Directions (1-11):Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The questionsare based on what is stated or implied in the passage.
PASSAGE - IIndias successful bid to host the 2010 Commonwealth Games in Delhi has been hailed as anextraordinary victory by sports administrators, promise sportspersons, politicians, barons of industry andcommon folk alike. That India, which is home to almost half thepopulation of the British Commonwealthof nations, will be only the second Asian country (after Malaysia 1998) to host the prestigious, multi-discipline games, is matter of pride.In the larger context, Indias victorious bid must be viewed against the background of the countrysrecent acquired assertive self-identity as a developing nation confidently marching into the newmillennium, leaving behind the colonial choppiness and excess fcjaggage of the past. And what betterway to showcase the emerg-ing identity than on a prestigious centre-stage in the world of sport? Indiasgiant neighbour, China, showed the way by winning its bid to host the 2008 Olympic Games in Beijingwith a truly impressive show of infra-structure and all-round development. There will be real significanceto New Delhi hosting, just two years after the Beijing Games, a multi discipline event that is sec-ond onlyto the Olympics in sheer prestige and size. Not surprisingly, the Indian Olympic Association, the UnionGovernment and the bid committee have re-ceived kudos from many quarters. The Confederation ofIndian industry has described the successful bid as "a turning point in the history of Indian sports". TheCII, which already has a Memorandum of Understand-ing with the IOA, will be expected to play a keyrole in the financial success of the games in a nation whose government can ill afford to spend tens of
millions of dollars of taxpayers money on a mega-event.Critics have already made the point that the Com-monwealth Games are not good value for money;In-dian sports are not developed to the extent that the host nation can make a big impression on thegames. What is more, although these games are far less ungovern-able and unwiedly than theOlympics, it will take a management miracle to make them economically vi-able. This is where the role ofcorporate India assumes enormous significance. The games ultimate success will lie not only in how wellthe budgeted amount is spent on infrastructure development, on the games vil-lage and in sprucing upthe nations capital, but also in the Organising Committees ability to run the big show without reachingtoo deep into the pockets of taxpay-ers.
01 Problem According to the passage, the ultimate success of organizing Commonwealth Games will be gauged by: a. fund utilization for infrastructure development of the games village. b. spending of money in bringing up the countrys capital c. ability to conduct within the budgeted amount without much public expense d. All the above.
02 Problem Which one of the following is not the view of critics according to the passage? a. Commonwealth .Games are not good value for money. b. Indian sports are not developed to the extent that it can make big impression. c. Commonwealth Games are far less governable than the Olympics. d. None of these
PASSAGE IIThe fundamental objectives of sociology are the same as those of science generally — discovery andexplana-tion. To discover the essential data of social behaviour and the connections among the data isthe first objec-tive of sociology. To explain the data and the connec-tions is the second and largerobjective. Science makes its advances in terms of both of these objectives. Some-times it is the discoveryof a new element or set of elements that marks a major breakthrough in the his-tory of a scientificdiscipline. Closely related to such discovery is the discovery of relationships of data that had never beennoted before. All of this is. as we know, of immense importance in science. But the drama of discovery, inthis sense, can sometimes lead us to overlook the greater importance of explanation of what is revealedby the data. Sometimes decades, even centuries, pass before known connections and relation-ships areactually explained. Discovery and explanation are the two great interpenetrating, interacting realms ofscience.The order of reality that interests the scientists is the empirical order, that is, the order of data andphe-nomena revealed to us throughobservation or experi-ence. To be precise or explicit about whatis, and is not, revealed by observation is not always easy, to be sure. And often it is necessary for ournatural powers of observation to be supplemented by the most intricate of mechanical aids for a givenobject to become "empiri-cal" in the sense just used. That the electron is not as immediately visible as isthe mountain range does not mean, obviously, that it is any less empirical. That so-cial behaviour does
not lend itself to as quick and ac-curate description as, say, chemical behaviour of gases and compoundsdoes not mean that social roles, sta-tuses, and attitudes are any less empirical than mol-ecules andtissues. What is empirical and observable today may have been nonexistent in scientific conscious-ness adecade ago. Moreover, the empirical is often data inferred from direct observation All of this is clearenough, and we should make no pretense that there are not often shadow areas between the empiricaland the nonempirical. Neverthless, the first point to make about any science, physical or social, is that itsworld of data is the empirical world. A very large amount of scien-tific energy goes merely into the workof expanding the frontiers, through discovery, of the known, observable, empirical world.From observation or discovery we move to expla-nation. The explanation sought by the scientist is, ofcourse, not at all like the explanation sought by the theologian or metaphysician. The scientist is notinter-ested — not, that is in his role of scientist - in ultimate, transcendental, or divine causes of what hesets him-self to explain. He is interested in explanations that are as empirical as the data themselves. If itis the high incidence of crime in a certain part of a large city that requires explanation, the scientist isobliged to offer his explanation in terms of factors which are empirically real as the phenomenon ofcrime itself. He does not explain the problem, for example, in terms of refer-ences to the will ofGod, demons or the original sin. A satisfactory explanation is not only one that isempiri-cal, however, but one that can be stated in the terms of a causal proposition. Description is an
beginning, but description is not explanation. It is well to stress this point, for there are all too manyscientists, or would be scientists, who are primarily concerned with data gathering, data counting, anddata describing, and who seem to forget that such opera-tions, however useful, are but the first step.Until we have accounted for the problem at hand, explained it causally by referring the data to someprinciple or generalization already established, or to some new prin-ciple or generalization, we have notexplained anything.
03 Problem The major objective of the second paragraph is: a. to show electrons are empirical data b. to demonstrate the difference between chemis-try and sociology c. to show that science changes as time passes d. to explain what the term empirical order means
04 Problem Which of the following statements best agrees with the authors position? a. Causation is a basis for explanation b. Generalization is a prerequisite for explanation c. Empiricism is the science of discovery d. Explanation is inferred from data
05 Problem According to the passage, scientists are not inter-ested in theological explanations because: a. theology cannot explain social behaviour b. scientists are primaly concerned with data col-lection. c. theological explanations are not empirical d. scientists tend to be atheists
06 Problem What is the major objective of the passage? a. Discuss scientific method b. Explain the main objectives of sociology c. Prove that sociology is a science. d. Show that explanation is more important than discovery.
06 PASSAGE III Higher education in modern society seeks to preserve, transmit and advance knowledge. Many experts, com-mittees and commissions have underlined the impor-tance of education as an instrument of change and progress. The task of nation building depends on the quality and number of persons coming out of our schools and colleges. The National Policy on Education (NPE) was formulated in 1968 with this long-term objective. In a highly competitive social environment, only the best courses will attract students. Therefore, Govern-mental agencies demand universities to demonstrate their commitment to quality before funding new courses. Traditional education is losing its aura, and the new course should have their direct bearings on society. Educational institutions should develop a quality per-spective, adopting corporate practices such as strategic planning, delegation of responsibility and fixing account-ability norms. In the present socio-economic milieu, quality in education will appeal to many, especially to those students who intend to acquire professional skills and training that will establish them in the employment market. However, it is to be noted that quality assur-ance in education cannot be only student centric but should also be society-oriented, as society supports the education system. Every educational institution needs to set out its mission to meet the expectations of soci-ety and its people and the country at large. The philosophy of total quality management (TQM) has its relevance in educational institutions too. It
is understood as application of management techniques for continuous quality improvement (CQI) in theacademia with appropriate tools for meeting the needs and expectations of the stakeholders. The TQMap-proach in educational institutions emphasizes that the institute should have a vision of what it wantsto be and clearly define its mission compatible with the vision, and accordingly lay down its objectives tobe trans-formed into specific, attainable, meaningful goals. The question is: How many educationalinstitutions have a well-defined vision, mission and objectives and how effective are they in workingtowards accomplishment of the objectives? Frankly, many institutions in the realm of higher educationlack the courage and commitment to implement TQM.Quality in higher education can be attained only when promoters understand its significance and theirown role in building a knowledge-society. Government initiatives and other measures will yield effectivere-sults only when educational institutions develop an ethi-cal perspective. It is more relevant in thecontext of privatisation of education where the players will have more autonomy in the design ofcurriculum, recruitment of faculty, methods of enrolment and evaluation of stu-dents and so on. It ispertinent in this context to under-stand the concept of ethics. The seven sins of current times can bereckoned as - business without morality, politics without principles, education without character,worship without sacrifice, wealth without hard work, devotion without austerity and existence withoutregard for the scriptures. Ethics, essentially personal, evolves from an individuals mind. Ethical
behaviour of business organisations is shaped by the individual employees characteristics. Ethics isgrounded in values and, not learned nor taught. Values are learnt from childhood situations. Thedimensions of ethics include adherence to truth, a commitment to justice and personal and publicintegrity. The meaning and implications of these are very wide. Integrity in the context of ethics is notfi-nancial integrity or honesty but integrity of character, which in a broad sense is consistency inthought, word and deed. Higher education system today is replete with unethical practices bymanagement and teachers, Proliferation of educational institutions, especially pro-fessional colleges, isattributable largely to the commer-cial motives of wealth and popularity, not contributing to the socialcauses of education, knowledge dissemi-nation and shaping the future of the young members of society.This is in sharp contrast to the ancient practice of education rooted firmly in philanthropic values.Modern educational institutions pay least attention to the development of infrastructure to facilitate thelearn-ing process. Overcrowded classrooms are a common sight in many professional colleges. Instancesof col-leges admitting students much in excess of the permit-ted intake, blatant flouting of normsprescribed are abundant. This results in an insufficient teacher-student ratio, which adversely affects thequality of teaching and quality standards. Conducive atmosphere for learn-ing is also lost in the process.Recruitment of faculty is another area of concern. Nepotism is rampant, seriously jeopardising theabilities of institutes to offer value-based and quality-assured education. Students interests are being
subordinated to personal interests and class interests of the promoters. Teachers should also be heldresponsible for the declin-ing academic standards. They are pursuing the noble profession of teachingwith commercial motives by relegating teaching to the level of a secondary source of income. Manyacademicians do not invest their in-tellectual capital for the betterment of students. In-stead, theydevote their time and energies to their own commercial and political pursuits, other than theirpro-fession, which earns them social recognition and es-teem. These trends have caused a seriouslacunae in the higher education system, which ought to be ori-ented on ethical motives. The currenttrend will defeat the very purpose of education, which is intended to mould the youngsters of today intoknowledgeable, Resourceful, creative, and energetic members of soci-ety. Therefore, there is every needfor inculcating ethi-cal behaviour in all individuals, directly or indirectly involved in the functioning ofhigher education system. The education system needs to be overhauled before it degenerated further.The government, the educationists and the stakeholders, parents and students should bring about anethical revolution by contributing their part. Only then can India strengthen its values in educating, makeit qualitatively compatible with that of the devel-oped countries, while keeping intact its traditional valuebase.
07 Problem Which of the following has not caused a serious lacunae in the higher education system? a. Excess intake of students in various colleges. b. Poor development of infrastructural facilities c. Selfless devotion to the cause of students. d. Teachers devoting their time and energies to commercial motives.
08 Problem The author is least likely to agree with which of the following views? a. The quality of education in developed countries is not satisfactory. b. Student teacher ratio affects the quality of teach-ing. c. There is a need to inculcate ethical behaviour in teachers to maintain quality standards in education. d. Privatization of education would lead to more autonomy of the educational institutions.
09 Problem Which of the following is true of the ancient system of education? a. Traditional educational institutions played an im-portant role in preserving and advancing knowl-edge. b. Traditional educational institutions gave due im-portance to the development of infrastructure to facilitate the learning process. c. Traditional educational institutions were essen-tially value based. d. Traditional education had a quality perspective as opposed to modern institutions.
10 Problem The author is for privatisation of educational insti-tutes because: a. private institutes have more autonomy in design-ing their curriculum. b. students perform better in private institutes. c. all private institutes have a well defined vision d. private institutes motivate teachers better.
11 Problem What is the central idea of the passage? a. Ethics is vital in all spheres of life b. The traditional system of education must be re-vived for maintaining quality standards. c. The concept of standards and quality used in industry should be applicable in the field of edu-cation too. d. The current trend in education has led to the degeneration of the education system.
Directions (12-14):In each question there are four statements of which one is false. Select the onewhich is not appropriate as per standard English usage.
12 Problem a. When something starts getting smaller in size it is said to be waxing. b. A yokel is not familiar with the sights and sounds of a big city. c. An urbane person is an uncouth person. d. Every scientific theory is explained or justified by a principle or principles underlying it.
13 Problem a. Up market products are so positioned that the poor and lower middle classes prefer to buy them. b. Those planning to enter brewery business must acquaint themselves with rudiments, of zymology- c. A dilettante is a person who follows art or sci-ence for amusement in a superficial way. d. Excessive brutality marks x-rated films.
14 Problem a. Temperance is practicing moderation in food and drink b. A torpid person is generally hyperactive. c. When you are uptight you are extremely ner-vous, tensed up d. An upfront payment is generally made in the open.
Directions (15-17):Choose the word that best expresses the meaning of the given set.
15 Problem To be servile a. fealty b. fawn c. fend d. fetish
16 Problem Natural ability a. foster b. flaunt c. flair d. foible
17 Problem Very untidy a. sloth b. slovenly c. sloppy d. sapient
18 Problem Leading designs of new fashion are a. basilisk b. hoopla c. clothiers d. haute couture
19 Problem Sociological factors rather than legal implications should be the focus of study before society permits the terminally ill to exercise their a. right to die b. reciprocal c. red alert d. rule of thumb
20 Problem very hungry, he bought a sandwich. a. To feel b. He felt c. Feeling d. Feel
Directions (21-23):In each sentence there are four words or phrases which are marked A, B, G andD. Choose the one which is incorrectly used.
21 Problem Leaves are believed (A) to be one of the best sub-stance (B) to form (C) compost piles (D) a. D b. C c. B d. A
22 Problem Against her parents (A) wishes (B) she wants (C) to be the journalist (D). a. D b. C c. B d. A
23 Problem I was surprised (A) by the large (B) amount (C) of people who came there (D). a. D b. C c. B d. A
Directions (24-26):A word is given in capital letters followed by four words. Choose the word thatis the opposite in meaning to it.
24 Problem DIATRIBE a. massive b. range c. elegy d. eulogy
25 Problem BAROQUE a. simple b. aglow c. constant d. polished
26 Problem CRYPTIC a. indifferent b. famous c. candid d. futile
Directions (27-29):A word is given in capital letters. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to it.
27 Problem INUNDATE a. abuse b. deny c. swallow d. flood
28 Problem FRAUGHT a. wild b. frantic c. filled d. threatening
29 Problem INEBRIETY a. starvation b. felony c. gluttony d. drunkenness
Directions (30-34):In each of the following questions a related pair of words or phrases isfollowed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses arelationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
30 Problem RENEGADE: TURNCOAT : : a. agitator: fire brand b. maverick : scapegoat c. miser: spendthrift d. reprobate : hot head
31 Problem BARGE: VESSEL : : a. link: chain b. shovel: implement c. clock: hands d. brake : automobile
32 Problem MODERATOR : DEBATE : : a. conspirator: plot b. legislator: election c. chef: banquet d. umpire : game
33 Problem GLAND : ENZYME : : a. muscle : spasm b. generator : current c. brain : cortex d. organ : kidney
34 Problem POTBOILER : NOVELIST : : a. symphony : composer b. caption : car-toonist c. doggerel: poet d. easel : painter
Directions (35-38):Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.
35 Problem By the skin of ones teeth a. To forego old grievances b. To take ones time to decide c. To cost almost nothing d. By a very small margin
36 Problem Bark is worse than ones bite a. Appearances are deceptive b. Overlook faults in someone c. To misjudge a person d. One is not as ferocious as one appears
37 Problem Back up a. Move back slowly b. Withdraw c. Support d. Return
38 Problem Look up to a. Respect b. Examine c. Visit d. Despise
Directions (39-40):Each sentence is followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion.Select the alternative you consider most correct and effective according to therequirements of standard written English.
39 Problem Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, efficiency and happiness. a. If used wisely b. Because of usefulness c. Because it is used wisely d. Having used it wisely
40 Problem Unless they reverse present policies immediately, the world may suffer permanent damage from the unregulated use of pesticides. a. Unless present policies are reversed b. If present policies will not be reversed c. Unless present policies will be reversed d. If it will not reverse present policies.
41 Problem The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle measure 3 cm and 4 cm. The radius of the encircle of the triangle is a. 3.5 cm b. 1.75 cm c. 1 cm d. 0.875 cm
42 Problem The distance between the tops of two trees 20 m and 28 m high is 17 m. The horizontal distance be-tween the trees is: a. 9 m b. 11m c. 15 m d. 31 m
43 Problem A 25 m long ladder is placed against a vertical wall inside a room such that the foot of the ladder is 7 m from the foot of the wall. If the top of the ladder slides 4 m downwards, then the foot of the ladder will slide by: a. 2 m b. 4 m c. 8 m d. 16 m
44 Problem If two diameters for a circle intersect each other at right angles, then the quadrilateral formed by joining their end points Is a a. rhombus b. rectangle c. square d. parallelogram
45 Problem Of all the chords of a circle passing through a given point in it, the smallest is that which: a. is trisected at the point b. is bisected at the point c. passes through the centre d. None of these
46 Problem If the system 2x + 3y - 5 = 0, 4x + ky - 10 = 0 has an infinite number of solutions, then: a. k = 3/2 b. k 1 3/2 c. k 1 6 d. k = 6
47 Problem In covering a distance of 30 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Suresh. If Amit doubles his speed, he would take 1 hour less than Suresh. Amits speed is: a. 5 kmph b. 7.5 kmph c. 6 kmph d. 6.25 kmph
48 Problem What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers 14, 17, and 42 so that the reminders may be proportional? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 7
49 Problem In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2:1. If this ratio is to be 1:2, the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 60
50 Problem The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 :v3. The angle of elevation of the sun is: a. 30° b. 45° c. 60° d. 90°
51 Problem The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area? a. 37 ½ % b. 60% c. 75% d. 120%
52 Problem A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 m2. Its di-agonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side. The length of the carpet is: a. 5 in b. 12 m c. 13 m d. 14.5 m
53 Problem The opposite pairs of sides of a square are increased by 40% and 30% respectively. The area of the re-sulting rectangle exceeds the area of the square by: a. 42% b. 62% c. 82% d. 72%
54 Problem The length of a rope by which a cow must be teth-ered in order that it may be able to graze an area of 9856 sq metres is: a. 56m b. 64 m c. 88 m d. 168 m
55 Problem How many bricks each measuring 24 cm x 11.5 cm x 8 cm will be needed to construct a wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 23 cm wide, while 5% of the total wall contains mortar? a. 5000 b. 5250 c. 4750 d. 4250
56 Problem The dimensions of an open box are 52 cm x 40 cm x 29 cm. Its thickness is 2cm. If 1 cu cm of metal used in the box weights 0.5g, the weight of the box is: a. 6.832 kg b. 7.576 kg c. 7.76 kg d. 8.56 kg
57 Problem How many metres of cloth 2.5 wide will be needed to make a conical tent with base radius 7m and height 24m? a. 120m b. 180m c. 220 m d. 550 m
58 Problem A society of 356 voters has to choose a president. Five candidates are seeking office. If all voters ex-ercise their votes, what is the least number of votes a successful candidate could receive and yet have more votes than any other candidate? a. 71 b. 72 c. 81 d. 82
59 Problem Gunjan went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6 percent, what was the cost of the tax free items? a. Rs 15 b. Rs 20 c. Rs 15.70 d. Rs 19.70
60 Problem In an examination, 1100 were boys and 900 were girls. 50% of the boys and 40% of the girls passed the examination. The percentage of candidates that failed is a. 45% b. 45.5% c. 54.5% d. 59.2%
61 Problem A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of a. 50% b. 56.80% c. 60% d. 70.28%
62 Problem The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction, that a family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to change its ex-penditure on cooking oil, is a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
63 Problem Two men undertake to do a piece of work for Rs 200. One alone can do it in 6 days, the other in 8 days. With the help of a boy they finish it in 3 days. How much is the share of the boy? a. Rs 45 b. Rs 40 c. Rs 30 d. Rs 25
64 Problem Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are used together, how long will it take to fill the tank? a. 50 minutes b. 12 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 15 minutes
65 Problem A grocer bought 10 kg of apples for Rs 81 out of which one kg was found rotten. If he wishes to make a profit of 10% he should sell it at... per kg. a. Rs. 9.00 b. Rs. 9.90 c. Rs. 10.10 d. Rs. 10.20 .
66 Problem Sixteen cylindrical cans, each with a radius of 1 unit, are placed inside a cardboard box, four in a row. The cans touch adjacent cans and/or the walls of the box. Which of the following could be the interior area of the bottom of the box in square units? a. 16 b. 32 c. 64 d. 128
67 Problem An express train traveled at an average speed of 100 kilometres per hour, stopping for 3 minutes af-ter every 75 kilometres. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 kilometres from the starting point? a. 6 hr21 min b. 6hr24min c. 6 hr 30 min d. 6 hr 27 min
68 Problem Two cars are traveling along the same road. The first one, which travels at the rate of 30 kmph, starts 6 hours ahead of the second one, which travels at the rate of 50 kmph. How long will it take the sec-ond car to catch up with the first one? a. 6hours b. 9hours c. 12 hours d. 15 hours
69 Problem The sum of 6th and 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the sum of 7th, 10th and 12th elements of the same progression. Then which ele-ment of the series should necessarily be equal to zero? a. 10th b. 8th c. 1st d. None of these
70 Problem In a 800m race around a stadium having a circum-ference of 20m, the top runner meets the last run-ner on the 5th minute of the race. If the top runner runs at twice the speed of the last runner, which is the time taken by the top runner to finish the race? a. 20 min b. 15 min c. 10 min d. 5 min
71 Problem A dairyman pays Rs. 6.40 per litre of milk; he adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 8 per litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. Find the proportion of water to milk received by the customer. a. 1 : 15 b. 1 : 10 c. 1:20 d. 1:12
72 Problem A train can travel 20% faster than a car. Both start from a point A at the same time and reach point B 75 km away from A at the same time. On the way however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stop-ping at stations. Find the speed of the car in km per hour. a. 50 kmph b. 55 kmph c. 60 kmph d. 65 kmph
73 Problem A manufacturer undertakes to supply 2000 pieces of a particular component at Rs. 25 per piece. Ac-cording to his estimates, even if 5% fail to pass the quality tests, he will make a profit of 25%. How-ever as it turned out, 50% of the components were rejected. What is the loss to the manufacturer? a. Rs. 12,000 b. Rs. 13,000 c. Rs. 14,000 d. Rs. 15,000
74 Problem A recipe gives directions to mix 4 parts of substance A with 7.parts of substance B. These substances are to be taken by weight, but by mistake they were taken by volume. Find the error in the percentage of weight of A in the mixture if 117 cm3 of A weights as much as 151 cm3 of B. a. 5.05% b. 6.00% c. 7.05% d. none of these
75 Problem The taxi charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge of the distance covered. For a journey of 13 km, the charges paid are Rs. 96 and for a journey of 18 km, the charges paid are Rs. 131, What will a person have to pay for traveling a distance of 25 km? a. Rs. 180 b. Rs. 117 c. Rs. 215 d. Rs. 202
76 Problem The letters of the word PROMISE are arranged so that no two of the vowels should come together. Find the total number of arrangements. a. 49 b. 1440 c. 7 d. 1898
77 Problem A bag contains 5 red balls and 8 blue balls. It also contains 4 green and 7 black balls. If a ball is drawn at random, find the probability that it is not green. a. 5/6 b. ¼ c. 1/6 d. 7/4
78 Problem A vertical stick 12 m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the ground. At the same time a tower casts its shadow 40m long on the ground. Find the height of the tower. a. 44 m b. 60 m c. 68 m d. 80 m
79 Problem In a circular lawn there is a 16m long path in the form of a chord. If path is 6 m away from the cen-tre of the lawn, find the radius of the circular lawn. a. 16m b. 6 m c. 10 m d. 8 m
80 Problem Given that Carbon-14 decays at constant rate in such a way that it reduces to 50% in 5568 years. Find the age of an old wood piece in which carbon is only 12 Vi % of the original. a. 1856 years b. 16704 years c. 1392 years d. 22727 years
81 Problem What is the average rate of contribution of exports to sales during the period 1994-95 to 1998-99 as a percentage? a. 30,1 b. 27 c. 2.7 d. 138
82 Problem If the sales for the year 1999-2000 exceed that of 1998-99 by 50% and the profits increase propor-tionately, what would be the increase in return on equity? (Assume equity to remain unchanged.) a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. Cannot be determined
Directions (Questions 83-85):Answer these questions based on the information in the table given below. Employment/Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1. In organised 25.6 282 21.7 30.5 352 402 453 sector 2. In unorganised 35.7 41.5 29.1 42.5 502 59.8 75.1 sector 3. Unemployed 15.4 17.1 25.5 22.5 24.8 22.9 24.8
83 Problem The rate of unemployment was the highest in a. 1991 b. 1993 c. 1995 d. 1997
84 Problem The number of employed showed the highest per-centage increase in the year a. 1996-97 b. 1995-96 c. 1993-94 d. 1991-92
85 Problem From 1994 to 1997, a. employment numbers have fluctuated. b. employment in organised sector has shown steady increase. c. figures ill all three categories have shown a steady increase. d. Cannot reach any of the above conclusions.
Directions (Questions 86-88):Study the table given below to answer these questions. The table gives the salesdata of four branches of a paint company in three months of a year. Branch October November December First Last Sale First Last Sale First Last Sale Bill Bill (Rs.) Bill Bill (Rs.) Bill Bill (Rs.) No. No. (Rs.) No. No. Bill Bill 1. Chennai 2864 2942 345641 2943 3106 461750 3107 3280 485097 2. 4051 4101 147345 4102 .4204 231469 4205 4296 221895 Bangalore 3. Cochin 3469 3601 269473 3602 3704 208947 3705 3762 210494 4. 2644 2703 165442 2704 2787 187928 2788 2841 175427 Hyderabad
86 Problem The total number of bills raised by the company from October to December are a. 1045 b. 1155 c. 777 d. 1662
87 Problem The average sale per bill in the given period was the highest in the branch at a. Hyderabad b. Cochin c. Bangalore d. Chennai
88 Problem Which of the following statements is/are true? A. Bangalore branch raised the highest number of bills in December. B. All branches show increase in sale every month in the period shown. C. Sale of Hyderabad branch in December was approximately its average sale for the three months shown. D. Ranking the branches by sale in the three months shows Chennai in the lead and Hyderabad com-ing last. a. A, Band C b. B, C and D c. A and B d. C and D
Directions (Questions 89-90) :Refer to the following bar chart to answer these questions.
89 Problem Australias exports to Japan, South Asia and Russia in 2000 is approximately thousands. a. 185 b. 160 c. 270 d. Cannot be determined
90 Problem In the given year, total domestic demand of Russia and East Europe is thousand. a. 50 b. more than 50 c. less than 50 d. Cannot be determined
91 Problem The shortest route from A to C will be a. A-B-C, 11 b. A-D-E-C, 15 c. A-B-D-E-C, 19 d. A-D-E-F-C, 26
92 Problem How many routes are possible between A and H ? a. One b. Four c. Six d. None
93 Problem The shortest route from A to H is a. A-G-H b. A-D-E-F-H c. A-D-E-G-H d. A-B-C-F-H
Directions (Questions 94-95): States Sex Literacy Male : Female Literate : Illiterate Uttar Pradesh 5:3 2:7 Bihar 3:1 1 :4 Andhra Pradesh 2:3 2: 1 Karnataka 3:5 3:2 Maharashtra 3:4 5:1 Tamil Nadu 3:2 7:2 Kerala 3:4 9:4
94 Problem Approximately what is the number of literate people in Maharashtra and Karnataka together? a. 4.5 lakh b. 6.5 lakh c. 3 lakh d. 3.5 lakh
95 Problem In Tamil Nadu, if we suppose 70% of the females and 75% of the males become literate, what is the total number of illiterates in the state? a. 75,000 b. 85,000 c. 71,000 d. 81,000
Directions (Questions 96-97):Refer to the following table to answer the questions.Distribution of marks obtained by 100 students in two papers (I & II) inMathematics. Paper/Marks 40 & 30 & 20 & 10 & below out of 50 above above above above 10 1 5 22 67 82 18 II 8 31 79 91 9 Average 6 27 71 88 12 (Aggregate)
96 Problem How many students have scored less than 40% marks in aggregate? a. 30 b. 12 c. 17 d. 29
97 Problem What is the percentage of students who have ob-tained 60% an3 more marks in Paper II over the number of students who obtained 40% and more marks in aggregate (approximately) ? a. 44 b. 40 c. 48 d. Data inadequate
Directions (Questions 98-100) :Study and analyse the table given below to answer these questions. Year Production Export Qty. Rs Domestic Consumption Crore US$ Million 1990-91 1.70 1.00 279 108 0.54 1996-97 2.05 1.81 1467 452 0.55 1997-98 2.28 1.79 1708 477 0.50 1998-99 2.65 2.12 1752 431 0.50 1999-2000 2.92 2.45 1901 447 0.55 2000-01 3.01 2.47 1374 334 0.58 2001-02 3.06 2.13 1050 246 0.60
98 Problem The highest percentage of domestic consumption with reference to the production of coffee has been in the year during the given period. a. 2001-02 b. 2000-01 c. 1996-97 d. 1990-91
99 Problem During the given period though the largest quantity of coffee exported has been lakh tonnes, the for-eign exchange earned in dollars has been the high-est in the year a. 3.01,1999-2000 b. 2.47,1997-98 c. 3.06,1997-98 d. None of these
100 Problem Which one of the following statements is correct? a. The domestic consumption of coffee has been consistently increasing. b. The foreign exchange earned in rupees has been increasing during the period from 1990-91 to 2000-01. c. The production of coffee in the country has been showing consistently upward trend during the given period. d. None of these.
Directions (Questions 101-105):In each of the questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions(I) and (II). Consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be atvariance to the commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusion (s)definitely follow (s) from the given statements. Indicate your answer asa. if only conclusion I followsb. if only conclusion II followsc. if neither I nor II followsd. if both I and IT follow
101 Problem Statements: I. All pilots are brave men. II. All astronauts are pilots. Conclusions: I. All astronauts are brave men. II. Some pilots are astronauts.
102 Problem Statements: I. Some aeroplanes are I iving being. II. Some non-1 iving beings are ghosts. Conclusions: I. Some aeroplanes are ghosts. II. Some aeroplanes are not ghosts.
103 Problem Statements: I. Some hens are cows. II. All cows are horses. Conclusions: I. Some horses are hens. II. Some hens are horses.
104 Problem Statements: I. All lawyers are cheats. II. Some women are lawyers. Conclusions: I. Some women are cheats. II. All cheats are women.
105 Problem Statements: I. All lemons are mangoes. II. No mango is cheap Conclusions: I. All mangoes are lemons. II. No lemon is cheap.
Directions (Questions 106-110):Each of these has a question and "two statements which are labelled (A) and (B).Use the data given in (A) and (B) together with other known facts to decidewhether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your answerasa. if you can get the answer from (A) ALONE but not from (B) alone.b. if you can get the answer from (B) ALONE but not from (A) alone.c. if you can get the answer from BOTH (A) and (B) TOGETHER, but not from (A) alone or (B) alone.d. if you CANNOT get the answer from state-ments (A) and (B) TOGETHER, but need even more data.
106 Problem A car drives around a circular track once. A sec-ond car drives from point A to point B in a straight line. Which car travels farther? a. The car driving around the circular track takes a longer time to complete its trip than the car traveling in a straight line. b. The straight line from A to B is 11/2 times as long as the diameter of the circular track.
107 Problem Is y larger than x? a. x + y = 2 b. x/y = 2
108 Problem Mary must work 12 hours to make in wages the cost of a set of luggage. How many dollars does the set of luggage cost? A. Jim must work 15 hours to make in wages the cost of the set of luggage. B. Jims hourly wage is 80% of Marys hourly wage.
109 Problem A group of 49 consumers were offered a chance to subscribe to 3 magazines: A, B, and C, 38 of the consumers subscribed to at least one of the maga-zines. How many of the 49 consumers subscribed to exactly two of the magazines? A. Twelve of the 49 consumers subscribed to all three of the magazines. B. Twenty of the 49 consumers subscribed to magazine A.
110 Problem Which of the four numbers w, x, y, and z is the larg-est? A. The average of w, x, y, and z is 25. B. The numbers w, x, and y are each less than 24
Directions (Q 111-135):Each of these questions has one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Mark youranswer as1. if both A and R are correct and R explains A.2. if both A and R are correct but R does not ex-plain A.3. if A is correct but R is wrong.4. if A is wrong but R is correct.
111 Problem Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water whereas a fresh water fish never drinks water. Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hypertonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its environment.
112 Problem Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together. Reason (R): India is a union of states.
113 Problem Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure a temperature of 60°C. Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury.
114 Problem Assertion (A): The windows in some buildings are double-glazed (i.e., they have a thin layer of air between two sheets of glass) to reduce heat losses to the outside. Reason (R): Glass is a very bad conductor of heat.
115 Problem Assertion (A): India is one of the leading fishing countries in the world. Reason (R): India has a long coastline and a large fish-eating population.
Directions (Questions 116-120):Each of the questions given below consists of two quantities, one in Column Aand one in Column B. Compare the two quantities and mark your answer asa. if the quantity in column A is greater.b. if the quantity in column B is greater.c. if the two quantities at-e equal.d. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.Column AColumn B
119 Problem Distance covered by a motorist 25 miles going at 50 miles per hour from 10:55 p.m. to 11:25 p.m. the same evening.
120 Problem Radius of a circle with Radius of area of 25 sq. units circle with circumference 9
SECTION -DINTELLIGENCE AND CRITICAL REASONING
Directions (121-126):Each item is represented by a circle. Your task is to match the right parts on thebasis of the relationship among the words in each question.
121 Problem Water : Atmosphere : : Hydrogen a. A b. B c. C d. D
122 Problem Shirt: Collar:: Pocket: a. E b. D c. A d. B
123 Problem English : Latin :: Greek : a. A b. F c. C d. D
124 Problem Week : Day : : Year : a. F b. E c. C d. A
125 Problem Frame: Model:: Painting: a. A b. B c. E d. F
126 Problem City : Children :: State: a. F b. E c. D d. C
Direction (127-131): Use the information given below to answer the questions.The office staff of the XYZ Corporation presently consists of three book keepers (A, B andC) and five secretaries (D, E, F, G and H). Management is plan-ning to open a new office inanother city using three secretaries and two book keepers of the present staff. To do sothey plan to separate certain individuals who do not function well together. The followingguidelineswere established to set up the new office:i. Book keepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent as a team to the new office.ii. C and E function well alone bul not as a team, They should be separated.iii. D and G have not been on speaking terms for many months. They should not go together.iv. Since D and F have been competing for promo-tion, they should not be a team.
127 Problem If A is to be moved as one of the book keepers, which of the following cannot be a possible working unit? a. ABDEH b. ABDGH c. ABEFH d. ABEGH
128 Problem If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
129 Problem If C is sent to the new office, which member of the staff cannot go with C? a. B b. D c. F d. G
130 Problem Under the guidelines developed, which of the fol-lowing must go to the new office? a. B b. D c. E d. G
131 Problem If D goes to the new office which of the following is (are) true? I. C cannot go II. A cannot go III. H must also go a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III only
Directions (132-135):Use the information given below and answer the questions.After months of talent searching for an administra-tive assistant to the president of the college, the fieldof applicants has been narrow down to five (A, B, C, D and E). It was announced that the finalist would bechosen after a series of all-day group personal inter-views. The examining committee agreed upon thefol-lowing procedure:I. The interviews will be held once a week.II. No more than 3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session.III. Each candidate will appear at least one.IV. If it becomes necessary to call applications for additional interviews, no more than one such applicant should be asked to appear the next week.V. Because of a detail in the written applications, it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.VI. Because of travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.
132 Problem At the first interview, the following candidate ap-pear: A, B and D. Which of the following combina-tions can be called for the interview to be held the next week? a. BCD b. CDE c. ABE d. ABC
133 Problem Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in two successive weeks? a. ABC; BDE b. ABD; ABE c. ADE; ABC d. BDE; ACD
134 Problem If A, B and D appear at the interview and D is called for an additional interview the following week, which two candidates may be asked to appear with D? I. A II. B III. C IV. E a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. III and IV only
135 Problem Which of the following correctly states the proce-dure followed by the search committee? I. After the second interview, all applicants have appeared at least once. II. The committee sees at least one applicant a second time III. If a third session is held it is possible for all ap- plicants to appear at least twice. a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. III only
Directions (136-138):Study the information given below to answer the questions. A certain city is served by sixsubway lines, des-ignated by the letters A, B and C and the number 1, 2 and 3.• When it snows, morning service on the B line is delayed.• When it rains or snows, service on lines A, 2 and 3 lines is delayed both morning andafter-noon.• When the temperature drops below 30° F, af-ternoon service is cancelled on either theA line or the 3 line, but not both.• When the temperature rises above 90° F, after-noon service is cancelled on either the Cline or the 3 line, but not both.• When service on the A line is delayed or can-celled, service on the C line, which connectswith the A line, is delayed.• When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line, which connects with the 3lines, is delayed.
136 Problem On January 10, with the temperature at 15° F, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
137 Problem August 15, with the temperature at 97° F, it begins to rain at 1 p.m. What is the minimum num-ber of lines on which service will be affected? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
138 Problem On which of the following occasions would service on the greatest number of lines be disrupted? a. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45° F b. A snowy morning with the temperature at 45° F c. A rainy morning with the temperature at 45° F d. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 20° F
Directions (139-140):Use the statement given below and answer the questions.All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore, all athletes who do not a well-balanced diet are badath-letes.
139 Problem If assumptions of the arguments above are true, then which of the following statements must be true? a. No bad athlete wants to win. b. No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete. c. Every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete. d. All athletes who want to win are good athletes.
140 Problem Which of the following, if true, would refute the as-sumption of the argument above? a. Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete. b. Bob, the accountant, eats a well-balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete. c. All the players on the Burros baseball team eat well-balanced diet. d. Cindy, the basketball star, does not eat a well- balanced diet, but she is a good athlete.
Directions (141-144):Study the statements given below and answer the questions.•A is the father of two children, B and D, who are different sexes.•C is Bs spouse•E is the same sex as D•B and C have two children: F, who is the same sex as B, and G, who is the samesex as C.•E and mother H, who is married to L, is the sister of Ds mother M.•E and Es spouse, I, have two children J and K, who are the same sex as I.•No persons have married more than once and no children have been born outof wedlock. The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, toa direct descendant, or to more than one person at the same time areforbidden.
141 Problem F is a. Gs brother b. Gs sister c. Bs daughter d. Ds niece or nephew
142 Problem According to the rules, D can marry a. F only b. G only c. J only d. F, J or K
143 Problem If L and H divorced, H could marry: I. D only II. F III. D or G a. I only b. II only c. III only d. II or III, but not both
144 Problem If the generation of F and Ks parents and their sib-lings contains more females than males, which of the following must be true? a. There are more females than males in F and Ks generation b. J is male c. A is the same sex as D d. K and G are the same sex
Directions (145-146):Examine the route diagram given below to answer the questions.
145 Problem Which is the most crowded junction, assuming that each arrow denotes equal traffic? a. U b. X c. Y d. Z
146 Problem What is the maximum number of bus routes pos-sible from X to Y so that the bus does not come to one junction more than once in a route? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9
Directions (147-150):These questions are independent of each other.
147 Problem In a war between Agreji Pura and Firangi Land, fought for 20 days, the number of people died on any given day is twice that of the number died on the previous day (except on the first day). If a total of 1024000 people died on the last day of this war, the number of people died on 10th day of the war is approximately: a. 512000 b. 1000 c. 19532 d. None of the above
148 Problem Two trains bound for New Delhi from Kanyakumari leave Kanyakumari station within an interval of 30 minutes. For the first train there are 6 stops while for the second train there are only 5 stops. At each stop, the trains will stop for 15 minutes. Which of the following statements should be necessarily true? a. During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will always be behind the first train. b. During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will always be behind first train if first train stops at all stations in which the second train stops c. During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will be ahead of the first train at some points, if second train does not stop at three sta-tions in which the first train stops. d. None of the above
149 Problem In an examination there are 90 questions. Each ques-tion carries 1 mark for the right answer, - 0.5 for the wrong answer and - 0.25 marks for the unanswered question. Ramesh had answered all questions and got the number of wrong questions as half of the number of right questions. James had answered only 80 questions but got marks equal to that of Ramesh. Then, a. Both James and Ramesh had same number of correct answers. b. James had more correct answers than Ramesh c. Ramesh had more correct answers than James d. Cannot be determined.
150 Problem A market survey shows that 40% consumers liked Cola drink of brand A, 25% consumers liked Cola drink of brand B" and 10% consumers liked both. What percent of consumers liked neither Cola A nor B? a. 35% b. 25% c. 45% d. 55%
151 Problem A person has two parents, four grand parents, eight great grand parents etc. Find the number of ances-tors which the person has in the 10th generation (assume that there are no inter-marriages). a. 102 b. 1024 c. 2054 d. 10208
152 Problem A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visi-tors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is: a. 285 b. 276 c. 250 d. 280
153 Problem In climbing around pole 15 m high a monkey climbs 5 m and slips 3 in alternate minutes. To get to the top of the pole, the monkey would take __________________ min-utes. a. 10 b. 7 c. 15 d. 11
154 Problem Parvati has more points than Nishant. Bulbul has fewer points than Lai la. Nishant and Sam have the same number of points. Sam has more points than Bulbul. If the above is true, which of the following must also be true? a. Lai la has more points than Parvati b. Nishant has fewer points than Laila c. Parvati has more points than Bulbul d. Nishan has fewer points than Bulbul
155 Problem Two mail sorters, X and Y, are working at constant rates. X can sort I letters in 60 minutes, while Y can sort I letters in 30 minutes. How many minutes will it take them to sort I letters working together but independently? a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 45
156 Problem Spokesman for a chemical company to residents of a nearby town: "We have conducted tests and have found no evidence that the fumes leaking from our waste disposal site are harmful to humans. There is no reason to be alarmed much less to begin evacu-ating people from their homes." Which of the following would be the least relevant question for the head of the residents committee to direct to the chemical company spokesman? a. What steps are being taken to correct the situa-tion? b. Are further tests being conducted? c. How much will it cost you to stop the leaks? d. Do the fumes have an adverse effect on plants or animals?
157 Problem Typically; the entrepreneur is seen as an individual who owns and operates a small business. But, sim-ply to own and operate a small business or even a big business does not make someone an entrepre-neur. If this person is a true entrepreneur, then new products are being created, new ways of providing services are being implemented. Which of the following conclusion can best be drawn from the above passage? a. Someone who develops an enterprise may be considered an entrepreneur. b. Entrepreneurs do not own and operate small business. c. Entrepreneurs are the main actors in economic growth. d. Entrepreneurs are inventors.
158 Problem The burning of coal, oil, and other combustible en-ergy sources produce carbon dioxide, a natural con-stituent of the atmosphere. Elevated levels of car-bon dioxide are thought to be responsible for half the greenhouse effect. Enough carbon dioxide has been sent into the atmosphere already to cause a significant temperature increase. Growth in indus-trial production must be slowed, or production pro-cesses must be changed. Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken the strength of the above conclusion? a. Carbon dioxide is bad for health. b. Most carbon dioxide is emitted by automobiles. c. Industry is switching over to synthetic liquid fuel extracted from coal. d. A shift to other energy sources would be too costly.
159 Problem Monopoly is characterized by an absence of or de-cline in competition. The ABC Company realizes that its operations are in competitive industries. Which of the following conclusions may be inferred from the above? a. ABCs market is not monopolistic b. The ABC Company has no domestic competi-tors c. The ABC Company is publicly owned. d. The ABC Company is in a service industry.
160 Problem In a world of many trading countries, the trade be-tween two countries need not be balanced for the trade of each to be in global balance. Differing de-mands and productive capabilities among countries will cause a specific country to have trade deficits with some countries and surpluses with other coun-tries. Which of the following conclusions best summarises the passage above? a. A countrys trade will always be in balance even though it runs a deficit with a single country. b. A countrys trade deficits and surpluses with other countries always balance out. c. A countrys global trade balance is a sign of strength or weakness. d. A countrys global trade balance is determined by relative demand and productive capabilities
161 Problem In July 23,2003, Indias first matrimonial service on mobile phone was launched by the consortium of: a. BPL Mobile and Escotel b. Escotel and RPG Cellular c. Escotel, BPL Mobile and Spice Cellular. d. BPL Mobile, Escotel, RPG Cellular and Spice
162 Problem When was the human genome map unveiled? a. February 2001 b. February 2002 c. January 2001 d. None of these
163 Problem When were the Bharat Ratna and other national awards introduced? a. 1950 b. 1947 c. 1954 d. 1960
164 Problem "The Gram Sabha was the foundation on which the three tiered Panchayati Raj System rests and from which they derive their strength and legitimacy." Against this background, which was declared as the Year of Gram Sabha? a. 1998-1999 b. 1999-2000 c. 2000-2001 d. 2001-2002
165 Problem Which one of the following is the indigenously de-veloped pilotless target aircraft? a. Hansa b. Akash c. Lakshya d. None of these
166 Problem The authority signing on a "One-Rupee Note" is a. Governor b. Secretary, Ministry of Finance c. RBI Chief d. Chief Minister
167 Problem IRDA stands for a. Insurance Regulatory & Development Author-ity b. Indian Rural Development Agency c. Institute for Rural Development Area d. Insurance Research and Development Agency.
168 Problem Eight Sixth Constitutional Amendment made free and compulsory education for all between________ a fundamental right. a. 10 and 20 years b. 5 and 20 years c. 6 and 14 years d. 10 and 14 years
169 Problem Which popular indoor game was originally called Lexico. a. Carom b. Scrabble c. Badminton d. Table-Tennis
170 Problem Mobile Banking-an application through which Re-liance India mobile subscribers can view their bank account balance, get mini-statements, fixed deposit details, request for Cheque book, make stop Cheque requests and bill payments from their handsets any time and from anywhere. Reliance has joined hands with __________ for the Mobile Banking Application. a. ICICI b. SBI c. Citibank d. HDFC Bank
171 Problem SEBI has introduced "rolling settlement" for selected shares. What does this mean? a. All shares have to be paid on the day of pur-chase. b. Purchasers have to make advance payment for the shares. c. Purchase can be set off against sales. d. Payment has to be settled at the end of fifth day.
172 Problem Which two companies have formed a research and collaboration alliance to develop patented drugs? a. Ranbaxy and Glaxo Smithkline b. Ranbaxy and Penacea Biotech c. Nicholas Piramal and Ranbaxy d. None of these
173 Problem Hollywood actress Karan Khmer has won the Best Actress Award at the 56th Locarno International Film Festival in August 2003 for her role in Khams Pacing. The festival was held in a. Paris b. Tokyo c. Switzerland d. Singapore
174 Problem An Arjuna Award winner Anju Bobby George has become the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the world Athletics Championship held in Paris. She has won bronze medal in a. High Jump b. Shooting c. Long Jump d. Gymnastics
175 Problem Oberon, Titania, Arial, Umbrial and Miranda are the five chief satellites of which planet? a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Uranus d. Mars
176 Problem The full form of TRAI is: a. Transport Regulatory Authority of India b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India c. Telecom Regulatory Agency of India d. Transport Regulatory Agency of India
177 Problem The first of the six 250 m w units of the 1500 mw nathpa jhakari hydel power project has been launched in October 2003 in a. Madhya Pradesh b. Haryana c. Himachal Pradesh d. Kerala
178 Problem Excise Duty on a commodity is payable with refer-ence to its a. production b. production and sale c. production and transportation d. production, transportation and sale
179 Problem Where is SAARC secretariat situated? a. Islamabad b. Colombo c. Kathmandu d. New Delhi
180 Problem Who received the Wisden Award for the "Indian Cricketer of the 20th Century? a. Sachin Tenclulkar b. Kapil Dev c. Sunil Gavaskar d. Ajit Wadekar
181 Problem The TC chip used in computers is made of a. Chromium b. Iron-Oxide. c. Silica d. Silicon
182 Problem The book "The Kargil Conflict 1999 — Separating Fact from Fiction" is written by: a. Dr. Shireen Mazari b. Khuswant Singh c. Nawaz Sharif d. None of these
183 Problem China becomes the third country after Russia and the US to send a man into orbit in their own space vehicle. The chosen "taikonaut" is: a. Niel Armstrong b. Yang Li Wei c. Ho Chi Minh d. Ho Li Wei
184 Problem India won the sixth mens Asia Cup Hockey tourna-ment held in September, 2003 in Kuala Lumpur by beating: a. Korea b. Pakistan c. Japan d. China
185 Problem Indias exclusive communication satellite___________ was launched from the spaceport of Kourou in French Guyana on 28th September 2003. a. INSAT-3E b. INSAT-2DT c. INSAT-3D d. INSAT-3D
186 Problem Afro-Asian Games from 24 October, 2003 to 1 No-vember, 2003 were held at a. New Delhi b. Kolkata c. Hyderabad d. Chennai
187 Problem According to "India Vision 2020" if India has to at-tain the goal of total employment by the year 2020, it should work towards generating scope for jobs per year. a. 1 million b. 2 million c. 5 million d. 10 million
188 Problem Which among the following foreign banks is complet-ing 150 years of its establishment this year? a. HSBC b. Bank of Tokyo c. Bank of America d. None of these
189 Problem Which one of the following provides fixed line tele-phone services with numbers starting with 2? a. Reliance Infocom b. Tato Infocom c. BSNL d. Hutch
190 Problem In which State is Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary located? a. Maharashtra b. Orissa c. Gujarat d. Rajasthan
191 Problem The punch line used by HUTCH is a. "The name inspires trust" b. "Improving the quality of life" c. "Wherever you go our network follows" d. "Express yourself
192 Problem Which country has banned the word E-mail from all government publications and websites and re-placed it by "Courier"? a. England b. USA c. Italy d. France
193 Problem Because you deserve to know" is the punch line used by a. The Times of India b. The Hindu c. Indian Express d. Hindustan Times
194 Problem Petroleum prices, in the world are determined by a. IMF b. IBRD c. OPEC d. None of these
195 Problem On 29 October 2003, the fourth flight test of super-sonic antiship cruise missile was conducted. The name of the missile is a. Brahmos b. Agni c. Naag d. Trishul
196 Problem The fifth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation (WTO) was held from 10 to 14 September 2003 at: a. Tokyo b. Cancun c. New Delhi d. Geneva
197 Problem Saatrik Agarwal, a 14-year-old boy has been cho-sen as a "Student Astronaut" for NASAs Mars exploration. The boy belongs to: a. Delhi b. Mumbai c. Kolkata d. Chennai
198 Problem The capital of Lakshadweep is: a. Port Blaif b. Silvassa c. Daman d. Kavaratti
199 Problem Which of the following colours are mixed to bring out the several colours seen on TV? a. Red, Yellow, Blue b. Red, Yellow, Green c. Red, Green, Blue d. Yellow, Green, Blue
200 Problem Which of the following: agencies does not finance local bodies for infrastructural development? a. LIC b. HUDCO c. CRISIL d. All the above