Directions (Qs. 1 to 3):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what isslated or implied in the passage.
Global outlook remains uncertain, given the weak growth impulses in major advanced economies,espe-cially in the USA, and the down side risks to such recovery emanating from the volatility ininternational crude oil prices and the continuing geopolitical tension in the Middle East. However,resilience of Indias per-formance has been vindicated by its successfully han-dling in the recent past aseries of external shocks, like the Asian crisis of 1997, crude oil shock of 2000 and the synchronizedslowdown of global activity in 2001. Indias external position continues to remain strong with the risinglevel of foreign exchange reserves providing a cushion against any such major shocks. The currentaccount surplus reflects both, strength in goods and service exports and buoyant net transfer. Revival ofdomestic demand is likely to boost further main sources of capital inflows, thus aiding in further reserveaccu-mulation in the short run.Surging foreign exchanges reserves have provided an opportunity towards further relaxation of existingcapital controls. Such measured approach towards capital account convertibility needs to be continued.The rising reserves also provide a greater flexibility to exchange rate management towards developingdeeper market for foreign exchange transactions. The reserves further provide an opportunity toexpedite completion of trade liberalization agenda. Notwithstanding various reforms, Indias tariffsremain high by Indian and inter-national standards and its trade regime remains rela-tively restrictive.The broad road map for liberalization of customs tariff has already been indicated in the Union Budget
2002-03 and has been further detailed in the Ministry of Finance task force report on Indirect Taxation.Faster implementation of such tariff reforms (without any prejudice to our negotiations on this issueunder Doha mandate in WTO), apart from further removing anti-export bias and simplifying the traderegime, would stimulate imports and create necessary demand for foreign exchange.Such imports liberalization is also likely to relieve any upward pressure on the rupee and would bring theuseful efficiency gain to the economy.Medium term BOP outlook would depend upon several factors. A robust growth in exports remains oneof the most critical factor in the long term viability of external sector. Uneven performance ofmerchan-dise exports in the recent past, if continued, could in-troduce a structural weakness in thebalance of pay-ments in the medium term. Exports thus hold the key in achieving a sustainable balancebetween the require-ment of higher growth and the imperative of ensuring viability in the externalsector. Micro strategies for export growth based on various policy pronouncements therefore, need to bedesigned to put export growth on a higher and sustainable growth trajectory. On the imports side, givenour rising independence on imported crude oil, the economy needs to be insulated from continuingvolatility in international crude oil prices impacting on our balance of payments and the oil se-curity ofthe country. Efforts towards strengthening of the service sector also need to be sustained andinten-sified to capitalize on the growing opportunities in this sector.
Steady foreign investment inflow have been instru-mental in strengthening the balance of payments inthe recent past. Given the potential for higher direct for-eign investment in India, a further consideredliberalization of the investment inflows, thus supporting the investment needs of the economy for highergrowth and providing strength to prudent debt management. New initiatives like refinancing of costlydebts, prepay-ment of identified high cost debt and exploring the possibility of using the financialproducts for hedging of risk for active management of sovereign debt would be helpful in furtherimproving the sustainability of exter-nal debt indicators of the economy. As regards the global tradeagenda, India has repeatedly stated its support for WTO and the Doha Development Agenda. However,further progress on the global trade negotia-tions would depend upon developed countries keeping theirpromises made in Doha.
01 Problem New initiatives which would be helpful in improving the sustainability of the external debt indicators is/ are a. Prepayment of identified high cost debt. b. Refinancing of costly debts c. Hedging of risk for active management of sov-ereign debts through financial products. d. All of the above
02 Problem According to the passage, what provides the opportunity to expedite completion of the trade liberalization agenda? a. Capital inflow b. Crude oil c. Forex reserves d. Geo-political stability
03 Problem India has been vindicated by its successfully han-dling in the recent past a series of external shocks — Asian crisis of 1997, crude oil shock 2000, syn-chronized slowdown of global activity in 2001, be-cause of: a. Revival of domestic demand. b. Rising level of forex reserves. c. Current account surplus d. High Indian tariffs in its trade regime.
Directions (Qs. 4 to 6):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on whatis stated or implied in the passage:
The first important point about how children learn prejudice is that they do. They arent born that way,though some people think prejudice is innate and like to quote the old saying, "You cant change humanna-ture." But you can change it. We know that very small children are free of prejudice. Studies of schoolchil-dren have shown that prejudice is slight or absent among children in the first and second grades.After this, it may fall off again in adolescence. Other studies have shown that, on an average, youngadults are much freer of prejudice than older ones.In the early stages of picking up prejudice, children mix it with ignorance which, as Ive said, should bedistinguished from prejudice. A child, as he begins to study the world around him, tries to organize hisexpe-riences.Doing this, he begins to classify things and people and begins to form connections — or whatpsycholo-gists call associations. He needs to do this because he saves time and effort by putting thingsand people into categories. But unless he classifies correctly, his cat-egories will mislead rather thanguide him. For ex-ample, if a child learns that "all fires are hot and dan-gerous," fires have been putfirmly into the category of things to be watched carefully — and thus he can save himself from harm. Butif he learns a category like "Negroes are Lazy" or "foreigners are fools," hes learned generalizations thatmislead because theyre unreliable. The thing is that, when we use categories, we need to remember theexceptions and differences, the individual variations that qualify the usefulness of all generalizations.
Some fires, for example, are hotter and more dangerous than others. If people had avoided all fires asdangerous, we would never have had cen-tral heating.More importantly, we can ill afford to treat people of any given group as generally alike, even when itspossible to make some accurate generalization about them. So when a child first begins to group thingstogether, its advisable that he learns differences as well as similarities. For example, basic among thedis-tinctions he draws is the division into "good" and "bad", which he makes largely on the grounds ofwhat his parents do and say about things and the people. Thus, he may learn that dirt is "bad" becausehis mother washes him every time he gets dirty. By extension, seeing a Negro child, he might point tohim and say, "Bad child", for the Negro childs face is brown, hence unwashed and dirty, and so, "bad."We call this prelogical thing, and all of us go through this phase before we learn to think more effectively.But some people remain at this stage and never learn that things seem alike, such as dirt and brownpigment are really quite different. Whether a child gradu-ates from this stage to correct thinking or toprejudicial thinking, depends to a great extent on his experiences with his parents and teachers.
04 Problem Which one of the following statements is true? a. Children up to the age of six or seven years are less likely to be prejudiced. b. One is born with prejudice. c. As one grows, prejudices fall off. d. Ones prejudices remain forever.
05 Problem While making categories, the important things to re-member are a. Only differences b. Only exceptions c. Exceptions and differences d. Only similarities
06 Problem Which one of the following statements is not true? a. It is possible to shed prejudices at any stage b. Parents can help children to correct thinking. c. Prejudice and ignorance are not the same. d. Things that seem alike are necessarily similar.
Directions (Qs. 7 to 9):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on whatis stated or implied in the passage,
Peace and order are necessary, not just in our own country but also at the international level, if we are tosecure national progress and development. The differ-ent countries in the world are coming closer todaydue to faster means of transport and communications. Eco-nomically, they are becoming increasinglyinter-depen-dent. If peace is disturbed in one part of the world, it has adverse effects in other parts ofthe world as well. Nuclear weapons have already threatened the world with nuclear war. If the conflictsbetween different nations are not settled in time, they might culminate in a nuclear war destroying thewhole world. It is there-fore in our own interest that the world is free of con-flicts. If at all there are, theymust be settled promptly and peace should be restored. That is why we have declared the establishmentof international peace and understanding as an objective of our foreign policy.We need the help and co-operation of other coun-tries for our scientific, industrial and economicdevelop-ment, especially in those fields where we have yet to achieve self sufficiency. We obtain thelatest machin-ery, technology and financial aid from the developed countries.On our part, we too, offer help to the under-devel-oped countries. We are keen on maintaining friendlyrelations with other countries. Such friendly relations foster international understanding.We have always exerted ourselves to see that the disputes arising between the different nations aresettled through peaceful negotiations. We play an active role in the United Nations, the South AsianAssociation for Regional Cooperation, the Commonwealth of Nations and other such international
organizations. We make it a point to participate in international conferences on issues like energy crisis,environmental imbalance, nuclear arms race, etc. We always offer a helping hand to other nationsaffected by natural calamities such as famines, earthquakes, floods and so cm. We strive to maintainpeaceful and friendly relations with our neighboring countries. Why do we do all this? We sincerelybelieve that the conflicts in todays world should be minimized, making way for better coopera-tionamong the nations. If this is achieved, human re-sources will no longer be wasted in things like war oraggression. There will be no destruction of wealth. We believe that, in a peaceful world, there will hegreater scope for the economic and cultural development of countries.
07 Problem What is the main idea expressed in this passage? a. Peace is necessary for overall development of our country b. Threat of nuclear war. c. Economic inter-dependence of nations. d. Peace will lead to cultural development of na-tions.
08 Problem Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word foster as used in the pas-sage? a. Facilitate b. Hinder c. Advocate d. Obviate
09 Problem The question, "why do we do all this?" is asked in the passage in which of the following contexts? a. We offer a helping hand to other nations in im-proving their technology. b. We obtain technology and financial aid from the developed countries. c. We Endeavour to maintain peaceful and friendly relations with our neighbors. d. We have shaped our foreign policy in balanced and purposeful manner.
Directions (Q. 10 to 12):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what isstated or implied in the passage.
The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements, which remainpermanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions. Of these permanent gases,oxy-gen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen about 78 percent. Several other gases, such as argon,carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon, krypton and xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume ofdry air. The amount of water vapour, and its variations in amount and distribution are of extraordinaryimportance in whether changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspen-sion great quantities of dust, pollen,smoke and other impurities which are always present in considerable, but variable amounts.The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible. Untilrecently it was assumed that the air above the first few miles gradually grew thinner and colder at aconstant rate. It was also assumed that upper air had little influence on weather changes. Recent studiesof the upper atmosphere, currently being conducted by earth satellites and missile probing, have shownthese as-sumptions to be incorrect. The atmosphere has three well-defined strata.The layer of the air next to the earth, which ex-tends upward for about ten miles, is known as thetroposphere. On the whole it makes up about 75 per-cent of all the weight of the atmosphere. It is thewarmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar radiation is absorbed by the earths surface,which warms the air immediately surrounding it. A steady decrease of temperature with increasingelevation is the most striking characteristic. The upper layers are colder because of their greater distance
from the earths surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperature within the tropospheredecreases about 3.5 degrees per 1000 feet increase in altitude. Within the troposphere, winds and aircurrents distribute heat and moisture. Strong winds, called jet streams, are located at the upper layers ofthe troposphere. These jet streams are both complex and widespread in occur-rence. They normallyshow a wave-shaped pattern and move from west to east at velocities of 150 mph, but velocities as highas 400 mph have been noted. The influences of changing locations and strengths of jet streams uponweather conditions and patterns are no doubt considerable. Current intensive research may eventuallyreveal their true significance.Above the troposphere to a height about 50 miles is a zone called the stratosphere. The stratosphere isseparated from the troposphere by a zone of uniform temperatures called the tropopause. Within thelower portions of the stratosphere is the layer of ozone gases which filters out most of the ultravioletrays from the sun. The ozone layer varies with air pressure. If this zone where not there, the full blast ofsuns ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventu-ally result in our destruction.Within the stratosphere, the temperature and atmospheric compositions are rela-tively uniform.The layer upward of about 50 miles is the most fascinating but the least known of these three strata. It iscalled the ionosphere because it consists of electri-cally-charged particles called ions, thrown from thesun. The northern light (aurora borealis) originates within this highly-charged portion of the atmosphere.
Its ef-fect upon weather conditions, if any, is as yet unknown.
10 Problem According to the passage, life as we know, exists on the earth because the atmosphere a. contains electrically-charged particles b. is warmest at the bottom c. carries ultraviolet rays d. contains a layer of ozone gas.
11 Problem The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following questions? a. How do the troposphere and stratosphere differ? b. How does ionosphere affect the weather? c. How do the earth satellites study the atmo-sphere? a. (a) only b. (c)only c. (a), (b) and (c) d. and (c) only.
12 Problem The passage states that troposphere is the warmest part of the atmosphere because it a. is closest to the sun b. contains electrically-charged particles c. is warmed by the earths heat d. has winds and air currents that distribute the heat
Directions (Q. 13 ):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what isstated or implied in the passage.The phenomena of child labor is quite complex. Children work because theybelong to poor families who cannot survive without the benefit of the income,which accrues to the family on account of child labor. Any attempt to abolish itthrough legal resource would, under the circumstances, not be practical. The onlyalternative is to ban child lab our in hazardous areas and to regulate andameliorate the conditions of work in other areas. Many developing countriesincluding India have accepted this approach.
13 Problem What can be inferred about the policy being fol-lowed about child labor in India? a. Giving economic benefits to the families of child laborers’. b. Reducing/controlling child labour in unhealthy areas of work. c. Maintaining and improving working conditions for children. a. Only (a) and (b) b. Only(b) c. (a), (b) and (c) d. Only (b) and (c).
Directions (Q. 14):Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what isstated or implied in the passage.Due to the media and communication explosion and the effect of globalization,markets all over the world are going through a phase of metamorphoses. Thevisual media is regularly exposing a newer life styles, products and services to thefast expanding netizen-driven society. Today, consumers have become quiteconcerned about health issues and are taking a great interest in food matters.Environmental issues, greater segmentation and increased mobility are the addedfactors. Besides, the green movement supported by media coverage has beencreating the urge for natural food.
14 Problem According to the passage, the major concern of the consumers is a. urge for natural food b. environmental issues c. health and food matters d. support for the green movement.
Directions (Q. 15 to 17):A word is given in capital letters followed by four meanings of which two areappropriate. Identify the appropriate ones.
15 Problem HAIL a. call out to b. pull c. compel d. Acclaim a. (a) and (b) b. (a) and (c) c. (a) and (b) d. (b)and(d)
16 Problem BUCKLE a. dislodge b. become tense c. crumple d. Fasten a. (a) and (c) b. (a) and (b) c. (b)and(d) d. (c)and(d)
17 Problem BLAZE a. A mark on a tree b. Ennui c. Flash d. Fire a. (a) and (b) b. (a) and (c) c. (a) and (d) d. (c) and (d)
Directions (Q. 18 to 20):A word in capital letters is followed by four words. Choose the word that ismost nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
18 Problem PROSAIC a. Pensive b. Imaginative c. Rhetorical d. Pacified
19 Problem LEVITY a. Praise b. Blame c. Solemnity d. Frivolity
20 Problem OBLOQUY a. Praise b. Cruel c. Slander d. Dialogue.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 23):In each of these questions, two words of a sentence are left blank. Choose thebest alternative to fill the blanks.
21 Problem The…….. terrorist was finally………. by the police. a. famous, apprehended b. notorious, nabbed c. crafty, admonished d. renowned, caught
22 Problem It is foolish to vent your spleen on a/ an ………. object. Still, you make……….. enemies that way. a. immobile, bitter. b. interesting, curious c. humane, more d. inanimate, fewer
23 Problem Compromise is………. to passionate natures because it seems to surrender; and to intellectual natures because it seems a……………………… a. unsuited, submission b. odious, confusion c. intimidations, dichotomy d. inherent, fabrication
Directions (Q. 24 to 26):Each sentence has four parts marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one that mustbe changed for the sentence to be correct.
24 Problem Organised (A) labour has fight (B) for and won protection and benefits (C) for its (D) workers.
25 Problem A music and dance show have been (A) organized to raise (B) funds for the orphanage on the first (C) Saturday of next (D) month.
26 Problem The book is well-printed (A) and attractively bound (B) making altogether (C) an attractive volume. (D)
Directions (Q. 27 to 29):Each of these questions has an idiomatic expression followed by four options.Choose the one close to its meaning.
27 Problem Dog in the manger‘ a. A person who is not liked by others b. A person who is hounded c. A person who puts himself in a difficulty on account of other people d. A person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself
28 Problem Talk shop‘ a. Talk exclusively about shopping b. Talk exclusively about business or professional affairs c. Talk about the latest trends in fashion d. Talk about inane things
29 Problem Stick to ones guns‘ a. Remain faithful to the cause b. Suspect something c. Make something d. Be satisfied
Directions (Qs. 30 to 32):Each sentence has an underlined word. Choose the best word or phrase fromthe options which can replace it.
30 Problem She saw through the con mans wiles. a. Timing b. Casualness c. Sudden fancy d. Trickery
31 Problem It is a womans prerogative to change her mind. a. Opinion b. Wealth c. Privilege d. Knowledge
32 Problem The inexorable demands of the workers brought the company to a closure. a. Unreasonable b. Monetary c. Violent d. Relentless
Directions (Q. 33 to 35):In each of these questions a related pair of words is followed by four pairs ofwords. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the oneexpressed in the original pair.
33 Problem ELUSIVE : CAPTURE : : a. Elastic : Stretch b. Gullible : Trick c. Headstrong : Control d. Sensible : Decide
34 Problem APHORISM : SENTENTIOUS : : a. Criticism : Redundant b. Eulogy : Laudatory c. Adage : Symbolic d. Maxim : Allegorical.
35 Problem PHYSIQUE : STURDY : : a. Punctuality : Tardy b. Intellect : Noble c. Fabric : Warm d. Investment : Sound
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40):Each sentence has one underlined part. There are three possible substitutes. Ifone of them is better than the underlined part, then choose that as your answer.If none of the substitutes improves the sentence, then choose (4) as your answer.
36 Problem The Vice President of the local bank spoke for a half an hour and told his colleague that he. his col-league, must consider finding a new job, or accept a reduction in salary. a. for a half hour and told his colleague that he must consider to find a new job b. for half an hour and told his colleague that the colleague must get employed by a new bank. c. for half an hour and told his colleague to con-sider finding a new job d. no change
37 Problem He does not smoke, nor he drinks. a. nor he does drink b. neither he does drink c. nor does he drink d. no change
38 Problem She wished that her career could be as glamorous as the other women but was not willing to work as hard as them. a. as glamorous as the other womens b. more glamorous than the career of the other women c. glamours d. no change
39 Problem Although he is liable to make political enemies with the decision, the Finance Minister will propose se-vere tax cuts that may both stimulate business and reduce the availability of loans. a. liable from b. tabletop c. of a mind to d. no change.
40 Problem No matter what experience you have had with for-est fires, if you would have witnessed the fire roar-ing down through the canyon, you would have been terrified. a. if you witnessed b. if you had witnessed c. if you could witness d. no change
41 Problem The minute and the hour hand of a watch meet ev-ery 65 minutes. How much does the watch lose or gain time in one meeting of the hands? a. 25 seconds b. 27 seconds c. 27.16 seconds d. 30 seconds
42 Problem At the start of a seminar, the ratio of the number of male participants to the number of female partici-pants was 3:1. During tea break, 16 participants left and 6 more female participants registered. The ratio of the male to the female participants became 2:1. What was the total number of participants at the start of the seminar? a. 64 b. 48 c. 54 d. 72
43 Problem A positive integer, which when added to 1000, gives a sum which is greater than when it is multiplied by 1000. This positive integer is a. 1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 3
44 Problem Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets each, the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number of bullets. a. 15 b. 17 c. 20 d. 18
45 Problem Of the 120 people in the room, 3/5 are women. If 2/ 3 of the people are married, then what is the maxi-mum number of women in the room who could be unmarried? a. 40 b. 20 c. 30 d. 60
46 Problem A worker earns a 5% raise. A year later, the worker receives a 2.5% cut in pay, and now his salary is Rs. 22702.68. What was his salary to begin with? a. Rs 22000 b. Rs 22176 c. Rs 25000 d. Rs 22193
47 Problem There are 20 poles with a constant distance between each pole. A car takes 24 seconds to reach the 12th pole. How much more time will it take to reach the last pole? a. 25.25 seconds b. 17.45 seconds c. 35.75 seconds d. 41.45 seconds
48 Problem In a triangle ABC, the lengths of sides AB, AC and BC are 3, 5 and 6 cm respectively. If a point D on BC is drawn such that the line AD bisects the angle A internally, then what is the length of BD? a. 2 cm b. 2.25 cm c. 2.5 cm d. 3 cm
49 Problem A person spends 1/3 of the money with him on clothes, 1/5 of the remaining on food and ¼ of the remaining on travel. Now, he is left with Rs 100. How much did he have with him in the beginning? a. Rs 200 b. Rs 250 c. Rs 300 d. Rs 450
50 Problem Suresh is half his fathers age. After 20 years, his fathers age will be one and a half times Sureshs age. What is his fathers age now? a. 40 b. 20 c. 26 d. 30
51 Problem 1/3rd of the contents of. a container evaporated on 1st day. 3/4th of the remaining evaporated on the second day. What part of the contents of the con-tainer is left at the end of the second day? a. ¼ b. 1/2 c. 1/18 d. 1/6
52 Problem The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 metres in circumference. Suresh and his wife start from the same point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h respectively. They will meet for the first time in a. 5.5 min. b. 6.0min. c. 5.28 min d. 4.9 min
53 Problem A man received a cheque in which the rupees were transposed for paise and vice versa. After spend-ing 5 rupees 42 paise, he discovered that he now had exactly six times the value of the correct cheque amount. What amount should he have received? a. Rs 6.44 b. Rs 3.22 c. Rs 18.25 d. Rs 8.36
54 Problem Mohan ate half a pizza on Monday. He ate half of what was left on Tuesday and so on. He followed this pattern for one week. How much of the pizza would he have eaten during the week? a. 99.22% b. 95% c. 98.22% d. 100%
55 Problem All the students of a batch opted Psychology, Busi-ness, or both. 73% of the students opted Psychol-ogy and 62% opted Business. If there are 220 stu-dents, how many of them opted for both Psychol-ogy and Business? a. 60 b. 100 c. 77 d. 35
56 Problem A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field of 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one corner by a rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze? a. 386.5 m2 b. 325.5 m2 c. 346.5 m2 d. 246.5 m2
57 Problem What is the remainder left after dividing 1! + 2! + 3! +……….+ 100! by 7? a. 0 b. 5 c. 21 d. 4
58 Problem Silu and Meenu were walking on the road. Silusaid "I weigh 51 kg. How much do you weigh?" Meenu replied that she wouldnt reveal her weight directly as she was overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 kg plus half of my weight." How much does Meenu weigh? a. 52 kg b. 58 kg c. 63 kg d. 57 kg
59 Problem How many squares are there in a 5 inch by 5 inch square grid, if the grid is made up of one inch by one inch squares? a. 50 b. 150 c. 55 d. 25
60 Problem My friend collects antique stamps. She purchased two, but found that she needed to raise money ur-gently. So she sold them for Rs 8000 each. On one she made 20% and on the other she lost 20%. How much did she gain or lose in the entire transaction? a. No Loss/Profit b. Rs 667 Loss c. Rs 667 Profit d. None of these
61 Problem If a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of a2/b + b2/a is: a. (3bc - a)/b2c b. (3abc - b3)/a2c c. (3abc - b2)/a3c d. (ab - b2c)/2b2c
62 Problem 3 chairs and 2 tables cost Rs 700, while 5 chairs and 3 tables cost Rs 1100. What is the cost of 2 chairs and 2 tables? a. Rs 300 b. Rs 350 c. Rs 450 d. Rs 600
63 Problem If a, b are the two roots of a quadratic equation such that a + b = 24 and a - b = 8, then the quadratic equation having a and b as its roots is a. x2 + 2x + 8 = 0 b. x2 - 4x + 8 = 0 c. x2 - 24x + 128 = 0 d. 2x2 + 8x + 9 = 0
64 Problem The area of a rhombus is 2016 sq cm and its side is 65 cm. The lengths of the diagonals (in cm) respec-tively are a. 125,35 b. 126,32 c. 132,26 d. 135,25
65 Problem A cylindrical bucket of height 36 cm and radius 21 cm is filled with sand. The bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. The height of the conical heap is 12 cm. The radius of the heap at the base is a. 63 cm b. 53 cm c. 56 cm d. 66 cm
66 Problem How can the relationship between x and y be best defined, if the value of x and y are as follows? X 2 3 4 5 6 y 0 2 6 12 20 a. Y=x2-3x+ b. y = 2x – 4 c. y = x2 - 4x d. y = x2 – 4
67 Problem A can do a work in 9 days. If B is 50% more effi-cient than A, then in how many days can B do the same work? a. 13.5 b. x4.5 c. 6 d. 3
68 Problem If (a + 1/a)2 = 3, then what is the value of a3 + 1/a3? a. 10√3/3 b. 0 c. 3√3 d. 6√3
69 Problem If the radius of a circle is increased by 100%, then the area of the circle increases by a. 100% b. 200% c. 300% d. 400%
70 Problem What is the quotient if x 1 - 1 is divided by x - 1? a. 1/(x-1) b. x c. -1/(x - 1) d. -1/x
71 Problem A trader wants 10% profit on the selling price of a product whereas his expenses amount to 15% on sales. What should his rate of mark up be on an article ofRs. 9? a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 100/3%.
72 Problem I forgot the last digit of a 7-digit telephone number. If I randomly dial the final 3 digits after correctly dialing the first four, then what is the chance of dialing the correct number? a. 1/1001 b. 1/990 c. 1/999 d. 1/1000
73 Problem From the top of a lighthouse 60 metres high with its base at the sea level, the angle of depression of a boat is 30°. The distance of the boat from the foot of the lighthouse is a. 10√3 b. 20 √3 m c. 15a √3 m d. 60 √3m
74 Problem A hemispherical bowl is made of steel 0.5 cm thick. The inside radius of the bowl is 4 cm. The volume of the steel used in making the bowl is a. 55.83 cm3 b. 56.83 cm3 c. 57.83 cm3 d. 58.83 cm3
75 Problem Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are males of whom 20% are literate. If, of all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what % of the females of the town are literate? a. 22.5 b. 27.5 c. 32.5 d. 37.5
76 Problem The points (0, 8/3), (1,3) and (82, 30) are the verti-ces of a. An obtuse-angled triangle b. A right-angled triangle c. An acute-angled triangle d. None of these
77 Problem How many odd numbered pages are there in a book of 1089 pages? a. 545 b. 544 c. 546 d. 542
78 Problem Two equal sums of money are lent at the same time at 8% and 7% per annum simple interest. The former is recovered 6 months earlier than the latter and the amount in each case is Rs 2560. The sum and the time for which the sums of money are lent out are a. Rs 1500, 3.5 years and 4 years b. Rs 2000, 3.5 years and 4 years c. Rs 2000, 4 years and 5.5 years d. Rs. 3000, 4 years and 4.5 years
79 Problem If p is a prime number greater than 3, then (p2 - 1) is always divisible by a. 6 but not 12 b. 24 c. 2 but not 24 d. None of these
80 Problem A storage tank consists of a circular cylinder with a hemisphere adjoined on either side. If the external diameter of the cylinder is 14 m and its length is 50 m, then what will be the cost of painting it @ Rs 10 per sq m? a. Rs 38160 b. Rs28160 c. Rs 39160 d. None of these
Directions (Q. 81 to 85):These questions are based on the graph below which shows the Demand andProduction statistics of five companies.
81 Problem What is the ratio of the companies having more de-mand than production to those having more produc-tion than demand? a. 2:3 b. 4:1 c. 2 :2 d. 3 : 2
82 Problem What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of five companies taken together? a. 1400 b. 400 c. 280 d. 138
83 Problem The production of the Company D is how many times of the production of the Company A? a. 1.8 b. 1.5 c. 2.5 d. 1.11
84 Problem The demand of Company B is what percent of the demand of Company C? a. 4 b. 24 c. 20 d. 60
85 Problem If Company A desires to meet the demand by pro-curing TV sets from a single company, then which one of the following can meet the need adequately? a. B b. C c. D d. None
Directions (Q. 86 to 89):In the chart given below, A, B, C, D and E represent the costs of Paper, Printing,Binding, Miscellaneous and the Royalty respectively in publishing a book.
86 Problem What is the angle of the pie chart showing the ex-penditure incurred on Royalty? a. 15° b. 24° c. 48° d. 54°
87 Problem The market price of the book is 20% more than the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 30, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book? a. Rs. 6 b. Rs. 5 c. Rs. 4.50 d. Rs 6.50
88 Problem Which two expenditures together will form an angle 108° at the centre of the diagram? a. A and E b. B and E c. A and D d. D and E
89 Problem If the difference between the two expenditures is represented by 18 degrees in the diagram, then those expenditures must be a. B and E b. A and C c. B and D d. None of these
Directions (Q. 90 to 95):Loan disbursed by five banks (in Rs. Crore) are given in the table below. Banks 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 A 18 23 45 30 70 B 27 33 18 41 37 C 29 29 22 17 11 D 31 16 28 32 43 E 13 19 27 34 42
90 Problem In which year was the distribution of loans of all the banks put together least compared to the average disbursement of loans over the years? a. 1990 b. 1991 c. 1992 d. 1994
91 Problem What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all the banks together from 1992 to 1993? a. 110% b. 14% c. 10% d. 11%
92 Problem In which year was the disbursement of loans of banks A and B exactly equal to the total disburse-ment of loans of banks D and E? a. 1991 b. 1992 c. 1994 d. None
93 Problem If the minimum target in the succeeding year was 20 % of the total disbursement of loans, then how many banks reached the target in 1991 ? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
94 Problem In which bank was the loan disbursement more than 25 % of the disbursement of all banks in 1994? a. A b. B c. C d. D
95 Problem By what percent did the loan disbursement increase from 1990 to 1994? a. 72 b. 82 c. 94 d. 91
Directions (Qs. 96 to 98):The bar graph pertains to the estimates of incidence of poverty in India, given as%ge. The table following the graph gives the population of India during 1971-2001 as per census.
Population All India 1971 548160 1981 684329 1991 846302 2001 1027015
96 Problem The total number of the poor in 2,000 is approxi-mately a. 268millions b. 278 millions c. 242 millions d. 300millions
97 Problem "The total number of the people below poverty line has been consistently declining during 1971 -2001." This statement is a. Correct b. Incorrect c. Partially correct d. Inadequate data
98 Problem From the given data, it can be inferred that a. Rural poverty ratio is constantly declining b. Urban poverty ratio has been consistently fall-ing c. Combined ratio has been decreasing d. All of the Above.
Directions (Q 99 to 103):Study the data given below to answer these questions: 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 LG 30,000 38,000 36,000 42,000 40,000 Samsung 17,000 28,000 33,000 32,000 27,000 Sony 12,500 20,000 35,000 40,000 50,000 National 30,000 25,000 22,000 20,000 15,000 Pansonic Toshiba 15,725 18,625 13,275 14,375 16,000
99 Problem The average annual sale of which brand is the highest? a. LG b. Sony c. National Panasonic d. Toshiba
100 Problem Which of the following statements is/are true? I. LG is showing an increase in sales every year. II. Samsung has recorded a fall in sales thrice dur-ing the given five-year period. III. The percentage increase in the number of units sold from 1995 to 1999 is the highest for Sony. IV. The average annual sale of Samsung is more than that of Sony. a. Ill alone b. I and II c. III and IV d. III and II
101 Problem The installed capacity of each company is 75,000 units, and all the units produced by each company are sold. Then, the least and the highest values for annual capacity utilisation for any company are re-spectively a. 16.67% and 66.67% b. 17.5% and 72.5% c. 14.28% and 75.5% d. 5.24% and 95.34%.
102 Problem If for 2000, there is a 25% increase in the total sale of TVs and there is a 10% decrease in the sale of Toshiba TVs, then what percentage of the total sales in 2000 is for Toshiba TVs? a. 17% b. 7.8% c. 9.3% d. 6.3%
103 Problem The brand, which showed a decrease of 50% during the given five-year period, registered maxi-mum percentage decrease during the period: a. 1995-96 b. 1996-97 c. 1997-98 d. 1998-99
Directions (Q104 to 108):The following bar chart gives the production of cycles by three differentcompanies X, Y and Z for five different years. Study this chart to answer thesequestions.
104 Problem Considering the production of each company sepa-rately, in how many instances is the percentage in-crease in the production of cycles over the previous years production greater than 20%? a. 4 b. 6 c. 5 d. 7
105 Problem The annual percentage increase in the total produc-tion of cycles from 1995 to 1999 was: a. 24.08% b. 23.12% c. 22.64% d. None of these
106 Problem In 1996, 15% of the rural population and 8% of the urban population used cycles as their mode of trans-portation. If the total population in 1996 is 1.1 bil-lion, then what is the rural population in millions? (Assume that one cycle is used by a single person)(Also assume that the only companies mak-ing cycles are X, Y and Z. There are no other cycle manufacturers in the country. a. 600 b. 0.6 c. 500 d. 0.5
107 Problem If the ratio of the average cost to the customer of each cycle of the companies X, Y and Z is 2 : 4 : 3, then what is the percentage increase in the total revenue of the cycles produced in 1997 to 1999. (Assume that the cost of the cycle remained the same) a. 39.89% b. 40.53% c. 42.64% d. 41.27%
108 Problem Over the five-year period, the percentage increase in production was maximum for: a. X b. Y c. Z d. Cannot be determined
Directions (Q 109 to 113):The following table gives the quarterly output of three production units of amachine manufacturing company. Year 1stQuarter 2nd Quarter 3rdQuarter 4thQuarter Unit 123 123 2 3 1998 30 34 38 40 44 42 1999 34 45 42 52 54 56 2000 35 45 43 58 53 58 2001 54"58 57 76 77 79 2002 80 82 87 92 97 93
109 Problem Which of the following statements is correct? a. The performance of Unit 1 has been lowest during the 5-year period. b. The performance of Unit 2 has been the high-est during the 5-year period. c. The performance of Unit 3 has been the lowest during the 5-year period. d. The performance of Unit 2 has been lowest dur-ing the 5-year period.
110 Problem Incentives based on the production are given on quarterly basis. In which quarter would the workers get maximum incentive? a. 1stQuarter b. 2nd Quarter c. 3rd Quarter d. 4th Quarter
111 Problem Which unit has shown the least growth in produc-tion during the period 1998- 2002? a. Unit 1 b. Unit2 c. Unit 3 d. Cannot say
112 Problem During 1998-2002, the highest quarterly production has been achieved by Unit…….. in the………Quarter of 2002. a. 1,1st b. 2, 2nd c. 3, 3rd d. 2, 4th
113 Problem The highest increase in the yearly average has been over the period a. 1998-1999 b. 2001-2002 c. 1999-2000 d. 2000-2001
Directions (Q. 114 to 118):The following table gives the frequency distribution of the final grades of 100students in Mathematics and Physics. Analyze the data presented to answerthese questions. Physics 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99 Grades? 90-99 4 2 5 80-89 2 3 7 2 70-79 1 7 6 3 60-69 2 5 9 8 5 50-59 3 3 6 1 40-49 2 7 7
114 Problem How many students received grades 80 and above in Mathematics? a. 20 b. 30 c. 23 d. 25
115 Problem How many students would qualify for admission to a prime Engineering College that stipulates above 80% in Mathematics and Physics? a. 9 b. 12 c. 16 d. 18
116 Problem The school Trust provides scholarships for higher studies to students who secure 90% and above in Mathematics and Physics. How many students are eligible for scholarships for higher studies? a. 5 b. 3 c. 7 d. 4
117 Problem What percentage of students got less than 70% in both Mathematics and Physics? a. 34 b. 44 c. 39 d. 47
118 Problem Pursuing graduation in Science stream requires a minimum of 50 percent in Mathematics. How many students of this batch are disqualified to pursue graduation in Science? a. 7 b. 16 c. 21 d. 4
Directions (Q. 119 to 120):The following table gives the Human Development Index (HDI). The HDI value isbetween 0 and 1. States 1981 1991 2001 Andhra Pradesh 0.298 0.377 0.416 Assam 0.272 0.348 0.386 Bihar 0.237 0.308 0.367 Gujarat 0.360 0.431 0.479 Haryana 0.360 0.433 0.509 Karnataka 0.346 0.412 0.478 Kerala 0.500 0.591 0.638 Madhya Pradesh 0.245 0.328 0.394 Maharashtra 0.363 0.452 0.523 Orissa 0.267 0.345 0.404 Punjab 0.411 0.475 0.537 Rajasthan 0.256 0.347 0.424 Tamil Nadu 0.343 0.466 0.531 Uttar Pradesh 0.255 0.314 0.388 West Bengal 0.305 0.404 0.472 All India 0.302 0.381 0.472
119 Problem Select the incorrect statement. a. Kerala has consistently reported the highest HDI. b. Bihar has consistently reported the worst HDI. c. Assam has maintained stability in its compara-tive ranking among the States. d. Rajasthan has shown an improvement in its com-parative ranking among other States.
120 Problem Which of the following States improved their HDI value in 2001 to match the all India value? a. Tamil Nadu b. Orissa c. Rajasthan d. West Bengal
SECTION -DINTELLIGENCE AND CRITICAL REASONING
Directions (Q 121 to 125):In each of these questions there are two statements by two possible inferencesA and B. Assume the statements to be correct even if they vary with facts.Choose your answer asa. If only inference A follows.b. If only inference B follows.c. If both the inferences A and B followd. If neither inference A nor B follows
121 Problem All graduates are chairs. All chairs are tables. A: All graduates are tables B: Some inexperienced are students.
122 Problem Every minister is a student. Every student is inexpe-rienced. A: Every minister is inexperienced. B: Some inexperienced are students.
123 Problem Some birds are elephants. Some elephants are white. A: Some birds are white B: Some white are birds.
124 Problem No bat is ball. No ball is wicket. A: No bat is wicket B: All wickets are bats
125 Problem All fish are tortoise. No tortoise is a crocodile. A: No crocodile is a fish B: No fish is a crocodile
Directions (Q 126 to 129):Each question consists of five statements A, B, C, D and E followed by 4 optionsconsisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the optionwhich indicates a valid argument, i.e. where the third statement indicated in theanswer option is a conclusion drawn from the proceeding two statements.
126 Problem Oranges are not sweet. Some oranges are sweet. All sweets are tasty. Some oranges are not tasty. No orange is tasty a. CEA b. BDC c. CBD d. EAC
127 Problem A. MBAs are in great demand. B. Sunil and Shobha are in great demand. C. Sunil is in great demand. D. Shobha is in great demand. E. Sunil and shobha are in great demand. a. ABE b. ECD c. AEB d. EBA.
128 Problem A. Some towns in the world are polluted. B. All polluted towns should be destroyed. C. Town Lambusa should be destroyed. D. Town Lambusa is polluted E. Some towns in the world should be destroyed. a. BDE b. BAE c. ADE d. CDB.
129 Problem A. All heroines are pretty. B. Some heroines are popular. C. Sanjna is pretty. D. Sanjna is a popular heroine. E. Some popular girls are pretty. a. ACD b. ABE c. DCA d. EDC.
Directions: (Q 130 to 133):In each of these questions, there are four words with the letters jumbled up.Three of them are alike. Find the odd one Out.
Directions (Q138 to 140):Each of these questions is based on the following passage.Passage: If a person reads a lot, he will increase his vocabulary, In doing so, hewill increase his speak-ing and writing power.
138 Problem The argument is based on the assumption(s). A: Strong vocabulary is important for writing and speaking B: People should read books containing unfamiliar words. C: The books to be read should be entraining a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A, Band C
139 Problem Which one of the following would weaken the argu-ment? a. Educated people can express their thoughts bet-ter. b. The style of a person is coloured by the style of the author he reads. c. Only a well-read person can make proper use of the English language. d. Those who passed vocabulary tests could not write well.
140 Problem Which of the following will strengthen the argument? A: Slow readers cannot do well in competitive ex-aminations. B: Every one must study in an English medium school. C: In order to become a good speaker in English, one must increase ones vocabulary. a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B only
Directions (Q 141 to 143):Read the information given below to answer these questions.Monica started moving from point B towards point A exactly an hour after Puranstarted from A in the opposite direction but at a speed twice as much as that ofPuran. By the time Puran covered one-sixth of the distance between the points Aand B, Monica also covered the same distance,
141 Problem The point where Puran and Monica would meet is a. Closer to A. b. Exactly between A and B c. Closer to B. d. Monica and Puran will not meet at all.
142 Problem How many hours would Puran take to reach B? a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 12
143 Problem How many more hours would Puran take (compared to Monica) to complete the journey? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
Directions (Q 144 to 146):Read the situation given below to answer these questions.a, b, c, d, c, f, g, h and i are nine houses, c is 2 km east of b. a is 1 km north of band h is 2 km south of a. g is 1 km west of h while d is 3 km east of g and f is 2km north of g. i is situated just in middle of b and c while e is just in middle of hand d.
144 Problem The distance between e aroid is: a. 4 km b. 2 km c. 1 km d. 3 km
145 Problem Distance between and f is: a. 1.41 km b. 3 km c. 2 km d. 1 km
146 Problem Distance between e and g is: a. 2 km b. 1 km c. 5 km d. 1.5 km
Directions (Q 147 to 148):Read the relationship given below to answer these questions.Archana is elder than Suman. Arti is elder than Archana but younger than Kusum.Kusum is elder than Suman. Suman is younger than Arti and Gita is the eldest.
147 Problem Who is the youngest? a. Archana b. Suman c. Arti d. Kusum
148 Problem Who is in the middle, age-wise? a. Suman b. Archana c. Arti d. Kusum
Directions (Q 149 to 150):Read the following information to answer these questions.The parents of a bride go to a jeweler to buy a diamond ring. The jeweler showsthem five different rings D, E, F, G and H. Differences in their prices are as under:• Ring D costs twice as much as ring E.• Ring E costs four and a half times as much as ring F• Ring F costs half as much as ring G.• Ring G costs half as much as ring H.• Ring H costs less than ring D but more than ring F.
149 Problem Which of the following represents the prices of the rings in ascending order? a. E, G, H, D and F b. D, E, G, H and F c. H, F, G, D and F. d. F, G, H E and D
150 Problem If the parents want to buy two rings with the condi-tion that the price difference between the two should be minimal, then which two rings qualify for this condition? a. E & F b. G & H c. H & E d. D & E
151 Problem If A + B = C, D - C = A and E - B = C, then what does D + F stands for? Provide your answer in let-ter terms as well as in number terms. a. 1 and 10 b. A and 1 c. C and 3 d. Q and 17
152 Problem If PRATAP could be given the code number 1618120116, then what code number can be given to Navin? a. 73957614 b. 24649125 c. 14122914 d. 19274651
153 Problem Out of the total of 120 musicians in a club, 5 % can play all the three instruments: guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone? a. 45 b. 44 c. 38 d. 30
154 Problem Seven men - A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colour-violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all the colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is a. Blue b. Violet c. Red d. Orange
155 Problem Among four friends, Senthil is twice the age of Karthik. Gopi is one and a half times younger than Karthik. Bala is six years elder to Karthik, but six years younger to Senthil. Who is the eldest? a. Senthil b. Karthik c. Bala d. Gopi
156 Problem Four bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many times they will toll together in one hour ex-cluding the one at the start? a. 7 times b. 8-times c. 9 limes d. 11 times
157 Problem A, B, C, D. E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F, E is opposite D, and C is not in either of the neighboring seats of E. Who is opposite to B? a. F b. C c. D d. None of these
158 Problem Donors are almost never offended by being asked for too much (in fact, they are usually flattered). And if you ask for too retouch, your donor can always suggest a smaller amount. On the other hand, do-nors are frequently offended by being asked for too little. A common reaction is, "so thats all they think Im worth.“ The above statement assumes that a. Donors are usually never asked for enough b. A good fund raiser will value the worth of the donor. c. It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations d. Fund raisers often think that the donors are in-capable of giving much.
159 Problem In 1950, the average child visited the dentist once a year. But in 1970, the number of visits had increased to two. Today, the average child visits the dentist three times a year. Each of the following, if true could explain this trend except a. Dentist fees have declined over the period b. Better home care of teeth has reduced the num-ber of cavities. c. Parents are more aware of the importance of dental care. d. Tax benefits for deducting dental expenses have increased.
160 Problem From a letter to the commercial editor of a news-paper: " Your article of January 9 drew attention to the large deficit in Playlands balance of payments that has worsened over the past three years. Yet you favour the recent trade treaty signed between Playland and Workland. That treaty results in low-ering of our import duties that will flood us with Worklands goods. This will only exacerbate our balance of trade. How can you be in favour of the treaty?" Which of the following considerations would weaken the letter writers argument? a. Import diversion versus import creation b. Prices paid by importers versus prices paid by consumers. c. Duties levied increase government revenue. d. Free trade versus protectionism.
161 Problem The largest public undertaking in India is a. The Indian Railways b. ONGC c. BHEL d. MTNL
162 Problem The gas leak at which companys plant in Bhopal had caused an environments disaster? a. Reliance Industries b. Union Carbide c. Enron d. Indian Oil
163 Problem Which one of the following teams was not in the cricket super six league match of the World Cup? a. Sri Lanka b. Zimbabwe c. West Indies d. New Zealand
164 Problem Leander Paes paired with whom to win the Austra-lian Open Tennis Championship in 2003? a. Martina Navratilova b. Martina Hingis c. Jennifer Capriati d. Serena Williams.
165 Problem Which brand/company uses the ad line " We know India Better"? a. Max New York Life Insurance b. LIC of India c. Amu I d. Bajaj
166 Problem Ayush Ayurvedic health and beauty care products were launched by a. Nestle b. Danbury c. HLL d. Ponds
167 Problem Whose last reported words were "Dont worry. Relax!"? a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Indira Gandhi c. Rajiv Gandhi d. Sanjay Gandhi
168 Problem Which is Indias largest Mutual Fund Organization? a. GIS b. SBI c. Unit-Trust of India d. ICICI
169 Problem Who is known as the Father of Indias "White Revo-lution", a synonym for cooperative milk sector and the brain behind Operation Flood? a. J.B. Kripalani b. Dr. Verghese Kurien c. Baba Amte d. Har Gobind Singh
170 Problem Which major US retail Chain has filed for Bank-ruptcy? a. Marks & Spencer b. Wal Mart c. K Mart d. Shoppers Stop
171 Problem To permit operations of private life insurance com-panies in India, Government of India revised the In-surance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Acting the year a. 1999 b. 2002 c. 2000 d. 1998
172 Problem Which is the supersonic anti-ship cruise missile that has been successfully test- fired by India from a warship in the Bay of Bengal? a. Nag b. BrahMos c. Prithvi d. Agni
173 Problem The slogan "Everyones invited" is associated with which Korean Company? a. Samsung b. LG c. Hyundai d. Daewoo
174 Problem Soft drink brand Fanta is owned by a. Pepsi b. Coca-Cola c. Parle d. Shaw Wallace
175 Problem "Pure for Sure" campaign has been launched by a. Indian Oil b. Bharat Petroleum c. Hindustan Petroleum d. Indo Burma Petroleum
176 Problem Parx, an apparel brand, is from a. Bombay Dyeing b. Raymonds c. Mafatlal d. Reliance Group
177 Problem Modern Foods was the first public sector company to be disinvested by the Government of India. Which company acquired 74% equity stake in Modern Foods in 2000 for Rs 104 crore? a. Hindustan Lever Ltd b. Nestle c. Coca-cola d. Pepsi
178 Problem The biggest and most expensive Indian Satellite________ has been launched successfully from space centre Kourou in April 2003. a. INSAT — 2B b. INSAT - 3A c. INSAT-3B d. None of these
179 Problem The empowered committee of the State Finance Min-isters has agreed to implement the new tax regime of Value Added Tax (VAT) in sixteen states by June 1,2003 instead of the original deadline of a. January 1,2003 b. April 1,2002 c. June 1,2002 d. April 1,2003
180 Problem In radio transmission, what does FM stand for? a. Frequent Modulation b. Frequency Moderation c. Frequency Monitoring d. Frequency Modulation.
181 Problem Who is the appointing authority of the Chief Elec-t/on Commissioner? a. Parliament b. President c. Prime minister d. Electoral College
182 Problem What does the acronym CTBT stand for? a. Continued Test Ban Treaty b. Commercial Test Based Tariff c. Continue Test Based Treatment d. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
183 Problem Bappi Lahiri won a case of plagiarism against which US based singer? a. P.M. Dawn b. Dr. Dre c. L.L.CollJ d. Jeniffer Lopez
184 Problem Which public sector telecom company undertaking was bought by the TATA group during the recent disinvestment process? a. BSNL b. MTNL. c. VSNL d. Punjab Telecom
185 Problem Which one of the following is NOT a key policy development in Indian telecom sector? a. The international long distance business was opened up for unrestricted entry b. The monopoly of VSNL over International Long Distance (ILD) service was ended and VSNL was privatized. c. Large number of villages covered through wire- » less in Local Loop (WLL) d. Radio Frequency Spectrum allocation is being done away with
186 Problem Which major industrial group has entered into an agreement with the Punjab government for a major crop diversification programme? a. Mahindra & Mahindra b. Tata c. Cargill Foods d. Kellogs
187 Problem Which company is associated with the campaign - Whats your Moto? a. Microsoft b. Motorola c. Leo Mattel d. Nokia
188 Problem Which soft drinks group launched Mountain Dew in the Indian market? a. Pepsi b. Coca-cola c. Parle d. Dukes
189 Problem Which group owns the Aqua guard water purifiers? a. TATA b. Birla c. Reliance d. SP1C
190 Problem Which newspaper has the motto journalism of Cour-age? a. The Hindustan Times b. The Washington Post c. The Indian Express d. The Guardian
191 Problem Jaswant Singhs budget brought about some changes in the individual tax policy. Which of the following is taxable under the Indian tax laws for the year 2003-2004? a. Long Term Capital Gains b. Interest on Housing Loan c. Dividends d. Banks & Small Savings Interests
192 Problem What does CDMA stand for? a. Code Division Multiple Access b. Code Division Mobile Access. c. Code Division Multiple Application d. Code Division Mobile Application
193 Problem What brand is associated with the campaign - Made for Each Other? a. Charms b. Wills Navy Cut c. India Kings d. Gold Flake
194 Problem What is common to the following - Pantaloons, Lifestyle, Stoppers Stop and Westside? a. They are all owned by the TATA group. b. HDFC has bought a stake in each of these operations. c. They are leaders in the retail store business. d. They are authorized dealers for Khadi Gram Udyog.
195 Problem Rubber in India is cultivated mainly in a. Andhra Pradesh b. Assam c. Kerala d. Karnataka
196 Problem Which car launched recently has the baseline "Spoil Yourself? a. Pal io Adventure b. Opel Swing c. Skoda d. Indigo
197 Problem Which IT company has developed Finacle Core-a banking software product? a. Wipro b. Satyam c. Infosys d. Iflex
198 Problem The Indian Railways is one of the largest railway systems with an extensive network of over 63,000 route kilometers. Approximately of the net-work is electrified. a. 50% b. 25% c. 45% d. 60%
199 Problem Which Indian business family owns the brand Hero Cycles - the largest manufacturers of cycles in the world? a. Jindal b. Munjal c. Ambani d. Lohia
200 Problem The Album of the Year" category Grammy Award in the 45th Annual Grammy Awards has been won by a. Anoshka Shankar Pandit b. Norah Jones c. Bruce Springsteen d. Britney Spears