is left-skewed
36. 95% confidence interval refers to:
A. considering 1 out of 20 chances are taken to be wrong.
B. considering 1 out of 100 chances are taken as wrong.
C. considering 95 out of 100 chances are taken as wrong.
D. considering 5 out of 20 chances are taken as wrong.
37. A tentative explanation/statement of a declaration of the expected outcome of a
research study based on observations is called:
A. Relationships
B. Analysis
C. Variables
D. Hypothesis
38. In a naturalistic observation, the phenomenon in which the behaviour of the
subjects being observed changes because they are being watched is called:
A. Observer bias
B. Observer effect
C. participant observation
D. Representative sampling
39. The entire group of people or animals in which the researcher is interested is called:
A. Sample

B. Experiment group
C. Sample
D. Controls
40. In the scientific investigation, the first step is:
A. Reporting your results
B. Perceiving a question.
C. Drawing conclusion.
D. Testing hypothesis.
41. Which of the following is NOT a method of quantitative research?
A. Grounded Theory Research
B. Correlational Research
C. Quasi-Experimental Research
D. Experimental Research
42. The grounded theory approach was developed by
A. Heidegger
B. Glaser and Strauss
C. Husserl
D. Denzin
43. Deductive Reasoning is applied in:
A. Qualitative research
B. Quantitative research
C. Action research
D. Applied research
44. Which of the following is a qualitative research design where lived experiences of
individuals are examined in their "life-world"?
A. Ethnography
B. Ethology

C. Phenomenology
D. Grounded theory
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
A. Deductive process
B. Control over the context
C. Fixed research design
D. Inductive process
46. Qualitative research design involves
A. Emergent design
B. Correlative design
C. Experimental design
D. Cohort design
Answer Key
47. Phenomenological study involves all the following features, EXCEPT
A. Bracket out
B. Intuition
C. Analysis
D. Description
E. Manipulation
48. Which of the following qualitative methods focuses on description and
interpretation of cultural behavior?
A. Phenomenology
B. Grounded theory
C. Ethnography
D. Symbolic interactionism

49. The area of inquiry in grounded theory approach is
A. Holistic view of culture
B. Lived experiences
C. Behaviour observed over time in natural context
D. Social structural processes with in social setting
50. The research design in which the area inquiry is the manner by which people make
sense of social interactions:
A. Grounded theory
B. Phenomenology
C. Symbolic interactionism
D. Ethnography
51. The term triangulation was coined by:
A. Denzin (1989)
B. Leininger (1985)
C. Glaser and Strauss (1967)
D. Heidegger
52. In qualitative research, a guiding principle in deciding sample size is:
A. Effect size
B. Number of variables
C. Data saturation
D. Sub-group analysis
53. The term refers to the use of multiple referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth:
A. Item analysis
B. Factor analysis
C. Error measurement
D. Triangulation

54. Characteristics of qualitative research design are
A. Flexible and elastic design
B. Use of mixed methodologies
C. Ongoing analysis to formulate subsequent strategies
D. Researcher becomes the instrument
E. All of the above
55. The tendency in qualitative research to derive a complex array of data from a
variety of sources, using variety of methods is termed as:
A. Triangulation
B. Bricolage
C. Cross-tabulation
D. Confirmability
56. Correlation coefficient provides all of the following information, except :
A. whether or not there is a relationship between the variables.
B. the strength of the relationship between the variables.
C. the cause of the relationship between the variables.
D. the direction of the relationship between the variables.
57. Another name for a bar graph is:
A. polygon
B. histogram
C. normal curve
D. line graph
58. A table that shows how often different scores appear in a set of scores is called a
frequency:
A. polygon
B. histogram
C. normal curve

D. distribution
59. All the following are components required for estimating power (1-beta) of a study,
EXCEPT
A. The population effect size
B. Sample size
C. Level of significance (alpha)
60. Using power analysis (Cohen, 1977), the value of estimated effect size (gamma) for
large effects in two group test of mean difference is
A. 0-2
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
D. 1.0
61. When doing power analysis in ANOVA context, the estimate of effect size is
A. Eta-squared
B. Correlation coefficient
C. Standard Error
D. Chi-squire value
62. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) test is used to
A. Test the difference between two independent group means
B. Test the difference between two related group means
C. Test the difference among the means of 3+ independent groups
D. Test the difference in ranks of scores of 3+ independent groups
63. Kruskal-Wallis test is used to:
A. Test the difference between two independent group means
B. Test the difference among the means of 3+ related groups
C. Test the difference among the means of 3+ independent groups

D. Test the difference in ranks of scores of 3+ independent groups
64. Which is the most appropriate inferential analysis to test the difference among the
means of 3+ related groups o sets of scores?
A. Repeated-measures ANOVA
B. Friedman test
C. Paired t-test
D. Wicoxon signed-rank test
65. Power analysis builds on the concepts of:
A. Validity
B. reliability
C. Internal consistency
D. Effect size
66. Effect size is used to calculate:
A. Reliability
B. Sample size
D. Predictive validity
67. The F-statistic is calculated in:
A. ANOVA
B. T-test
C. Correlation analysis
D. Chi-squire test
68. Which of the following is a nonparametric "Analysis of Variance"?
A. Mann-Whitney U test
B. Wilcoxon Rank test
C. Kruskal-Wallis test
D. Friedman's test

69. Chi-square test is used to test:
A. Difference in proportions
B. Difference in means of two independent variables
C. Relationship between two bivariate variables
D. Difference in means of three or more set of variables
70. Which of the following is NOT a criteria for Fisher's exact test?
A. When proportions derived from independent groups are compared
B. When there are cells with a value of 0
C. Sample size is small (less than 30)
D. When testing difference between three or more group means
71. The type of research focused on finding a solution to an immediate practical problem
is termed as:
A. Basic research
B. Applied research
C. Explanatory research
D. Descriptive research
72. The principles of ethics in nursing research include:
A. Beneficence
B. Respect for human dignity
C. Justice
D. All of the above
73. Which of the following is TRUE about features of quasi-experimental research design?
A. Manipulation. control group, randomization
B. Manipulation, but no control group or randomization
C. No manipulation of independent variable
D. Use of correlational approach
74. Carry-over effects are related to:

A. Factorial design
B. Pretest-posttest design
C. Solomon four-group design
D. Repeated measures design
75. The extent to which it is possible to make an inference that independent variable is truly
influencing the dependent variable and relationship is not spurious, refers to:
A. External validity
B. Internal Validity
D. Reliability
76. Which of the following is considered as a threat to internal validity of a research?
A. The Hawthorne effect
B. Novelty effect
C. Experimenter effects
D. Maturation
E. Measurement effects
77. Which of the following is NOT related to dealing with extraneous variables in a
quantitative research?
A. Randomization
B. Repeated measures
C. Homogeneity
D. Blocking
E. Bracketing
78. Which of the following is a method of integrating the findings of prior research studies
using statistical procedures?
A. Meta-analysis
B. Secondary analysis

C. Content analysis
D. Grounded theory
79. The term used to indicate the placebo effect in which the knowledge of being included
in a study cause people to change their behaviours, thereby obscuring the variable of
interest:
A. Internal validity
B. Maturation
C. Manipulation
D. Hawthorne effect
80. Investigations in which samples from a general population are studied over time with
respect to some phenomenon is termed as
A. Trend studies
B. Action research
C. Outcome research
D. Meta-anlysis
81. Which of the following data collection method has better subjectivity?
A. Self-reports
B. Observation
C. Biophysiologic measures
D. Questionnaires
82. Basic principles that are accepted as being true on the basis of logic or reason, without
proof or verification is termed as:
A. Assumptions
B. Hypothesis
C. Constructs
D. Propositions

83. A fundamental ethical principle that seeks to prevent harm and exploitation of, to
maximize benefits for, study participants is:
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmalificence
D. Coercion
84. A method of data collection in which several rounds of questionnaires are mailed to a
panel of experts, focusing on their opinions or judgment concerning a specific topic of
interest is:
A. Focus group interview
B. Meta-analysis
C. Delphi technique
D. Secondary analysis
85. The principle of beneficence include all the following, EXCEPT
A. Freedom from harm
B. Freedom from exploitation
C. Benefits from research
D. Risk/benefit ratio
E. The right to self-determination
86. The degree of consistency with which an instrument measures the attribute it is
supposed to be measuring is called:
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
87. The reliability of a measuring tool has following aspects, except:
A. Stability
B. Internal consistency

C. Efficiency
D. Equivalence
88. The extent to which the same results are obtained on repeated administrations of the
instrument is termed as:
A. Internal consistency
B. Validity
C. Stability
D. Sensitivity
89. The stability index of a measuring tool is derived through procedures that evaluate:
A. Interrater reliability
C. Crombach's alpha
D. Test-retest reliability
90. The Spearman's-Brown formula is used to estimate:
A. Test-retest reliability
C. Equivalence
D. Validity
91. The degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measuring is
its:
A. Validity
C. Sensitivity
D. Equivalence
92. Which of the following is NOT a type of validity index of a research instrument?
A. Predictive validity
B. Content validity

C. Concurrent validity
D. Construct validity
E. Homogenous validity
93. The adequacy of an instrument in differentiating between the performance or
behaviour on some future criterion is termed as:
A. Predictive validity
B. Cocurrent validity
C. Content validity
D. Construct validity
94. Multi-trait-multi-matrix (MTMM) is a procedure developed to establish:
A. Internal consistency
B. Interrater reliability
C. Construct validity
D. Content validity
95. Which of the following is NOT a procedure for establishing construct validity of an
instrument?
A. Known-group technique
B. Factor analysis
C. MTMM
D. Crombach's alpha
96. The most common type of composite scale is:
A. Likert scale
B. Visual analog scale
C. Checklists
D. Thurstone scale
97. The term “action research” was coined by:
A. Kurt Lewin

B. Glaser & Strauss
C. Karl Pearson
D. Jacob Cohen
98. A careful appraisal of the strengths and weaknesses of the study is:
A. Research proposal
B. Action Research
C. Research critique
D. Evidence-based practice
99. The standards of critiquing qualitative research include, except:
A. Descriptive vividness
B. Methodological Congruence
C. Analytical and interpretative preciseness
D. Heuristic relevance
E. Chance for committing Type-I error
100. History as a threat to the internal validity of a particular study (Cook and Campbell)
refers to:
A. An event that takes place between pretest and posttest.
B. Natural change during the period between baseline and posttest
C. Groups that are formed not on randomization bases.
D. The phenomenon of differential attrition during the course of treatment.
101. The phenomenon of those who obtain extreme scores at pretest tending to obtain less
extreme scores at posttest, at both the high and low ends of the measure is:
B. Statistical regression
C. Statistical power
D. Statistical validity

102. The concept of statistical power in the social and behavioural sciences was first
introduced by:
A. Carl pearson
B. Spearman
C. Jacob Cohen
D. Kolmogrov
103. The probability that a given effect will be detected using a sample of a specified size,
with the probability level of the statistical test being set at a predetermined level: is
A. Power of a statistical test
B. Internal validity
C. External validity
D. Reliability of a study
104 . The four parameters of power analysis are, except:
A. The alpha or probability level of the significance test
B. The size of the effect hypothesized or to be detected.
C. The size of the sample being studied.
D. The power of the statistical test.
E. Reliability of the rating scale
105. The probability of making a Type II error in any statistical testis termed as:
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Theta
E. Delta
106. A pharmacology trial concluded that a new antipsychotic reduced negative symptoms
when in reality it did not; is an example of:
A. Type I error

B. Type II error
C. Type III error
D. Type IV error
107. For a two-group comparison study, standardized measure of effect size is:
A. Square of the Pearson correlation coefficient.
B. Eta squired value
C. Chi-squire value
D. The difference between the two means, divided by the average of the standard
deviations.
108. Kappa coefficient of reliability is related to:
A. Ratio scale of measurement
B. Interval scale of measurement
C. Nominal scale of measurement
D. Continuous variables
109. The sum of the values of a variable for a set of observations, divided by the number of
the observations in the set refers to:
A. Variance
B. Standard deviation
C. Median
D. Mean
E. Mode
110. The degrees of freedom for the chi-square test is
A. ( R + 1) (C - 1 )
B. (R − 1) (C − 1)
C. (R - 1) (C + 1)
D. (R x C) - 1

111. Which of the following is NOT a multivariate statistical approach?
A. Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
B. Multiple Regression
C. Factor Analysis
D. Structural Equation Modeling
E. Analysis of variance
112. Studies that produce basic estimates of the rates of disorder in a general population
and its subgroups is:
A. Qualitative epidemiology
B. Analytic epidemiology
C. Experimental epidemiology
D. Descriptive epidemiology
113. The number of new cases that occur within a specific population within a defined
time interval is:
A. Point Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Period prevalence
D. Lifetime Prevalence
114. What is the Z-score for 97.5th percentile in a distribution?
A. +1.96
B. -1.96
C. +2.5
D. 0.05
115. The statistic used to explain the chances of being exposed to a risk among those with
the diagnosis divided by exposure to the risk among those without the diagnosis is:
A. Phi coefficient
B. Odds ratio

C. Chi square
D. Kappa
116. The phi coefficient is used for correlations between
A. Two continuous variables
B. Two set of means
C. Two dichotomous variables.
D. Two rating scales
117. In biomedical research survival analysis is typically used to evaluate
A. Incidence of a disease
B. Point Prevalence
C. Life expectancy
D. Lifetime Prevalence
118. A systematic method for continuous monitoring of diseases in a population, in order
to be able to detect changes in disease patterns and then to control them is:
A. Conditional probability
B. Screening
C. Prevalence
D. Surveillance
119. A hypothesis which a researcher tries to disprove is:
A. Research hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Alternate hypothesis
D. Positive hypothesis
120. In epidemiology research, If the relative risk is greater than 1.0, the group with the
suspected risk factor:
A. have a lower incidence rate of the disorder.

B. have a higher incidence rate of the disorder.
C. is having no relationship with the risk factor.
D. None of the above
121. Number of births divided by total population includes men women and children
(1000s) is:
A. Crude birth rate
B. General fertility rate
C. Age-specific fertility rates
D. Total period fertility rate
122. All of the following diagrams can be draw from quantitative data, except:
A. Frequency curve
B. Scatter diagram
B. Flow diagram
D. Histogram
123. In a community correlation between infant mortality and socioeconomic status is:
A. r = +1 (Strong positive correlation)
B. r = -1 (strong negative correlation)
C. r = -0.8 (moderate negative correlation)
D. r = +0.22 (strong positive correlation)
124. Best graph for demonstration of relationship between ages and weight is:
A. Bar Diagram
B. Histogram
C. Scatter
D. Pie diagram
125. Age and sex representation is best represented by:
A. Histogram
B. Pie chart

C. Bar diagram
D. Sketch of photos
126. Quantitative data can be best represented by:
A. Pie chart
B. Pictogram
C. Histogram
D. Bar diagram
127. Percentage of data can be shown in:
A. Graph presentation
B. Pie chart
C. Bar diagram
D. Histogram
128. The average berth weights in a hospital are to be demonstrated by statistical
representation. This is best done by:
A. Frequency curve
B. Pictogram
C. Histogram
D. Bar diagram
129. In a random sample taken for a population, the median is higher than:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 67
D. 100
130. For determination of which statistical parameter requires quantities to be arranged
in an ascending or descending order?
A. Mean
B. Median

C. Mode
D. SD
131. In a population of 100 females in the age group of 15-45, the mean systolic BP was
found to be 120. In a normal curve distribution, the number of people who would have an
average BP above 120 will be:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 95
132. The two important values necessary for describing the frequency distribution of a
series of observation are:
A. Mean and standard deviation
B. Mean and range
C. Median and range
D. Median and standard deviation
133. Arrangement of values in a serial order is to determine:
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range
134. A scatter diagram shows:
A. Trends of events with the passage of time
B. Relationship between two variables
C. Proportion of an event
D. Positive relationship between two variables
135. In 11 babies born in a hospital is 5 above 2.5 kg and 5 below 2.5 kg. The value 2.5 is:
A. Median average
B. Mode average

C. Geometrical mean
D. Arithmetic average
136. Relationship between two variables can be presented by:
A. Pie diagram
B. Scatter diagram
C. Bar diagram
D. Histogram
137. Calculate the median of trhese ten values.
1.9. 1.9, 1.9, 1.9, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4
A. 1.9
B. 2.1
C. 2.25
D. 2.4
138. A number of cases of malaria are collected over 10 years with extreme variation in
data. The best measure to calculate average is:
A. Arithametic mean
B. Mode
C. Geometric mean
D. Median
139. In a population study for malaria over the past few years, the number of case
reported were 20, 5000, 100, 80, 60, 70, 40, 60, 80. The average is best represented by:
A. Arithemetic mena
B. Mode
C. Geometric mean
D. Median

140. Malaria incidence in a village in the year 2000 is 430, 500, 410, 160, 270, 210, 300, 350,
4000, 430, 480, 450. Which of the following is the best indicator for assessment of malaria
incidence in that village by the epidemiologist?
A. Arithemetic mean
B. Gemetric mean
C. Median
D. Mode
141. Ten babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weight 208 kg each. Calculate the
standard deviation.
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28
142. Blood pressure samples from two community are best campared by:
A. Paired t-test
B. Student's t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. Cohort study
143. In statistics, spread of dispersion is described by:
A. Median
B. Mode
D. Mean
144. Calculate the mode of 70, 71, 72, 70, 70.
A. 70
B. 71
C. 71.5
D. 72

145. In an epidemiological study, the incubation periods obtained were 2, 5, 8, 10, 25, 10,
and 30. The median is calculated to be:
A. 50
B. 22.5
C. 10
D. 5
146. Among the measure of dispersion which is the most frequently used:
A. Range
B. Mean
C. Median
147. What is the mode in statistics?
A. Value of middle observation
B. Arithmetic mean
C. Most commonly occurring value
D. Difference between the highest and lowest value
148. Square root of deviation is called:
B. Standard error
C. Mean deviation
D. Range
149. In normal distribution curve, sampling values following:
A. Mean=Median
B. Mean=S.D
C. Mean=Variant
D. Mean= 2 x median

150. Which is false about normal distribution curve?
A. In a normal curve 95% of values in within 1 SD
B. Mean, mode and median coincidence
C. Median is mid value
D. Mode is commonest occurring value
151. Shape of a normal curve is:
A. Symmetrical
B. Curvilinear
C. Linear
D. Parabolic
152. The area under normal distribution curve for S.D. of 2 is:
A. 68%
B. 95%
C. 97.5%
D. 100%
153. In a standard normal curve the area between one standard deviation on either side
will be:
A. 68%
B. 85%
C. 97.5%
D. 99%
154. Normal distribution curve is explained using:
A. Mean and sample
B. Mean and median
C. Median and standard deviation
D. Mean and standard deviation

155. In a highly skewed distribution central tendency is better explained by:
A. Mode
B. Median
D. Mean
156. Which is false about normal distribution curve?
A. 95% of values fall within 1 S.D.
B. Mean, median and mode coincide
C. Median is the midvalue
D. Mode is commonest occurring value
157. Right sided skewed distribution causes:
A. Median is more than mean
B. S.D. is more than variance
C. "Tail" to the left
D. "Tail" to the right
158. In a normal distribution curve, the true statement is:
A. Mean = SD
B. Median = SD
C. Mean = 2 Median
D. Mean = Mode
159. If the mean is 230 and the standard error is 10, the 95% confidence limits will be:
A. 210 to 250
B. 220 to 240
C. 225 to 235
D. 230 + or -210

160. Among the following which is most significant P value?
A. 0.005
B. 0.05
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
161. The number of degrees of freedom in a table of (4x4):
A. 4
B. 8
C. 9
D. 16
162. "Confidence limits" are:
A. Mean +/- Standard error
B. Median + Standard error
C. Mean + Range
D. Mean standard deviations
163. Sum of all squares of deviation from the mean is called:
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Variance
D. Standard Error
164. Limits of confidence of a hypothesis is determined by:
A. Power factor
B. Level of significance
C. 1-power factor
D. 1-level of significance

165. Which is true about cluster sampling?
A. Every month case is chosen fro study
B. A natural group is taken as sampling unit
C. Stratification of population
D. Involves use of random numbers
166. In a community of 3000 people, 80% are Hindus, 10% Muslims, 5% Sicks, 4%
Christians, and 1% Jains. To select a sample of 300 people to analyze food habits, ideal
sampling method would be:
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Inverse sampling
167. Mean of 25 variables is 2, Standard deviation is 2, Standard error of mean is:
A. 0.4
B. 0.2
C. 2.0
D. 10
168. Cholesterol value are obtained in a group of people before and after giving drug A.
the appropriate statistical test used to analyze the data is:
A. Paired t-test
B. Unpaired t-test
C. Fischer's test
D. Chi-square test
169. Calculate standard error for population of size of 25 persons suffering from fever of
history of 8 days and with standard deviation of 2.
A. 0.4
B. 0.2
C.0.%

D. 1.6
170. In a population of 100 females the mean hemoglobin concentration was 10 and
standard deviation was 1. The standard error is:
A. 0. 01
B. 0.1
C 0.5
D. 1.6
171. An investigator was to study the association between maternal intake of iron
supplements (yes or no) and birth weights (in grams) of newborn babies. He collects
relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What is the appropriate
statistical investigation in this context?
A. Chi-square test
B. Unpaired or independent t-test
C. Analysis of variance
D. Paired t-test
172. In a drug trial, one group showed 40% response and the group with the test drug
showed 60% response. The two results can be statistically compared for significance by:
A. Chi-square test
B. Paired test
C. t-test with different measures
D. Fischer test
173. In a group of 100m children, the weight of child is 15 kg. The standard error is 1.5 kg.
Which of the following is true?
A. 95% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
B. 95% of all children weight between 13.5 and 16.5 kg
C. 99% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
D. 99% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg

174. The following statistics is used to measure the linear association between two
characteristics in the same individuals:
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Coefficient of correlation
C. Chi-square
D. Standard error
175. Which of the following test of significance can be used to compare unrelated variables
when values are all binary?
A. t-test
B. Chi-square test
C. Proportion test
D. Correlation test
E. Regression test
176. What is true about Chi-square test?
A. Expected and observed values are always equal
B. Mutually exclusive
C. Mutually non-exclusive
D. Indicates median
177. In Chi-square test degree of freedom 1, Chi-squire value= 6.7, then P-value will be:
A. > 0.5
B. <. 0.1
C. < 1 .0
D. < 0. 05
178. Regarding paired t-test true is:
A. Hypertension in a person before and after treatment can be studied
B. Continuous variables in a single sample
C. Different variables in a single sample

D. Unrelated samples can be compared
179. Complete correlation between height and weight is best given by:
A. -1
B. +1
C. 0
D. Infinity
180. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for the Chi-square test compare?
A. Measures should be in continuous scale
B. Both samples need not be mutually exclusive
C. Both samples should be mutually exclusive
D.. Samples should follow normal distribution
181. The Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of:
A. Causal relationship between exposure and effect
B. Correlation between two variables
C. Association between two variables
D. Agreement between two observations
182. A useful measure of lethality of an acute infectious disease is:
A. Attack rate
B. Incidence rate
C. Case fatality rate
D. Mortality rate
183. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and
5 died. Case fatality rate is:
A. 1%
B. 0.25%
C. 5%

D. 25%
184. Case fatality rate is:
A. Ratio
B. Proportion
C. Numerator is always constant
D. Numerator and denominator is are two separate quantities
185. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
A. Proportional mortality rate
B. Specific mortality rate
C. Case fatality ratio
D. Morbidity rate
186. True about prevalence are all, except:
A. Rate
B. Specifically for all old and new cases
C. P = Lx D
D. Prevalence of two types
187. Descriptive epidemiology is study in relation to:
A. Time
B. Place
C. Person
D. All of the above
188. Residents of three villages with three different types of water supply were asked to
participate in a study to identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had
occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone occurred in the time submitted to
examination. The proportion of carriers in each village who were carriers was computed
and compared. The study is a:
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study

C. Concurrent-cohort study
D. Noon-concurrent case control study
189. Study of a person who has already contacted the disease is called:
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Control cohort
D. Longitudinal
190. All are true about case control studies, except:
A. Relative risk can be calculated
B. Less expensive
C. Suitable for rare diseases
D. Backward study
191. The process of "matching" allows:
A. The matched variables to evaluated
B. For Selecting the case and control group with the same known confounding variables
C. Matching of factors in doubt
D. To avoid focusing on variables desired
192. Prevalence is:
A. Rate
B. Ratio
C Proportion
D. Mode
193. To compare two population, the best index is:
A. Standardized death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Crude birth rate
D. Couple protection rate

194. All are morbidity indicators, except:
A. Period of stay in hospital
B. Doctor population ratio
C. Attendance at outpatient department
D. Notification rates
195. Incidence is defined as:
A. Number of cases existing in a given population at a given moment
B. Number of cases existing in a given period
C. Number of new cases occurring during a specific period
D. Number of old cases present
196. Relative risk can be obtained from:
A. Case study
B. Cohort study
C. Case control study
D. Experimental study
197. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20,000 exposed to smocking, 200 developed
cancer, and among 40,000 people unexposed , 40 developed cancer. The relative risk of
smocking in the development of cancer is:
A. 20
B. 10
C. 5
D. 15
198. Calculate the Odd's ratio. (ad/bc)
Diseased Non-diseased
Positive 30 20
Negative 20 30
A. 0.44
B. 1.5

C. 0.8
D. 2.25
199. Death rate of two countries is compared by:
A. Crude death rate
B. Proportional crude rate
C. Standardized mortality rate
D Age specific death
200. Case control study is used for:
A. Finding rare cause
B. Finding multiple risk factors
C. Finding incidence rate
D. Finding morbidity rates
201. When launching a study many respondent are invited, some of whom fail to come.
This is called:
A. Response bias
B. Volunteer bias
C. Selection bias
D. Berkesonian bias
202. Most important characteristic of case control study is:
A. Odd's ratio estimation
B. Problem bias
C .Yields incidence rate
D. Expensive
203. All are true about cohort studies, except:
A. Prospective
B. Useful for rare diseases

C. Necessary for incidence
D. Expensive
204. Which is the most appropriate method of research for studying incidence of diarrhea
in a community?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Cohort study
C. Case control study
D. Double-blind placebo study
205. Best method to calculate the incidence rate is:
A. Case control study
B. Sentinel surveillance
C. Cohort study
D. Cross-sectional prevalence study
206. Relative risk could show an association between:
A. Smocking ad cancer
B. OCP and pregnancy
C. Efficacy of 2 drugs
D. Altitude and endemic goiter
207. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called:
A. Causal risk
B. Attributable risk
C. Relative risk
D. Odd's ratio
208. Which is false about cohort study?
A. Incidence can be measured
B. Used to study chronic diseases
C. Expensive

D. Always prospective
209. Prevalence of disease in a community can be found out by:
B. Cohort study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Experimental study
210. True about case control study are all, except:
A. Quick results
B. Incidence rate measure
C. Proceeds from effect to cause
D. Relatively inexpensive
211. Study of lung cancer in non-smokers is:
A. Unifactorial
B. Multifactorial
C. Passive smocking also increases risk of cancer
D. Beedi smokers carry higher risk than cigarette smokers
212. Temporal association between a risk factor and the disease relates to:
A. Does-response relationship
B. Duration - response relationship
C. One to-one relationship
D. Cause and effect relationship
213. Percentages in the segments are indicated by:
A. Bar charts
B. Histogram
C. Pictogram
D. Pie charts

214. In a community with prevalence of HIV 5%, if the sensitivity is 95% and specificity is
95% of ELISA, what is the predictive value of the test?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%
215. Parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing:
A. Criterion validity
B. Construct validity
C. Discriminant validity
D. Content validity
216. Secondary attack rate reflects:
A. Severity
B. Communicability
C. Fatality
D. Infectivity
217. An index describing the magnitude of relationship between nominal level data, used
when the contingency table to which it is applied is larger than 2x2:
A. Pearson correlation coeficient
B. Cramer's V
C. Fisher's exact test
D. Spearman correlation coeficient
218. E.g. "An educational porogramme on smocking was implemented to 800 smockers.
One month after implementing the programme, 28 out of 300 women smockers and 46 out
of 500 men smockers stopped smocking."
Which statistical test could be used to test the association between sex of participants and
effectiveness of smocking?
A. t-test copyright@ currentnursing.com

C. Chi-square
D. ANOVA
219. A nonparametric test statistical significance used to assess wheather a relationship
exists between two nominal variables is:
A. Crombach alpha test
B. ANOVA
C. t-test
D. Pearson correaltion
E. Chi-square test
220. Limitation of carryover effects are related to tests which measure:
A. Stability (test-retest)copyright@ currentnursing.com
B. Equivalence (parallel form)
D. Cronbach alpha
221. The cut off points beyond which the researcher does not intent to probe which
includes those restrictions the researcher placed in the study prior to gathering data:
A. Consistency
B. Delimitation
C. Reliability
D. Limitation copyright@ currentnursing.com
222. The term which refers to the extent to which the results of the study can be generalized
to the larger population:
B. Predictive validity
C. External validity
D. Content validity

223. When subpopulations within an overall population vary, the best method of data
collection is:
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Purposive sampling
224. An approach to construct validity that involves assesing the degree to which two
methods of measuring a construct are similar:
A. Discriminant validity
B. Concurrent validity
C. Convergent validity
D. Divergent validity
225. The degree to which scores on an instrument are correlated with some external
criterion measured at the same time:
A. Factor validity
B. Construct validity
C. Content validity
D. Concurrent validity
226. The term which refers to the validity of a research in which the difference in the
dependent variable is actually a result of the independent variable:
A. Construct Validity
B. Conclusion Validity
C. Internal Validity
D. External Validity
227. A sampling process where each element of the population that is sampled is
subjected to an independent Bernoulli trial which determines whether the element
becomes part of the sample during the drawing of a single sample:
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Stratified Random Sampling

C. Poisson sampling
D. Multistage Sampling
228. Data collection about everyone or everything in group or population and has the
advantage of accuracy and detail:
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Probability sampling
D. Cluster sampling
229. The stages of sampling process comprises: (Multiple Response Question)
A. Defining the population
B. Specifying sampling frame
C. Specifying sampling method
D. Determining the sample size
E. Sampling and data collection
230. A sampling method which involves a random start and then proceeds with the selection
of every kth element from then onwards (where k= population size/sample size):
B. Stratfied random sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Snowball sampling
231. Considerations for choosing sample size include:
A. The degree of precision required
B. Method of sampling
C. Way in which results will be analyzed
D. All of the above

232. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is referred to as the:
A. Test statistic
B. Standard error
C. Confidence interval
D. Test of signaifiance
233. Sampling bias or the error resulting from taking a non-random sample of a
population include:
A. Pre-screening
B. Self-Selection Bias
C. Selection from a Specific Area
D. Exclusion bias
E. All of the above
234. "Cardiac patients who receive support from former patients have less anxiety and higher
self-efficacy than other patients". This statement is an example of:
A. Directional hypothesis=
B. Non-directional hypothesis
C. Statistical hypothesis
D. Null hypothesis
235. What is TRUE about research hypothesis?
A. States there is no relationship between the variables.
B. Statement about the expected relationship of the variables.=
C. States a negative relationship between the variables
D. Research hypothesis should always be directional.
236. Hypothesis testing is sometimes called:
A. Exploratory data analysis
B. Power analysis
C. Deductive Reasoning

D. Confirmatory data analysis =
237. The test's probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis is stated by:
A. Significance level of a test (α)
B. Effect Size
C. Power of a test (1 − β)
D. z = (xbar - µ) / (σ / √n)
238. Type I error refers to:
A. Rejecting H0 when it is actually true=
B. Accepting H0 when it is actually false
C. Concluding no difference when one does exist
D. Rejecting research hypothesis when H0 is actually false
239. Which statement is FALSE?
A. H0 and H1 are mutually exclusive
B. Two-tailed tests are more conservative.
C. Probability that the test will lead to a Type I error is Alpha-level
D. Hypothesis is formulated in experimental research.
E. Probability of falsely rejecting the true null hypothesis (type II error / alpha error)
240. When considering levels of significance, critical value of z corresponding to the alpha
level of .05 is:
A. .001
B. 1.96
C. 2.58
D. 3.29
241. Declaration of Helsinki (1964/1975) is related to:
A. Qualitative research

B. Genetics research
C. Ethical standards in research
D. Statistical methods in research
242. "Above all, do no harm".
This principle encompassed in the ethical dimension of:
A. Human dignity
B. Justice
C. Beneficence
D. Anonymity
243. Three factors are important regarding the rights of the participants include all
except:
A. Confidentiality
B. Anonymity
C. Voluntary participation
D. Jurisprudence
244. When the researcher is not allowed control of the treatment variable and cannot
achieve randomization because of ethical considerations, institutional policies or other
situational factors, the researcher chooses:
A. True experimental studies
B. Quasi experimental studies
C. Exploratory studies
D. Qualitative studies
245. Factors Affecting Power include:
A. . Size of the effect
B. Standard deviation of the characteristic
C. Bigger sample size
D. Significance level desired
E. All of the above

246. A descriptive metric that characterizes the standardized difference (in SD units)
between the mean of a control group and the mean of a treatment group is:
A. Effect size
B. LSD
C. Beta
D. Chi-square copyright@ currentnursing.com
247. The power of a statistical test is influenced by:
A. Size of the effect
B. Sample size
C. Beta (β)
D. All of the above
248. Which of the following statements about power of a test is FALSE?
A. Power of the test refers to probability of detecting a predefined clinically significant
difference.
B. Power of a test explains the risk of a false-positive finding
C. Power of the test is usually set at (1-20%) 80%
D. Power = 1 - βcopyright@ nursingplanet.com/Quiz/nursing_research_quiz20.html
249. A statistical expression of magnitude of relationship between two variables or
magnitude of difference between two groups:
A. Effect size
B. Eignvalue
C. p-value
D. z-score
250. Which of the following classification of research designs is based on the dimension of
control over independent variables?
A. Structured and flexible
B. Cross-sectional and longitudinal
C. Retrospective and prospective

D. Experimental/quasi experimental and non-experimental
251. A type of longitudinal study in which data are collected from the same people at two
or more points in time:
B. Panel study
C. Prospective study
D. Retrospective study
252. The process in which each participant has an equal and known probability of being
assigned to either the control or the experimental group is:
A. Randomization
B. Manipulation
C. Research control
D.
253. The the primary objective of experimental methodology is:
A. Ensure external validity
B. Improve internal validity
C. To eliminate type I error
D. To reduce ethical problems
254. A characteristic features of quasi-experimental design are all, EXCEPT:
A. Experimental and control groups may be nonequivalent
B. Less powerful than true-experimental design
C. Limited confidence in the internal validity of the study
D. Random assignment of units to comparison groups

255. Repeated-measures design is also known as:
A. Crossover design
B. Solomon four-group design
C. Time series design
D. With-in subjects design
256. The process of maneuvering the independent variable so that its effect on the
dependent variable can be observed is:
A. Deductive Reasoning
B. Delimitation
C. Manipulation
D. Meta-analysis
257. A statistic calculated in ANOVA:
A. Chi-square
C. Eta-squared
D. t-statistic
258. A statistical procedure used to test the significant difference in proportions, used
when the sample size is small or cells in the contingency table have no observations:
A. MANOVA
B. McNemar test
C. Chi-square test
D. Fisher's exact test
259. Friedman's test is:
A. Parametric equivalent test of chi-square test
B. Non-parametric analogue of ANOVA in paired/repeated measures design
C. Non-parametric procedure used to test the differences between three or more
independent groups
D. Parametric procedure used when comparing proportions

260. A correlation coefficient used to indicate the magnitude of a relationship between
ordinal-level data:
A. Kendall's tau
B. phi coefficient
C. Wilk's lambda
D. F-ratio
261. A statistical index describing the magnitude of relationship between two dichotomous
variables:
A. p-value
B. eta-squared
C. t-value
D. phi- coefficient
262. Product-moment correlation coefficient is also known as:
A. Spearman's rho
B. Pearson r=
C. phi coefficient
D. Reliability coefficient
263. A statistical procedure to test mean differences among groups on a dependent
variable, while controlling for one or more extraneous variables:
A. Causal model
B. Analysis of Covariances (ANCOVA)
C. Structural Equation Modeling (SEM)
D. Path analysis
264. A statistical testing procedure for examining the relationship between two or more
independent variables and two or more dependent variables is:
A. Cluster analysis
B. Multiple regression
C. Canonical analysis

D. Survival analysis
265. A variable that is statistically controlled in ANCOVA (analysis of covariance), which
typically has an extraneous, confounding influence over dependent variable:
A. Mediating variable
B. Manifest variable
C. Latent variable
D. Covariate
266. In path analysis, a variable whose determinants lie outside the model is:
A. Exogenous variable
B. Latent variable
C. Manifest variable
D. Mediating variable
267. A multivariate statistical procedure for reducing a large set of variables into a
smaller set of variables with common characteristics is:
A. Linear regression
B. ANCOVA
C. Factor analysis
D. MANOVA
268. A statistical procedure which typically used for testing causal models:
A. LISREL (Linear Structural Relations Analysis)
B. Survival analysis
C. Logistic regression
D. MANOVA

269. A multivariate statistical procedure which analyses relationship between multiple
independent variables and categorical dependent variables:
A. ANCOVA
B. Logistic regression
C. Multiple regression
D. MTMM
270. Kaplan–Meier estimator curves are related to:
A. Structural equation modeling
B. Cluster Analysis
C. Survival analysis
D. Canonical Discriminant Analysis
271. A general method for fitting and testing path analysis models, based on covariances:
A. MTMM
B. Structural Equation Modeling (SEM)
C. Multiple regression
D. MANOVA
272. Cox proportional hazards models are applied in:
A. Canonical Discriminant Analysis
B. Correspondence Analysis
C. Cluster Analysis
D. Survival analysis
273. A method of analyzing qualitative data that involves an interactive approach to
testing research hypothesis:
A. Analytic induction
B. Axial coding
C. 'Blind' review
D. Inquiry audit

274. The process of identifying and holding in abeyance any preconceived beliefs and
opinions one has about the phenomena of understanding is:
A. Bricolage
B. Content Analysis
C. Bracketing
D. Bricoleur
275. A design that unfolds in the course of a qualitative study as the researcher makes
ongoing design:
A. Experimental design
B. Quasi-experimental design
C. Exploratory design
D. Emergent design
276. The tendency in qualitative research to derive a complex array of data from a variety
of sources, using a variety of methods is referred as:
A. Auto-ethnography
B. Snowball sampling
C. Recursive abstraction
D. Bricolage
277. 'Emic perspective' refers to:
A. Outsider's view
B. Insider's view
C. Etic perspective
D. Holistic view
278. A branch of qualitative research associated with the field of anthropology:
A. Ethnography
B. Anthropology
C. Etymology
D. Epistemology

279. Which of the following is NOT a qualitative method of research?
A. Ethnography
B. Case Study
C. Survey/Sampling
D. Discourse/Text Analysis
E. Meta-Analysis
280. Which is a characteristic of qualitative research methods?
A. Naturalistic inquiry copyright@ currentnursing.com
B. Random sampling
C. Introduction of a treatment
D. Use of a control group
281. A method of refining a hypothesis or theory in a qualitative study that involves the
inclusion of cases that appear to deconfirm earlier hypotheses:
A. Negative case analysis
B. Open coding
C. Quasi-statistics
D. Theoretical sampling
282. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of qualitative research?
A. Seek to explore phenomena
B. Emergent design
C. Positivist paradigm
D. Use semi-structured methods
283. Which of the following is NOT an assumption made by parametric tests?
A. Sample scores a have been drawn from a normally distributed population
B. The samples are assumed to have the same variance
C. DV is measured on an interval scale
D. DV is measured on an ordianal or nominal scale

284. Methods of checking assumption of normal distribution are:
A. Plotting data in the form of a histogram
B. Calculating skewness of the distribution (z-score + 1.96)
C. Calculating kurtosis of the distribution (z-score + 1.96)
D. Applying Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
E. All of the above
285. Which of the following statements about Box Plot are true?
In a Box Plot for variability,
A. the box represents the difference between the 25th and 75th percentiles.
B. the larger the box, the greater the spread of the data.
C. the outliers are cases with the values between 1.5 and 3 box-lengths from the 75th
percentile or 25th percentile.
D. the extreme values are cases with the values more than 3 box-lengths from the 75th
percentile or 25th percentile.
286. Which of the following statements about normal distribution are true?
A. A value of zero for the skewness indicates a symmetric distribution.
B. The normal distribution has kurtosis of zero.
C. Shapiro-Wilk statistic for normality is calculated when the weighted sample size lies
between 3 and 50.
D. Normal distribution is explained on the basis of mean and S.D
287. What is the appropriate sytatistical test for the following research question?
"Is there a difference in the confidence levels (measured on interval scale) of men and
women who fall into one of three different age groups?"
A. One-way ANOVA
B. 2 by 3 Factorial ANOVA
C. Chi-square test
D. Multiple regression

288. Sphericity assumption in repeated measures one-way ANOVA is tested using the
(SPSS):
A. Mauchly's test
B. t-test
C. Greenhouse-Geissor
D. LSD
289. Circularity/sphericity assumption is applicable in:
A. t-test
B. With-in-group one-way ANOVA
C. Between-group one-way ANOVA
D. Regression
290. What is NOT true about t-test?
A. As degrees of freedom increases, critical value of t decreases
B. Critical value for t at 0.10 level of significance for a two-tailed hypothesis is same as the
critical value required for 0.05 level of significance with a one-tailed hypothesis
C. Critical value for t decrease as the sample size increases
D. Critical value for t is independent of the sample size.
291. What is NOT true about Yate's Correction?
A. Applied when there is two categorical variable are compared.
B. Applied when there is 2X2 contingency table is used
C. Recommended when there is less than 5 numbers are there is contingency cells
D. It is used when normality assumption is not satisfied.
292. For calculation of degree of freedom for chi-square test, the formula applied is:
A. n-1
B. n-2
C. (c-1) x (r-1)
D. k (n-1)

293. Which of the following statements are true about survival analysis?
A. Survival analysis has a dichotomous (binary) outcome
B. Survival analysis analyzes the time to an event
C. Kaplan-Meier curves applied in survival analysis
D. Cox proportional hazards models are used in interpreting results.
Answer Key
294. Structural Equation Modeling (SEM) is also known as:
A. LISREL
B. Cluster analysis
C. Factor analysis
D. Correspondence Analysis
Answer Key
295. A regression-based procedure for testing causal models, typically using non-
experimental data:
A. Cohen's kappa
B. Factor analysis
C. Path analysis
D. Multitrait-multimatrix method
Answer Key
296. A correlation present in different groups is reversed when the groups are combined
which is often encountered in social-science and medical-science statistics:
A. Simpson's paradox (Yule–Simpson effect)=
B. Guttman Model
C. Cronbach’s α
D. Kendall's Coefficient of Concordance

297. Which of the following is NOT true about Bland Altman technique?
Bland Altman technique,
A. suggests that if the differences are within the mean ± 1.96 S.D. are not clinically
significant, the two measurement methods may be used interchangeably.
B. is employed to assess agreement between two methods of clinical measurements.
C. may be constructed to assess agreement between finger stick and earlobe glucose results.
D. may be employed to calculate internal consistency of a scale.
Answer Key
298. What is NOT true about statistical power?
A. In Statistical Power, effect size is also known as Cohen’s d
B. Statistical power is used to explain the cause of an effect.
C. Statistical power reflects the power to detect a genuine effect 80% of the time.
D. Statistical power reflects the sensitivity of our test.
Answer Key
299. What is NOT true about effect size?
A. ES is required to determine the sample size.
B. Thresholds of >0.2 (small), >0.5 (moderate) & >0.8 (large) are suggested for effect size
for a two-group comparison (Cohen) .
C. Effect size shows us the magnitude of our effect relative to SD.
D. Effect size is independent of sample size.
Answer Key
300. A reliability index that estimates the homogeneity of a measure composed of several
items or subparts:
A. Tukey's Test for Nonadditivity
B. Spearman's correlation coefficient
C. Cronbach’s α

D. Intra-class correlation coefficient
Answer Key
301. Intra-class correlation coefficient (ICC) is calculated:
A. Construct Validity
B. Test–Retest Reliability
C. Criterion Validity
D. Inter-rater Reliability
Answer Key
302. Kuder-Richardson formula is a method of calculating:
A. internal consistency reliability for a rating scale when the items are dichotomous=
B. internal consistency reliability for a rating scale when the items are continuous
C. inter-rater reliability
D. test-retest reliability
Answer Key

Answer Key
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. D 18. D 19.A 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. B
26. A 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A
31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. A
36. A 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. B
41. A 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. D
46. A 47. E 48. C 49. D 50. C
51. A 52. C 53. D 54. E 55. B
56. C 57. B 58.D 59. D 60. C
61. A 62. C 63. D 64. A 65. D
66. B 67. A 68.C 69. A 70. D
71.B 72.D 73.B 74.D 75.B
76.D 77.E 78.A 79.D 80.A
81. C 82.A 83.B 84.C 85.E
86. B 87.C 88. C 89.D 90.B
91. A 92. E 93. A 94. C 95. D
96. A 97. A 98. C 99. E 100. A
101. B 102. C 103. A 104. E 105. B
106. A 107. D 108. C 109. D 110. B
111. E 112. D 113. B 114. A 115. B
116. C 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. B
121. A 122. C 123. c 124. A 125. A
126. C 127. B 128. D 129. B 130. B
131. B 132. A 133. C 134. B 135. A
136. B 137. C 138. B 139. B 140. C
141. A 142. A 143. C 144. A 145. C
146. D 147. C 148. A 149. A 150. A
151. A 152. B 153. A 154. D 155. A
156. A 157. C 158. D 159. A 160. A
161. C 162. A 163. C 164. B 165. D
166. B 167. A 168. A 169. A 170. B
171. B 172. A 173. A 174. B 175. A
176. B 177. D 178. A 179. B 180. C

181. B 182. C 183. D 184. A 185. C
186. A 187. D 188. A 189. A 190. B
191. C 192. B 193. A 194. B 195. C
196. B 197. B 198. D 199. C 200. B
201. B 202. A 203. B 204. B 205. C
206. A 207. C 208. D 209. A 210. B
211. B 212. D 213. D 214. B 215. A
216. B 217. B 218. C 219. E 220. A
221. B 222. C 223. B 224. C 225. D
226. C 227. C 228. A 229. A, B, C, D,
E
230. C
231. D 232. B 233. E 234. A 235. B
236. D 237. C 238. A 239. E 240. B
241. C 242. C 243. D 244. B 245. E
246. A 247. D 248. B 249. A 250. D
251. B 252. A 253. B 254. D 255. A
256. C 257. C 258. D 259. B 260. A
261. D 262. B 263. B 264. C 265. D
266. A 267. C 268. A 269. B 270. C
271. B 272. D 273. A 274. C 275. D
276. D 277. B 278. B 279. E 280. A
281. A 282. C 283. D 284. E 285. A,B,C,D
286. A,B,C,D 287. B 288. A 289. C 290. D
291. D 292. C 293. A, B, C, D 294. A 295. C
296. A 297. D 298. B 299. D 300. C
301. D 302. A

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