Nursing objective questions-1. Presentation

Thursday 14 November 2024 1
SELECT THE MOST APPROPIATE OPTION
01. The chemical that make skin impenetrable, waterproof and
resistant to disruptive toxins and most invaders is :
a) The skin tissue
b) Keratin
c) Sweat gland secretion
d) melanin

02. The defensive protein that binds with the infected cells and protect
it by stimulating the cells to produce antiviral protein that prevent the
virus from making copies of itself :
a) Complement system
b) Interferon
c) Inflammation
d) fever

03. It is an establishment and implementation of policies, procedures,
education and monitoring of staff adherence to reduce infection among
patients, staff and visitors :
a) Infection prevention and control
b) Infection prevention and safety
c) Infection control
d) Infection prevention

04. As a nurse working in the medical ward, you can get 100s to 1000s
of pathogens on your hands by:
a) Hand washing
b) Hand hygiene
c) Taking vital signs
d) Use of alcohol based sanitizer

05. As a nurse working in a surgical ward, you are aware that risk for
infection following exposure depend on one of the following :
a) Age of the care worker
b) Gender of the care worker
c) Duration of the contact
d) Aseptic method

06. Primary HIV infection indicates that systemic infection does not
occur immediately after exposure, this is due to:
a) Opportunity of use of PEP
b) Window period
c) Seroconversion
d) Individual differences

07. A client has an infection that is spread through droplets. Which of
the following is essential for the nurse to use when taking this client’s
temperature..?
a) Gloves
b) Goggles
c) Gown
d) Mask

08. In infection control, all blood, body fluids, secretions from all
patients and staff are considered as infectious until proving otherwise:
a) True
b) False
c) A & B
d) Undecided

09. A nurse working as an infection control officer, any safety measures
taken to prevent cross infections in healthcare settings is called :
a) Infection control measures
b) Standard precautions
c) Infection prevention
d) Safety precaution

10. Mr john a post operative patient in the surgical ward developed a
severe fever 4 days after the surgery, this is typical of :
a) Primary infection
b) Secondary infection
c) Malnutrition
d) Normal surgical process

11. When a nurse is able to perform comprehensive and
systematic patient assessment to deliver effective nursing care
to the patient, the nurse is said to be competent in...
a. Management of care.
b. Professionalism
c. Legal issue
d. Nursing ethics

12. A client is undergoing a comphrensive admission
assessment, the nurse knows that, the single most significant
indicator of cerebral perfusion and functioning is called
a. Level of consciousness
b. Glasgow coma scale
c. Intra cranial pressure
d. Pupils dilatation

13. It is a vigorous rubbing together of lathered hands for
15secs followed by a thorough rinsing under running stream
of water:
a. Hand sanitization
b. Hand rubbing
c. Hand washing
d. Hand sanity

14. The nurse delivers a D.C. counter shock to a cardiac patient
in a critical incidence, the nurse knows that the MOST
appropriate equipment to use in this situation is:
a. Arterial line
b. Defibrillator
c. Glucometer
d. Spiro metery

15. A patient has a diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.
He has sustained an inhalation burn injury. Amongst the
following nursing interventions which of the following is the
most rational?
a. Monitor respiratory rate and breathing 4 hours
b. Elevate the head of the bed
c. Encourage cough exercise
d. Monitor oxygen levels every 4 hours

16. A client who has an inhalation injury comes to emergency
unit. On the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the client
is very confused and physically defensive. What do you think
the client may be experiencing from?
a. Fear
b. Anxiety
c. Hypoxia
d. Pain

17. Which nursing intervention can help prevent sharp spikes
in ICP and surgical haemorrhage?
a. Give fluid restriction
b. Help with breath exercises
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated
d. Administer an antiemetic to prevent vomiting

18. A patient presents to the surgical ward after an
exploratory laparotomy related to trauma. The patient is
hypotensive and tachycardic. This is most likely due to which
of the following ?
a. Hypovolaemia
b. Pain
c. Hypothermia
d. hyperthermia

19. A 16 year-old is admitted to the floor after a foot ball injury.
The patient has a femur fracture. An external fixation device was
applied in the operating room. The patient is at an increased risk
for development of which of the following complications:
a. Post traumatic stress disorder.
b. Deep venous thrombosis.
c. Pulmonary embolism.
d. Pressure sore.

20. A 40 year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident. She
presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, and difficulty breathing.
Her arterial oxygen saturation is 85% and her respiratory rate is
40b/minute. A chest tube is placed and the nurse observes a return of
300 mls blood into the system. What is the nurse’s next line of action ?
a. Clamp the tube and notify surgeon immediately.
b. Call for a chest x-ray.
c. Place the patient on oxygen.
d. Explain to the patient what is going on to alley anxiety.

21. A female patient tells you that when taking some
antibiotics, she develops an itchy skin. This information should
alert the nurse that the patient may be more likely to
experience what form of shock ?
a. Hypovolemic.
b. Cardiogenic
c. Anaphylactic
d. Septic

22. Mr Johnson a 35 year-old man presents with cardiogenic
shock. The nurse knows which medications to optimize
preload:
a. Diuretics
b. Intravenous fluids
c. Antibiotics
d. Both intravenous fluid and diuretics

23. Which of the following is NOT true ?
a. Withholding life-sustaining treatment is ethically acceptable,
but withdrawing such treatment is not.
b. To be truly autonomous, a patient must be fully informed and
freely consenting.
c. Do Not Resuscitate order (DNR) is a medical order to withhold
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
d. A nurse’s duty always to act in the best interests of his or her
patient is based on the principle of beneficence

44. Mr Abu, a 35 year-old dispatch rider presents to your
facility with diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse
knows the typical presentation of this condition is :
a. Rapid ascending paralysis
b. Deficits of cranial nerves 1X and X
c. Respiratory arrest
d. Distal tingling of fingertips

25. The patient arrives in the emergency department with a
suspected cervical spinal cord injury. Which of the following is
an assessment priority ?
a. Abdominal assessment
b. Cardiac assessment
c. Neurological assessment
d. Respiratory assessment

26. All of the following are interventions for the patient with
ineffective thermoregulation EXCEPT:
a. Adjust room temperature
b. Cover the patient with a warm blanket
c. Cover the patient’s head with a hat or scarf
d. Use a heating pad

27. Which of the following macronutrients in parenteral
nutrition may need to be increased in a patient who has large,
nonhealing wounds?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Trace elements
d. Protein

28. The nurse delivers a synchronised D.C. counter shock to a
cardiac patient in a critical incidence, the nurse knows that the
MOST appropriate term to describe this procedure is :
a. CPR
b. Cardiac pacing
c. Defibrillation
d. Cardioversion

29. The nurse delivers a NON synchronised D.C. counter shock
to a cardiac patient in a critical incidence, the nurse knows
that the MOST appropriate term to describe this procedure is :
a. CPR
b. Cardiac pacing
c. Defibrillation
d. Cardioversion

30. The medium through which the nurses communicate and
provide evidence of certain task done in the clinical setting is:
a. Documentation
b. Record keeping
c. Electronic medical record
d. Handing and taking over

31. The formal report containing the type of nursing care
given to a patient and their response to it, as well any event or
factors that may affect the patient’s wellbeing is called
a. Nursing documentation
b. Nursing implementation
c. Nursing care plan
d. Nursing records

32. Mrs Samuel, a 32 year head injured patient in a surgical
ward complained of severe headache, nausea and vomiting
and suddenly lost consciousness. The nurse knows this is as a
result of :
a. Brain injury
b. Hypertension
c. Renal failure
d. Increase intra-cranial pressure

33. A nurse while performing a suctioning procedure noticed
some signs of hypercapnia in the patient. The MOST
appropriate intervention to be taken is :
a. Stop the procedure and inform the seniors
b. Stop and document the findings
c. Hyper oxygenate and intubate if possible
d. Reassure the patient

34. Master James, a 5 year old being managed as a case of
severe Broncho-pneumonia need airways suctioning. The
nurse knows that, the require pressure for this procedure is :
a. 70 – 90mmhg
b. 80 – 100mmhg
c. 80 – 120mmhg
d. 90 – 130mmhg

35. An adult manual ventilation bag has the capacity of how
many mills of air :
a. 1 litre
b. 2 litres
c. 3 litres
d. 4 litres

36. This types of manual ventilation bag is routinely being
used during patient’s resuscitation
a. Self inflating bag
b. Flow inflating bag
c. Semi self inflating bag
d. Semi-flow inflating bag

37. The most appropriate nursing intervention performed by
the nurse to promote respiratory function for an unconscious
patient is:
a. Adequate hydration
b. Frequent suctioning
c. Head up position
d. Turning and positioning every 2 hours

38. The following are components of medical record EXCEPT:
a. Poor spelling
b. Medication chart
c. Nursing record
d. Vital signs

39. Mr Abu, a 35 year-old dispatch rider presents to your
facility with diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse
knows the typical presentation of this condition is :
a. Rapid ascending paralysis
b. Deficits of cranial nerves 1X and X
c. Respiratory arrest
d. Distal tingling of fingertips

40. Risk factor modification is an important component of
patient education and rehabilitation after myocardial
infarction. The nurse knows one of the following as a major
controlled risk factor:
a. Age
b. Obesity
c. Excessive alcohol intake
d. Stress

41. A description of pain that occurs with acute myocardial
infarction is:
a. Pain that worsens with leaning or sitting forward
b. Pain that decrease with swallowing
c. Abrupt onset of pain that resolves with decrease activities.
d. Pain that intensifies with a deep breath

42. These particular drugs increases coronary arteries filling by
prolonging diastole in a patient with myocardial infarction :
a. Beta blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE
d. ACE inhibitors

43. This is an oxygen binding protein found in skeletal and
cardiac muscles :
a. Troponin
b. Myoglobin
c. CK-MB
d. Isoform CK

44. The most common manifestation of myocardial infarction
is:
a. Acute onset of chest pain
b. Anxiety
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Inadequate cardiac output

45. The following are immediate complications of
tracheostomy EXCEPT:
a. Haemorrhage
b. Apnoea
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Stenosis

46. The process or procedure used in sorting patients
according to the degree of severity of their condition during
disaster is called :
a. Primary survey
b. Triage
c. Emergency sorting
d. Pre-arrival assessment

47. A nurse while conducting vital signs monitoring for a
patient with enlarged thyroid detect pulse rate of 40 beat per
minute. The nurse knows that this patient is having:
a. Tachycardia
b. Heart block
c. Thyroid crisis
d. Bradycardia

48. A nurse while conducting a physical examination on newly
admitted patient observed that, the patient is photophobic,
easily irritated by alarm sounds in the unit. The most likely
condition of this patient is :
a. Tetanus
b. Epilepsy
c. Meningitis
d. Severe malaria

49. As a nurse working in a medical ward, the nervous system can
inhibit or stimulate the activities of other systems in order to maintain :
a. Integration
b. Mental balance
c. Homeostasis
d. Action potential

50. The following cranial nerves serve as a motor nerve to tongue
muscle :
a. Olfactory nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve

51. Mr John a 30 year old is suffering from shock, the nurse can detect
pallor from the :
a. Conjunctiva
b. Sclera
c. Iris
d. Skin

52. The nurse knows that, gerontology can be defined as :
a. A field of nursing practice
b. A field of nursing for the new born
c. A scientific study of the ageing process
d. A categorized care of the patient

53. Abdominal thrust is used in first aid for victim’s of :
a. A chocking and airway blockage
b. Gas poisoning
c. Drowning
d. Cardiac arrest

54. Nursing roles in psychiatric home care should be determined by
which of the following :
a. Physician order
b. Nurses education, experience and ability
c. Organizational policies and procedures
d. Nursing ethics

55. The nurse knows that, the behaviour change indicating chronic low
self esteem is :
a. Oppositional behaviour
b. Difficulty making decision
c. Infrequent eye contact
d. Frequent crying

56. Metastasis of cancer cells occur through the following process
EXCEPT :
a. Lymphatics
b. Specific affinity
c. Haematogenous
d. Malignancy

57. The nurse knows that, a result generated when a test indicates a
positive status while the true status is negative is called :
a. True positive
b. True negative
c. False negative
d. False positive

58. A nurse working in an emergency unit knows that, the safe
approach to opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal
injury is :
a. Helmlich manoeuver
b. Jaw thrust manoeuver
c. Head tilt-chin-lift manoeuver
d. Left lateral position

59. Which country has the highest number of COVID-19 cases:
a. Nigeria
b. United kingdom
c. United states of America
d. Saudi Arabia

60. The index case of COVID-19 was first recorded in Nigeria on :
a. 27th
January 2019
b. 27th
February 2019
c. 27th
January 2020
d. 27th
February 2020

61. A surgical nurse uses sterile fluid to flush wound in a surgical ward.
The is performing :
a. Wound dressing
b. Wound cleaning
c. Wound sterilization
d. Wound irrigation

62. The composition and volume of body fluids are regulated primarily
by :
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Urine out put
d. Kidneys

63. The clinical nurse is performing a procedure characterised by
submerging the client’s perineal area in warm water. The nurse knows
this procedure as :
a. Suppository insertion
b. Perineal irrigation
c. Sitz bath
d. Perineal warming

64. The stage of death characterised by stiffness of the muscles of the
limbs due to chemical changes is termed as :
a. Cessational stiffness
b. Mortis rehabilis
c. Rigor mortis
d. Body stiffness

65. Cardiac arrest is a problem of the :
a. Conducting system of the heart
b. Heart muscles
c. Heart valve
d. Coronary artery

66. At the base of the triangle in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is :
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety and security
c. Love and esteem
d. Self actualization

67. Medicine commonly used in suppressing or relieving coughing but
which may not necessarily treat the underlying cause is :
a. Antibiotics
b. Expectorant
c. Antitussive agents
d. Broncholytic agents

68. Venous drainage from the heart is through the :
a. Cardiac vein
b. Coronary sinuses
c. Coronary arteries
d. Vena cava

69. Murophobia refers to:
a. Fear of humans
b. Fear of rats
c. Fear of bats
d. Fear of women

70. The first important activity of a ward manager is :
a. Planning
b. Delegation
c. Organizing
d. Job allocation

71. A research question should have the following characteristics
EXCEPT :
a. Not be interrogative and usually stated in the present
b. Must contain one or more variables
c. Should be clear and specific
d. Should be measurable

72. Geriatric syndrome include all EXCEPT :
a. Abdominal distension
b. Impaired mobility
c. Risk for infection
d. Risk for lost of skin integrity

73. The bony labyrinth is found in :
a. Auricle
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Inner ear

74. The part of ear that functions in both hearing and balance is :
a. Auricle
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Inner ear

75. Which of the following nerves innervate the diaphragm :
a. Radial nerve
b. Phrenic nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Median nerve

76. The fluid between the parietal and visceral pericardial :
a. Lubricate the heart as it beats
b. Relaxes the heart as it beats
c. Nourishes the heart as it beats
d. contracts the heart as it beats

77. The valve that separate the atria and the ventricles are called :
a. Interventricular valves
b. Interatrial valves
c. Atrioventricular valves
d. Semilunar valves

78. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
a. Increases water reabsorption
b. Increases sodium reabsorption
c. Increases water and sodium reabsorption
d. Decreases water reabsorption

79. The part of the neurone that transmits electrical signal to a target
cells is :
a. Soma
b. Dendrite
c. Cell body
d. Axon

80. Which cell produces the pigment that contribute to hair colour:
a. Keratinocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Langerhans cells
d. Merkel cell

81. Images are focused on the retina in which of the following position
a. Everted
b. Inverted
c. Juxta
d. Supine

82. When light rays enter the eye, the nurse knows they are refracted
by the :
a. Lens
b. Iris
c. Pupil
d. Macula lutea

83. Mr Simon a 65 year old is visiting a clinic for prostate cancer
screening. As a nurse the best investigation for Mr Simon is :
a. Creatinine kinase (CK)
b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
d. Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

84. Pulmonary tuberculosis is commonly a co-infection in :
a. Smokers
b. People in villages engaged in farming
c. People living with HIV infection
d. Elderly people with asthma

85. A nurse working in medical ward knows the best way to describes
pneumonia is :
a. Occlusion of a few terminal bronchioles with effusion
b. Inflammation of lung parenchymal
c. Collapse of alveoli due to inadequate surfactant
d. Development of ischemia due to blockage in one of the branches of
the bronchial trees.

86. A client with superficial burns of the chest, face, back and arms
requires an urgent care. Which of the following should be the nures
primary concern :
a. Fluid resuscitation
b. Infection control
c. Body image
d. Pain management

87. The occupational health nurse is teaching a class on the risk of
developing osteoarthritis. Which of the following is a modifiable factor
for developing osteoarthritis :
a. Being overweight
b. Increasing age
c. Previous joint damage
d. Genetic susceptibility

88. Which of these features will a client with osteoarthritis manifest in
the early stage of the diseases :
a. Severe bone deformity
b. Joint stiffness
c. Waddling gait
d. Joint pain

89. Which of the these foods should be recommended to a client as
rich sources of dietary calcium :
a. Orange and citrus foods
b. Banana
c. Yoghurt and dark green leafy vegetable
d. Wheat, bread and beans

90. Cardiac tamponade is associated with the following EXCEPT :
a. Pulses paradonus
b. Distant heart sound
c. Distended jugular vein
d. bradycardia

91. The region of brain which is responsible for higher mental functions
and decision making is :
a. Parietal lobe
b. Temporal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Frontal lobe

92. The equivalent of 20cc in millilitre is :
a. 20
b. 200
c. 2000
d. 4000

93. The following parameters should be checked when assessing
respiration EXCEPT :
a. Rate
b. Rhythm
c. Symmetry
d. Height

94. The following are effects of burns EXCEPT :
a. Shock
b. Infection
c. Heat
d. Deformity

95. The nurse asked the client to use the Snellen’s chart, which of the
following is being tested :
a. Optics
b. Olfactory
c. Oculomotor
d. Trochlear

96. Which of the following terms best describe a state of bleeding from
the nose :
a. Haemoptysis
b. Apoplexy
c. Epistaxis
d. Hematemesis

97. PRN in nursing stands for
a. When advised
b. When necessary
c. Immediately
d. Once

98. Non maleficence is associated with :
a. Promotion of the profession
b. Doing no intentional harm
c. Self governance
d. Risks and costs

99. In primary health care, community participation is important
because it :
a. Makes the work of the health worker easier
b. Create awareness among community members
c. Create ownership of development programme in the community
d. Is part of social mobilization

100. Team nursing :
a. Has been phased out
b. Is practiced by team of educated health care workers
c. Is a substandard approach to care delivery
d. Lacks evidence based

101. The following are major communicable diseases in Nigeria EXCEPT
a. Malaria
b. Acute respiratory infection
c. Monkey pox
d. Measles

102. The cold chain equipment used at outreach sites is :
a. Cold box
b. Ice park
c. Vaccine carrier
d. Freezer

103. The raw material of statistics is :
a. Measurement
b. Sample
c. Data
d. Graph

104. A phenomenon which when observed takes on different values in
different persons, places or things is termed :
a. Variables
b. Measurement
c. Data
d. Meetings

105. Health economics is NOT basically concerned with :
a. Increasing the level of population’s health
b. Improving the distribution of population’s health
c. Saving money
d. Maximizing the available resources

106. What is the full meaning of GNP
a. Global national production
b. Gross national production
c. Grand national production
d. Grid national production

107. The term used in describing failure of testes to descend into the
scrotum is :
a. Cryptorchidism
b. Castration
c. Paedogenesis
d. Impotency

108. Part of the sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is the :
a. Autosomes
b. Allosomes
c. Acrosomes
d. Tail

109. When a couple complain of infertility, the first essential step is to :
a. Take careful detailed history interviewing the man and woman
separately
b. Take careful history interviewing the man and woman together
c. Request for sperm specimen for sperm count
d. Order for hysteron-salphingography

110. The basic functional unit of a matured placenta is the :
a. Syncitium
b. Mesoderm
c. Chorionic villi
d. Trophoblast

111. ......... implies the entrusting part of the superior’s work or
schedule to be handled by his subordinates.
a. Transfer
b. Delegation
c. Supervision
d. Directing

112. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the most basic needs
are the :
a. Safety and security needs
b. Self actualisation needs
c. Physiological needs
d. Social needs

113. The last and the highest in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is
a. Safety and security
b. self-actualization
c. Social need
d. Psychological need

114. ...........advocated fourteen principles of management.
a. Henry Fayol
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Max Weber
d. Karl Marx

115. This involves designing the formal structure of authority among
the subdivisions, sections and branches toward departmental or
organizational goals.
a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Budgeting
d. Organizing

116. This is harmonizing the various parts of the work and removing
the overlapping and conflicting activities of an organization *
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Organisation
d. Directing

117. Which of the following is not a type of research design?
a. Experimental designs
b. Quasi experimental designs
c. Ex pre facto designs
d. Non experimental designs

118. Which of the following is not one of the 14 principles of
management proposed by Henry Fayol?
a. Subordination of individual interests
b. Remuneration
c. Decentralization
d. Clear line of authority

119. Chiroptophobia is :
a. Fear of bats
b. Fear of light
c. Fear of animals
d. Fear of women

120. .... is called the Father of Scientific Management.
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Ivan Pavlov
d. Piaget

121. Master James received a zero dose vaccine, this indicates that :
a. He has no vaccination
b. Dose after the first vaccine
c. No antibody response
d. Vaccination at displaced persons camp

122. This implies the entrusting part of the superior’s work or schedule
to be handled by his subordinates.
a. Transfer
b. Delegation
c. Supervision
d. Directing

123. This is harmonizing the various parts of the work and removing
the overlapping and conflicting activities of an organization
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Organisation
d. Directing

124. Which of the following is not a type of research design?
a. Experimental designs
b. Quasi experimental designs
c. Ex pre facto designs
d. Non experimental designs

125. Which of the following is not one of the 14 principles of
management proposed by Henry Fayol?
a. Subordination of individual interests
b. Remuneration
c. Decentralization
d. Clear line of authority

126. The drug of choice for intermittent prevention of malaria in cyesis
is :
a. Artesunate
b. Sulfadoxine pyrimethamine
c. Quinine
d. Chloroquine sulphate

127. Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute
bronchitis. A nurse administers the medication, knowing that the primary
action of this medication is to:
a. Promote expectoration.
b. Suppress the cough.
c. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway.
d. Prevent infection.

128. A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which of the
following questions is of most importance to the nurse assessing this client?
a. “Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?”
b. “Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?”
c. “Can you hold your breath easily?”
d. “Are you able to hold your arms above your head?”

129. A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A
nurse would implement which of the following nursing interventions for this
client?
a. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours
b. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids
c. Administering atropine intravenously
d. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed).

130. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and
notes that the client has a “barrel chest.” The nurse interprets that this
client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitation?
a. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Bronchial asthma
d. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis

131. During the early postoperative period, the client who had a cataract
extraction complains of nausea and severe eye pain over the operative site.
The initial nursing action is to:
a. Call the physician.
b. Administer the ordered main medication and antiemetic.
c. Reassure the client that this is normal.
d. Turn the client on his or her operative side.

132. A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS
complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure
0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the
cardiac rhythm as:
a. Normal sinus rhythm
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. Sick sinus syndrome
d. First-degree heart block

133. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly
changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular
rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing:
a. Premature ventricular contractions
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. Sinus tachycardia

134. A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization using a radiopaque
dye. Which of the following assessments is most critical before the
procedure?
a. Intake and output
b. Baseline peripheral pulse rates
c. Height and weight
d. Allergy to iodine or shellfish

135. Which of the following actions is the first priority of care for a
client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease?
a. Decrease anxiety.
b. Enhance myocardial oxygenation.
c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
d. Educate the client about his symptoms.

136. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of
the following procedures?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Coronary artery bypass surgery
c. Oral medication therapy
d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

137. Which of the following symptoms is the most likely origin of pain the
client described as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with
inspiration?
a. Cardiac
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Musculoskeletal
d. Pulmonary

138. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac
damage?
a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Complete blood count (CBC)
c. Troponin I
d. Creatine kinase (CK)

139. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart
sound (S4) indicate?
a. Dilated aorta.
b. Normally functioning heart.
c. Decreased myocardial contractility.
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all of the blood during systole

140. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the
treatment of cardiomyopathy?
a. Antihypertensive
b. Beta-adrenergic blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Nitrates

141. A nurse is conducting a health history with a client with a primary
diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following disorders reported by the
client is unlikely to play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
a. Recent URI
b. Nutritional anemia
c. Peptic ulcer disease
d. A-Fib

142. Acute pulmonary edema caused by heart failure is usually a result
of damage to which of the following areas of the heart?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle

143. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with heart failure who is
being sent directly to the hospital from the physician’s office. The nurse would
plan on having which of the following medications readily available for use?
a. diltiazem (Cardizem)
b. digoxin (Lanoxin)
c. propranolol (Inderal)
d. metoprolol (Lopressor)

144. Which of the following is NOT normally associated with
immunosuppression?
a. Diabetes
b. Treatment with steroids
c. Smoking
d. Malnutrition.

145. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of chemotherapy?
a. Neutropaenia
b. Impaired T-cell function
c. Complement deficiency
d. Increased susceptibility to fungal infections

146. The HIV-positive patient
a. HIV causes depletion of CD4 T-lymphocytes
b. The commonest chest infection is PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii
pneumonia)
c. In the United Kingdom, 10% of cases with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
are co-infected with HIV
d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is rare in HIV.

147. Which statement is NOT true concerning identification of
respiratory infections in the immunocompromised host?
a. Chest computed tomography can be diagnostic for aspergillosis
b. Early Broncho-alveolar lavage can aid diagnosis in ~55% of cases
c. Pleural fluid is rarely investigated in such patients
d. CXR may show diffuse infiltrates but be otherwise non-specific.

148. The BCG vaccine is administered for immunity against
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. Jaundice
d. Hepatitis

149. The nurse knows the major function of neutrophils is :
a. Phagocytosis
b. Haemostasis
c. Homeostasis
d. Haemolysis

150. The development of early morning sickness is secondary to :
a. Relaxing effect of progesterone on smooth muscles.
b. Cool weather of the early morning.
c. Development of the morula.
d. Relaxing effect of oestrogen on smooth muscles.

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