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SET Botany (Kerala)
Previous Question Papers
Videos
 Notes
MCQs
Previous Question Papers
www.biologyexa
ms4u.co
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ww.biolo...
10036 120 MINUTES
1. In Wheat and rice
A) Pericarp is fused with seed coat
B) Fruits are multi seeded
C) Perisperm is fuse...
11. Glycolysis and TCA Cycle operate in
A) Photorespiration B) β-oxidation
C) α-oxidation D) Dark respiration
12. ‘Senna’ ...
23. The production of fruits without fertilization is
A) Parthenogenesis B) Apomixis
C) Parthenocarpy D) Pseudocarpy
24. T...
35. FASTA program was first described by
A) Adach & Hasegawa B) Lipman & Pearson
C) Kyte and Dolittle D) Fitch & Margolias...
45. Chlorella will fulfill the need of all vitamins except
A) Ascorbic acid B) Biotin
C) Plamitic acid D) Pathonic acid
46...
56. Calyptrogen is needed in monocots to
A) Produce root cap B) Protect root tip
C) Abosorb water D) None of the above
57....
67. Which of the following is the important reactive group of glutathione in its role as
antioxidant
A) Serine B) Sulf hyd...
78. Which is the most short -lived RNA?
A) sRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA
79. The DNA sequence cut by Eco RI is
A) GCAT /GCA...
90. Quanta required for assimilation of one molecule of CO2/O2 liberation in
photosynthesis are
A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4
91. Co...
100. Which bacteria causes food poisoning
A) Escherichia B) Penicillium
C) Salmonella D) Candida
101. Which of the followi...
111. The unwinding of the double helix of DNA prior to replication is carried out by
A) Topoisomerase B) Helicase
C) Restr...
91103 120 MINUTES
1. Antimicrobial proteins that inhibit the synthesis of outer membrane proteins of
gram negative bacteri...
  2
12. Small non-antigenic molecules in an immunogen
A) Zymogens B) Haptens
C) Co-factors D) Aptamer
13. Bacterial cells ...
  3
23. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
A) Piricularia oryzae B) Colletotrichum falcatum
C) Xanthomaonas Oryzae D) Phyto...
  4
33. The principles of Numerical taxonomy were developed by
A) Bentham and Hooker B) Engler and Prantl
C) Sneath and So...
  5
43. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron
Microscope?
A) Electrons are negatively char...
  6
52. ------is an azodye
A) Safranin B) Haematoxylin
C) Aniline blue D) Orange G
53. Carnoy’s solution is a mixture of
A...
  7
62. Organelles involved in photorespiration are
A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes
B) Mitochondria, chloropla...
  8
72. The study of an organism in relation to its environment
A) Autecology B) Palynology
C) Pedology D) Gerantology
73....
  9
83. Any one of a group of restriction enzymes that recognizes the same nucleotide
sequences
A) Isozyme B) Ribozyme
C) ...
  10
92. The sry gene is located on the
A) X-chromosome B) Y-chromosome
C) Autosome D) Nucleosome
93. Chiasma is a greek w...
  11
103. Kappa particles are present in
A) Plastids B) Plasmids
C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm
104. Phage ØX-174 has
A) Dou...
  12
113. The average fleece weight in a large band of sheep together with its standard
deviation was calculated to be 10....
12903 120 MINUTES
1. The plant part from which colchicine is isolated
A) Fruit &seeds B) Stem& leaf
C) Seeds & corms D) Fr...
2
11. The movement of solutes in the phloem is mainly
A) Lateral B) Acropetal
C) Basipetal D) Centripetal
12. The first st...
3
21. Q10 refers to
A) Quantum recharge
B) Respiratory coefficient
C) A temperature coefficient
D) Photosynthetic active r...
4
31. Katte disease of cardamom is caused due to
A) Colletotrichum elettariae B) Phytophthora medii
C) Cardamom mosaic vir...
5
41. What type of replication require a break in the nucleotide strand to get started
A) Theta replication B) Rolling cyc...
6
49. Which gene is inserted to the target gene to create knockout mice?
A) ‘tk’ gene B) ‘neo’ gene
C) Both A & B D) Neith...
7
58. Total length of life cycle in yeast
A) 90 minutes B) 1 hour C) 12 hours D) 24 hours
59. P elements are transposable ...
8
69. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele?
A) Marsillea B) Lycopodium
C) Pteris D) Dryopteris
70. The foss...
9
80. Ozone in the atmosphere absorbs:
A) All UV-C B) All UV-C and most of UV-B
C) All UV-A and UV-B D) All UV-A and UV-C
...
10
91. Predominant ethnic group in Thiruvananthapuram district is:
A) Kani B) Malavedan
C) Malapandaram D) Cholanaikan
92....
11
101. Rhinoviruses are the causative organism for
A) Tuberculosis B) Whooping cough
C) Diphtheria D) Common cold
102. Ba...
12
111. Hypanthodium is the characteristic of
A) Amorphophallus B) Acrocephalus
C) Ficus D) Euphorbia
112. A single seeded...
14203 120 MINUTES
1. Which of the following is not a domain in the three domain classification?
A) Eukarya B) Bacteria
C) ...
2
11. In Lichens following special vegetative structure is formed as respiratory organs
A) Soredia B) Isdia
C) Cyphellae D...
3
18. The conducting tissues do not consists Xylem and Phloem tissues in
A) Pinus B) Cycas
C) Brassica D) Funaria
19. The ...
4
27. In the plant name Capparislasiantha R.Br..ex.DC. The author citation indicated
that
A) Robert Brown published the na...
5
37. Which among the following system is not a phylogenetic system of classification?
A) Charles Bessey B) Robert Thorne
...
6
47. Generally the tribal people are non- vegetarians except
A) Todas B) Kora
C) Paniyan D) Kurichiyar
48. The fibers of ...
7
56. “Human cells contain DNA sequences that match the sequences found in bacterial
16SrDNA.” What is your response to th...
8
64. The anticodon loop of atRNA typically consists of
A) 3 codons B) 6 codons
C) 7 codons D) 5 codons
65. Transcription ...
9
72. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and release
electron is
A) Carbon B) Iron
C) Zinc D) ...
10
80. A community dominated by shrubs and bushes is called
A) Steppe B) Prairie
C) Scrub D) Pampas
81. Population of indi...
11
88. Which of the following best supports the endosymbiotic theory of the
evolutionary origin of mitochondria?
A) Mitoch...
12
97. During meiosis, crossing over between two non-sister chromatids occurs at
A) Leptotene B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene D) ...
13
107. The terminator codons are
A) UAA, UAG, UGA B) UUU, UUC, UUG
C) UUA, UGG, UGA D) UGC, UGG, UAG
108. A base change i...
14
116. The tool used for pairwise analysis of DNA sequences
A) ClustalW B) PROBCONS
C) MUSCLE D) BLAST
117. Which of the ...
13603 120 MINUTES
1. Mycoplasma are resistant to common antibiotics like penicillin because of
A) Sterols in the membrane
...
2
9. The mechanism that best describes the opening of stomata in plants?
A) Influx of K+ into the guard cells followed by ...
3
18. Infectious single stranded RNA in plants that are not associated with any protein
is known as
A) Viruses B) Viroids
...
4
28. Strip of parenchyma cells, polygonal or radially elongated, lying in between
vascular bundle is known as
A) Cambium ...
5
37. The antibody that binds to mast cells, promote the release of histamine and other
agents that produce allergic sympt...
6
47. Melting of DNA molecule leads to
A) Decrease in optical density B) Increase in optical density
C) No change in optic...
7
58. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disease that causes a
variety of phenotypic changes in skin ...
8
67. The first step of proof reading during protein synthesis is carried out by?
A) Ribosomes B) aminoacyl t-RNA syntheta...
9
77. The gymnosperm wood which is densely packed with reduced pith and cortex is
known as
A) Pycnoxylic B) Monoxylic
C) H...
10
86. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Root apical meristem is the meristem of synthesis of cytokinin
B) Methionin...
11
96. The genome of a typical bacterium contains about 5 × 106
base pairs and can be
replicated in about 41 minutes. The ...
12
103. Axenic culture is best defined as
A) Cell culture B) Organ culture
C) Cell culture of microbes D) Cell culture fre...
13
113. One of the kinase enzymes in Glycolytic pathway is reversible
A) Hexokinase B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Pyruvate kin...
A
16103 120 MINUTES
1. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is
A) TATATA B) TATAAT
C) TTAATT D) TATTAT
2. The topological...
2
11. In which of the following families is pseudo embryo sac present?
A) Podostemaceae B) Amaranthaceae
C) Malvaceae D) P...
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala)  2010- 2017
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SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala) 2010- 2017

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SET Botany Question paper with answer key 2010-2017

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SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala) 2010- 2017

  1. 1. SET Botany (Kerala) Previous Question Papers Videos  Notes MCQs Previous Question Papers www.biologyexa ms4u.co m ww.biologyexams4u.co
  2. 2. 10036 120 MINUTES 1. In Wheat and rice A) Pericarp is fused with seed coat B) Fruits are multi seeded C) Perisperm is fused with seed coat D) Seed coat and pericarp are separate 2. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is A) Polyploid B) Haploid C) Triploid D) Diploid 3. ‘Gamma garden’ is used for A) Growing plantlets produced by tissue culture B) Eradicating pathogen from infected plants C) Growing genetically engineered plants on trial basis D) Mutation breeding for crop improvement. 4. Which one of the following is the botanical name of oil palm? A) Olea europea B) Carthamus tinctorius C) Elaeis guineensis D) Cocos nucifera 5. The solute most abundant in phloem sap is A) Amino Acids B) Sugar C) Hormones D) Minerals 6. The metal component of Nitrogenase enzyme is A) Manganese B) Molybdenum C) Copper D) Zinc 7. The random changes in gene frequency occurring by chance and the effect of which is large in small populations is called A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Pasteur effect C) Genetic drift D) Haldane effect 8. In mosses, primary protonema is A) Haploid and gametophytic B) Diploid and sporophytic C) Haploid and sporophytic D) Diploid and gametophytic 9. “Red rot” of sugarcane is caused by A) Fusarium B) Alternaria C) Ustilago D) Colletorichum 10. RNA molecules that possess catalytic activity are known as A) Ribozymes B) Ribosomes C) Polyribosomes D) Polysomes www.biologyexams4u.com
  3. 3. 11. Glycolysis and TCA Cycle operate in A) Photorespiration B) β-oxidation C) α-oxidation D) Dark respiration 12. ‘Senna’ is obtained from the plant A) Cassia fistula B) Cassia alata C) Cassia angustifolia D) Cassia tora 13. `Iris moss' is A) Chondrus B) Hydrodictyon C) Funaria D) Sphagnum 14. One of the following trees is endemic to India A) Tectona grandis B) Artocarpus integrifolia C) Ficus religiosa D) Azadirachta indica 15. Late blight of potato is caused by A) Alternaria solani B) Phytophthora infestans C) Pseudomonas solanacearum D) Albugo bliti 16. The only plant hormone that is not translocated from the cells producing it A) Auxin B) Ethylene C) Cytokinin D) Gibberellic acid 17. Nepenthes thaliana, a rare endangered pitcher plant occurs in India in A) Madhya Pradesh B) Meghalaya C) Himachal Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh 18. One chambered dry dehiscent fruit that dehisces along both the sutures is A) Siliqua B) Follicle C) Capsule D) Legume 19. The roots of plant yielding Aswagandha which are used in the treatment of rheumatism, inflammation and skin lesion is A) Curcuma amada B) Rauwolfia serpentina C) Cinchona officinalis D) Withania somnifera 20. The seven volumes of the “Flora of British India “was compiled by A) William Hooker B) J. D. Hooker C) Bentham D) Gamble 21. The use of gamma rays from a cobalt source for control of microorganisms in food A) Radiation B) Radappertization C) Radurzation D) Ionization 22. Botanical name of finger millet is A) Poinsettum americanum B) Paspalum scorbiculatum C) Setaria italica D) Eleucine coracana 2 www.biologyexams4u.com
  4. 4. 23. The production of fruits without fertilization is A) Parthenogenesis B) Apomixis C) Parthenocarpy D) Pseudocarpy 24. The family Lamiaceae is characterized by the inflorescence A) Scorpiod cyme B) Helicoid cyme C) Verticellaster D) Cyathium 25. Which of the following trait shows mendelian inheritance as a dominant gene in man A) Presence of dimples B) Colour blindness C) Both D) None 26. Elators and pseudoelators in the capsules of bryophyte are meant for A) Nutrient absorption B) Water conduction C) Spore dispersal D) Mechanical support 27. In Smilax tendrils are A) Modified stipules B) Modified leaf C) Modified petiole D) Modified leaflet 28. Genes with intervening sequences A) Introns B) Split genes C) Exons D) Pseudo genes 29. A research technique to modify a gene in a predetermined way A) Site directed mutagensis B) Cloning C) rDNA technique D) Western blotting 30. In eukaryotes the ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by A) Reverse transcriptase B) RNA dependent RNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase 1 D) RNA polymerase 2 31. Floral formula of Hibicus rosasinensis is A) O ♀ Epi K6-8 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 B) O ♀ Epi(5) K(5)C5A(∞)G(5-∞) C) O ♀ Epi 3 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 D) O ♀ Epi K3 K(5)C3A(∞)G∞ 32. Vegetative propagating part of Sugarcane is called A) Suckers B) Setts C) Scion D) All of the above 33. Antibody diversity is generated by A) Protein splicing B) Somatic recombination C) Mutation D) Allelic exclusion 34. Example of an aggregate fruit A) Pine apple B) Custard apple C) Apple D) Orange 3 www.biologyexams4u.com
  5. 5. 35. FASTA program was first described by A) Adach & Hasegawa B) Lipman & Pearson C) Kyte and Dolittle D) Fitch & Margoliash 36. An important feature of the genetic code which allows the expression of a protein in any host is its A) Degeneracy B) Universality C) Redundancy D) Triplet nature. 37. Muller’s CIB method was used to detect A) Sex linked mutation B) Sex linked lethal mutations C) Autosomal dominant mutation D) Autosomal recessive mutation 38. Gynostegium relates to A) Fusion of stamens with gynoecium B) Fusion of stamens with stigmatic disc C) Fusion of gynoecium with anther D) Fusion of gynoecium with filaments 39. Venketraman Ramakrishnan has got Nobel Prize for the detailed mapping of A) Small subunit of ribosome from Thermos thermophilus. B) Large ribosomal subunit of the ribosome of Geobacillus tearothermophilus. C) Large ribosomal subunit of Pyrococcus abyssi. D) Small subunit of ribosome of Pyrodictium occultum. 40. The transgenic plant which is developed by anit-sense RNA technology. A) Golden rice B) Bt cotton C) Flavr Savr tomato D) Both A and C 41. The non motile male spermatia are carried to the female by means of water currents in A) Fucus B) Polysiphonia C) Chara D) Vaucheria 42. X-ray scattering from an atom depends on the number of A) Electrons B) Protons C) Neutrons D) All of these 43. The most famous X-helix polypeptide secondary structure is A) Left handed B) Circular C) Right handed D) Branched 44. RNA – DNA hybrid always adopt A form because of A) Steric hindrance of – OH group in RNA B) Steric hindrance of – OH group in DNA C) Coiling of the molecule D) Presence of Uracil base in RNA 4 www.biologyexams4u.com
  6. 6. 45. Chlorella will fulfill the need of all vitamins except A) Ascorbic acid B) Biotin C) Plamitic acid D) Pathonic acid 46. Which of the experiment is suitable to detect linkage? A) aaBB x aaBB B) AaBb x aabb C) AABB x aabb D) AAbb x AaBB 47. According to Rodley & Sasi Sekharan model, DNA is A) Right handed B) Left handed C) Alternating right and left handed helix D) None of these. 48. Which plant is efficient converter of solar energy? A) Wheat B) Sugarcane C) Rice D) Banana 49. The plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy A) Gibberellins B) Cytokinins C) Auxins D) Ethylene 50. Quaternary structure of protein describes. A) Conformational organization B) Functional organization C) Amino acid sequence D) None of these. 51. Who among the following is known as father of biostatistics A) Francis Galton B) Adolphe Queste C) Neyman D) William Gosset 52. Which one is used for comparison between two or more variables A) Pie chart B) Bar diagram C) Line diagram D) All of these 53. The feeding of avidin may result in a deficiency of A) Riboflavin B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin A D) Biotin 54. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is A) Oleic acid B) Stearic acid C) Linoleic acid D) Palmitic acid 55. Genomic imprinting is A) Expression of genes depend on its paternal or maternal inheritance B) Expression of genes linked with X chromosomes C) Expression of genes linked with Y chromosomes D) Expression of extrachromosomal genes 5 www.biologyexams4u.com
  7. 7. 56. Calyptrogen is needed in monocots to A) Produce root cap B) Protect root tip C) Abosorb water D) None of the above 57. Riboswitches are A) Short RNA sequences that change their conformation on binding with small molecules B) Short RNA sequences that interact with DNA C) Short RNA molecules that bind with proteins D) Short RNA sequences degrade from mRNA 58. The O2 dissociation course of hemoglobin is shifted to right by A) Decreased CO2 tension B) Increased pH C) Increased CO2 tension D) Increased N2 tension 59. How many genetically different gametes can be made from an individual of genotype of AaBbccDDEe A) 8 B) 32 C) 10 D) 5 60. What component of the bacterial cell wall are attacked by pencillins? A) Peptidoglycan B) Teichoic acid C) Teichuronic acid D) Lipopolysaccharide 61. Daughter of a colour blind father and normal mother marries a colour blind person. How the trait will express among their children? A) 50 % sons and 50 % daughters B) All sons only C) All daughters only D) All sons and Daughters 62. How many triplet codons can be made from four nucleotides A, U, G and C containing no uracils? A) 27 B) 64 C) 37 D) 6 63. Which of the following is not a method of genetic recombination in bacteria? A) Translocation B) Transformation C) Conjugation D) Transduction 64. Albinism is due to lack of A) Tyrosinase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase C) Kynureninase D) Homogentisicase 65. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar? A) Verbascose B) Raffinose C) Stachyose D) Threose 66. In men, the lipoprotein fraction with highest cholesterol contents is A) α- lipopreotein B) β- lipoprotein C) Chylomicrons D) Prealbumin 6 www.biologyexams4u.com
  8. 8. 67. Which of the following is the important reactive group of glutathione in its role as antioxidant A) Serine B) Sulf hydryl C) Acetyl CoA D) Carboxyl 68. Bell-shaped normal distribution curve inheritance is an example of A) Complementary genes B) Qualitative inheritance C) Polygenic traits D) Pleiotropy 69. The distance between bacterial genes, as determined from interrupted conjugation experiments are measured in units of A) Recombination B) Micrometer C) Minutes D) Percentage of genophgore 70. The first attempt to show linkage in plants was carried out in A) Oenothera lamarckiana B) Pisum sativum C) Lathyrus odoratus D) Zea mays 71. In prenatal diagnosis, the polymorphism used to determine genetic disorders is A) SNPs B) RFLPs C) RAPDs D) SCARs 72. A Drug resistance marker used for selection of recombinants is A) NPT II B) SSP C) SSR D) AFLP 73. Colchicine induces polyploidy by A) Inhibiting cell division B) Promoting cell division C) Inhibiting spindle formation D) Doubling the Chromosome size 74. Which type DNA is found in M13 phages? A) Single stranded and circular B) Single stranded and linear C) Double stranded and linear D) Double stranded and circular 75. The regions of gene which do not form part of functional mRNA are called A) Transposons B) Cistrons C) Introns D) Exons 76. Overlapping genes A) Are characteristics to eukaryotes B) Code for over lapping amino acid sequences in Protein C) Are split genes D) Means that a gene can code for more than one polypeptide 77. Which one of the following carries dwarf gene with high protein and lysine percentage in wheat. A) Lerma safed B) Kalyan C) Sharbati sonara D) Sonalika 7 www.biologyexams4u.com
  9. 9. 78. Which is the most short -lived RNA? A) sRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA 79. The DNA sequence cut by Eco RI is A) GCAT /GCAT B) GAATTC/GAATTC C) GAATTC/CTTAAG D) GAATTG/CTTTAAC 80. In Z-DNA, helix pitch is A) 60 A0 B) 34 A0 C) 20 A0 D) 45A0 81. Triticale has been evolved by hybridization between A) Rice and Maize B) Wheat and rice C) Wheat and rye D) Ragi and Maize 82. During translation phase of protein synthesis, process of initiation, elongation and termination involve A) Protein factors and AMP B) Protein factors and CAMP C) Protein factors and GTP D) Glycoxylation. 83. Shuffling of gene from one location to another is possible. Such genes are called A) Mutons B) Recons C) Exons D) Transposons 84. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello got Nobel Prize in Medicine for A) PCR B) Protein Sequencing C) RNA interference D) GFP 85. The holandric genes are located on A) Polytene B) Y- chromosome C) X- Chromosome D) Mitochondria 86. Mutagenic agents causing frame shift mutation are A) 2-Amino purine B) EMS C) Bromouracil D) Acridine dye 87. Kornberg with Ochoa received Nobel Price for the work of A) Mechanism of biological synthesis of DNA and RNA B) Co linearity hypothesis C) Central Dogma D) Artificial Synthesis of protein 88. The Hybrid variety cotton obtained by crossing two different strains of Gossypium hirsutum is A) Godhavari B) Varalaxmi C) Savitri D) Jayalaxmi 89. BSI is located at A) Lucknow B) Mysore C) Kolkatta D) Kerala 8 www.biologyexams4u.com
  10. 10. 90. Quanta required for assimilation of one molecule of CO2/O2 liberation in photosynthesis are A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4 91. Continuous variations are attributed to meiosis through A) Polyploidy B) Crossing over C) Mutation D) All of these 92. Oligogenes are A) Quantitative genes B) Qualitative genes C) Holandrinc genes D) Epistatic genes 93. The common bread wheat is A) Allotetraploid B) Allohexaploid C) Auto teraploid D) Diploid 94. RNA Polymerase enzyme is A) Monocistronic only B) Polycistronic only C) Monocistronic & Polycistronic D) Not a protein 95. Which sub unit of ribosome is attached to ER? A) 50S B) 60S C) 30S D) 40S 96. Unidirectional replication takes place in A) Coliphage P2 B) Escherichia C) Pneumococcus D) Salmonella 97. Which phrase is not true about backcross breeding? A) It is a practice that has been used by plant breeders for decades B) Backcross breeding is repeated until the offspring has 99+% elite genes and the transgene C) Backcross breeding is a new technique developed for genetically engineered plants D) Backcross breeding is often used to reduce yield drag 98. Which of the following occurs in the sporangia of mosses? A) Spores germinate into protonemata B) Sperm cells are produced in rows just beneath the surface of the antheridiophore C) Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce spores D) The zygote develops into a multicellular embryo 99. Conservation hotspots are best described as A) Areas with large numbers of endemic species that are disappearing rapidly B) Areas where people are particularly active supporters of biological diversity C) Islands that are experiencing high rates of extinction D) Areas where native species are being replaced with introduced species 9 www.biologyexams4u.com
  11. 11. 100. Which bacteria causes food poisoning A) Escherichia B) Penicillium C) Salmonella D) Candida 101. Which of the following statements about Marchantia sporophytes is true? A) The capsule is attached directly to the foot without the development of a seta. B) An operculum forms on the apex of the mature capsule C) The sporophyte hangs down from the underside of the archegonium. D) None of the above 102. When a specific epithet exactly repeats the generic name it is known as A) Neotype B) Priority C) Taxa D) Tautonym 103. The seed known by the name ‘Chilgoza’, that is used as a dry fruit A) Zamia B) Pinus gerardiana C) Cedrus deodara D) Cycas racemosa 104. Quantitative PCR is A) Real time PCR B) RT PCR C) Inverse PCR D) Multiplex PCR 105. Percentage frequency distribution is represented by A) Frequency polygon B) Ogive representation C) Pie diagram D) Frequency table 106. Mode can be located graphically with the help of A) Line diagram B) Bar C) Histogram D) Pie diagram 107. The first artificial plant hybrid was made by A) Thomas Fairchild B) De Viries C) Borlaug D) M.S.Swaminathan 108. Somatic embryogenesis is: A) Germ line cells developing into embryos B) Non-germ line cells developing into embryos C) Embryos developing from zygotes D) Embryonic tissue becoming somatic 109. A CsCl gradient will separate DNA molecules by A) Absorption B) Resorption C) Density D) Adhesion 110. Klenow fragment without free nucleotides exhibits A) Exonuclease activity B) Endonuclease activity C) Nickase activity D) No activity 10 www.biologyexams4u.com
  12. 12. 111. The unwinding of the double helix of DNA prior to replication is carried out by A) Topoisomerase B) Helicase C) Restriction endoclease D) All of A, B and C 112. The non sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other in A) Leptotene B) Pachytene C) Zygotene D) Diplotene 113. Line Weaver – Burk plot helps to find out A) Rate of enzyme action B) Competitive inhibitor C) Substrate composition D) Group specificity 114. Amyloplastids are plastids which store A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Starch D) Ergastic substances 115. When lactose is present A) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned on B) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned off C) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned off D) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned on 116. Which one of the following trees yield gum A) Pinus B) Acacia C) Eucalyptus D) Phyllanthus 117. Which amino acid is precursor of ethylene production A) Alanine B) Threonine C) Methionine D) Serine 118. Jute is A) Corchorus capsularis B) Crotalaria juncea C) Ceiba pentadra D) Calamus rotundus 119. Rose wood belongs to the family A) Leguminosae B) Verbenaceae C) Liliaceae D) Cruciferae 120. Marginal placentation and monocarpellary pistil are found in A) Poaceae B) Asteraceae C) Fabaceae D) Liliaceae ................................ 11 www.biologyexams4u.com
  13. 13. 91103 120 MINUTES 1. Antimicrobial proteins that inhibit the synthesis of outer membrane proteins of gram negative bacteria A) Dystrophin B) Attacins C) Phytoanticipins D) Fungistatic 2. Which alga is known as sea lettuce? A) Fucus B) Caulerpa C) Ulva D) Padina 3. The peat moss belongs to the order A) Sphagnales B) Andreaeales C) Bryales D) Anthocerotales 4. Pyrenolichens fall under A) Discolichens B) Ascolichens C) Basidiolichens D) Deuterolichens 5. The most advanced parallel-banded stele in the Pterdophyta A) Haplostele B) Plectostele C) Actinostele D) Mixed protostele 6. Which among the following is a tree fern? A) Pteris B) Cyathea C) Adiantum D) Dryopteris 7. Resting spores are called A) Siderophore B) Statospore C) Planospore D) Phialospore 8. Planktons smaller than 20µm but larger than 2µm are called A) Nanoplanktons B) Picoplanktons C) Periphyton D) Macroplankton 9. The genus Rhizopus belongs to the family A) Mucoraceae B) Saccharomycetaceae C) Pilobolaceae D) Rhodomycetaceae 10. Amanita toxins are A) Ergotoxins B) Aflatoxins C) Mushroom toxins D) Esterogonic toxins 11. A substance that increases the potency of an immunogen A) Axoneme B) Adjuvant C) Aptamer D) Agameon www.biologyexams4u.com
  14. 14.   2 12. Small non-antigenic molecules in an immunogen A) Zymogens B) Haptens C) Co-factors D) Aptamer 13. Bacterial cells that lack chromosomes are called A) Microcells B) Minicells C) Maxicells D) Midicells 14. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus A) Phytoalexin B) Amphylotoxin C) Aflatoxin D) Dystrophin 15. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by A) Agaricus B) Penicillium C) Puccinia D) Rhizopus 16. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as A) Orange rust B) Black rust C) Yellow rust D) Green rust 17. Blast disease of rice is caused by A) Piricularia oryzae B) Pseudomonas oryzae C) Scleroticum oryzae D) Helminthosporium oryzae 18. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from A) Streptomyces griseus B) Streptomyces venezuele C) Streptomyces aureofaciens D) Streptomyces rimosus 19. The ’tumour inducing’ plasmids are present in A) Agrobacterium rhizogenes B) Agrobacterium tumifaciens C) Acetobacter aceti D) Azotobacter sp. 20. The infectious agent of ‘scrapie’ is A) Parvovirus B) Reovirus C) Prion D) Retrovirus 21. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called A) Spot B) Canker C) Scorch D) Die-back 22. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is A) Insect transmitted B) Soil transmitted C) Sap transmitted D) Root transmitted www.biologyexams4u.com
  15. 15.   3 23. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by A) Piricularia oryzae B) Colletotrichum falcatum C) Xanthomaonas Oryzae D) Phytophthora infestans 24. Level of taxonomic study concerned with the biological aspects of taxa, including intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary rates and trends A) Alpha taxonomy B) Beta taxonomy C) Gamma taxonomy D) Theta taxonomy 25. The term ‘Unitegmic’ refers to A) An ovule having a single integument B) A filament with a single anther C) A fruit with a single seed D) A style with a single stigma 26. Labellum in Orchidaceae comes to anterior side by the twisting of the ovary through 1800 . This process is called A) Adnation B) Articulation C) Resupination D) Attenuation 27. The Commelinaceae family is commonly known as the A) Spiderwort family B) Aster family C) Grass family D) Lilli family 28. Foeniculum vulgare belongs to the family A) Rutaceae B) Meliaceae C) Apiaceae D) Brassicaceae 29. When two or more authors publish a new species or propose a new name, their names are linked using the epithet? A) In B) ex C) et D) emend 30. Binomials with identical genus name and specific epithet are called A) Homonym B) Tautonym C) Basionym D) Synonym 31. A document containing a comprehensive account of a specific taxonomic group, generally a genus or family is A) Manual B) Flora C) Monograph D) Revision 32. Which among the following is considered a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ system of classification? A) Gymnosperms are placed between Monocotyledons and Dicotyledons B) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons C) Dicotyledons are placed before Monocotyledons D) Dicotyledons are placed after Monocotyledons www.biologyexams4u.com
  16. 16.   4 33. The principles of Numerical taxonomy were developed by A) Bentham and Hooker B) Engler and Prantl C) Sneath and Sokal D) Takhtajan and Cronquist 34. The botanical name for ‘All spice’ is A) Pimenta dioica B) Amaranthus cruentus C) Aloe vera D) Brassica campestris 35. What is the botanical name of ‘Jute’? A) Dalbergia sissoo B) Lagerstroemia speciosa C) Cedrus deodara D) Corchorus capsularis 36. The rubber obtained from Manihot glaziovii is called A) Para rubber B) Panama rubber C) Ceara rubber D) India rubber 37. Endosperm formation is suppressed in A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae C) Aristolochiaceae D) Boraginaceae 38. The major alkaloid in Hemlock, which was used for the execution of Socrates, is A) Sinigrin B) Strychnin C) Coniine D) Quinine 39. The term ‘ethnobotany’ was introduced by A) Powers B) Harshberger C) Gilmour D) Martin 40. Ethnobotanical records are stored in --------database A) PLANIMAL B) SEPASAL C) NAPRALERT D) EMBL 41. The total botanical knowledge held by any non-industrial community and which incorporates all utilitarian, ecological and cognitive aspects of both plant use and vegetation management is called A) ITK , Indigenous Technical Knowledge B) IAK, Indigenous Agricultural Knowledge C) TBK, Traditional Botanical Knowledge D) TEK, Traditional Ecological Knowledge 42. Which of the following scientists is credited with the invention of the electron microscope and awarded the Nobel Prize for the same? A) J.J. Thompson B) Louise de Broglie C) Otto van Borris D) Ernst Ruska www.biologyexams4u.com
  17. 17.   5 43. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron Microscope? A) Electrons are negatively charged B) Electrons have a wave nature C) Electrons have no mass D) Electrons have a poor penetrating power 44. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called A) Dextran B) Agarose C) Acrylamide D) Silica 45. Chromatography that involves the separation of isomers A) Counter current chromatography B) Chiral chromatography C) Paper chromatography D) Thin layer chromatography 46. The total volume of material, both solid and liquid in the column is known as A) Void volume B) Bed volume C) Elution volume D) Retension volume 47. Silica gel-G is used in A) Thin layer chromatography B) Column chromatography C) HPLC D) GLC 48. Labyrinthine cell wall enveloped by plasma membrane is characteristic of A) Sieve tubes B) Lenticels C) Transfer cells D) Guard cells 49. Ridged and furrowed xylem cylinder with phloem wedges is characteristic of secondary growth in the stem of A) Bignonia B) Serjania C) Dracaena D) Boerhaavia 50. Nanometer is 1/1000th of a A) Millimeter B) Centimeter C) Micrometer D) Picometer 51. Heavily cutinized leaves that show resistance to dessication under conditions of extreme drought A) Microsporophylls B) Megasporophylls C) Sclerophylls D) Podophylls www.biologyexams4u.com
  18. 18.   6 52. ------is an azodye A) Safranin B) Haematoxylin C) Aniline blue D) Orange G 53. Carnoy’s solution is a mixture of A) Aqueous chromic acid, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water B) Ethyl alcohol, Glacial acetic acid and commercial formalin C) Ethanol, Glacial acetic acid and Chloroform D) Aqueous alcohol, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water 54. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes A) Abzymes B) Allozymes C) Isozymes D) Zymogens 55. Vincristine and vinblastine are A) Phenolics B) Terpenoids C) Alkaloids D) Saponins 56. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a A) Furanose B) Pyranose C) Pentose D) None of the above 57. In a normal metabolic pathway substance Z is produced from X through the intermediate Y and involvement of two enzymes, A and B respectively. If both enzymes are functional, what would be the most possible consequence? A) Substance Z accumulates B) Substance X accumulates C) Enzyme A accumulates D) Enzyme B accumulates 58. A group of red or yellow compounds found only in the plants of order Caryophyllales A) Anthocyanins B) Xanthophylls C) Betacyanins D) Betalains 59. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress A) Proline B) Cysteine C) Methionine D) Histidine 60. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly called A) Hatch and Slack pathway B) Glycolate pathway C) Shikimic acid pathway D) EMP pathway 61. A plant capable of utilizing saline ground water A) Hylophyte B) Hylodad C) Halophreatophyte D) Hemerophyte www.biologyexams4u.com
  19. 19.   7 62. Organelles involved in photorespiration are A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes B) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes C) Mitochondria, nucleus and ribosomes D) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and glyoxisomes 63. A system of growing plants with their roots supplied with moisture in the air A) Hydroponics B) Aeroponics C) Bionomics D) Geonomics 64. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Cobalt D) Nitrogen 65. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of A) Nitrogen B) Sodium C) Zinc D) Manganese 66. Phytochrome is a ------chromoprotein A) Red/Orange B) Blue/Yellow-green C) Purple/Black D) Brown/Yellow 67. Small particles present on the inner mitochondrial membrane are called A) Ergosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Elementary particles D) Core particles 68. Branch of soil science which deals with the survey, genesis and classification of soils for land use-planning A) Serology B) Rheology C) Pedology D) Kymatology 69. Forests that occur in eastern and western Himalayas and in the Nilgiri hills at an altitude of 1,600 – 3,500m are A) Tropical evergreen or rain forests B) Temperate evergreen or Coniferous forests C) Tropical deciduous or monsoon forests D) Tropical Thorn forests 70. An interspecific interaction in which one species population is inhibited typically by toxins produced by the other which remains unaffected A) Amensalism B) Mutualism C) Altruism D) Tropism 71. The physical space occupied by an organism in an eco system is called A) Niche B) Sere C) Deme D) Cline www.biologyexams4u.com
  20. 20.   8 72. The study of an organism in relation to its environment A) Autecology B) Palynology C) Pedology D) Gerantology 73. One of the following steps is not involved in cryopreservation A) Air-drying B) Slow freezing C) Encapsulation D) Shadow casting 74. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity? A) Savannas B) Tundra C) Tropical rain forest D) Temperate grasslands 75. ‘Harmful Algal bloom’ is the result of accumulation of species of A) Lemna B) Pistia C) Alexandrium D) Volvox 76. Pick out the mangrove plant from the following list A) Solanum surattense B) Excoecaria agallocha C) Saccharam spontaneum D) Euphorbia tirucalli 77. Ozone (O3) is formed mainly in which layer of the atmosphere A) Troposhere B) Ozone layer C) Stratosphere D) Ionosphere 78. The ‘mutation theory’ of organic evolution was put forward by A) Hugo deVries B) Weismann C) Darwin D) Lamarck 79. Changing climate may isolate populations on mountain peaks or in remnant lakes or islands. This is called ------- speciation A) Allopatric B) Sympatric C) Parapatric D) None of the above 80. The term ‘muton’ was coined by A) Barbara McClintock B) Muller C) Seymour Benzer D) Jacob and Monad 81. The genetic codes for ochre, amber and opal are-----,---- and---- respectively A) UGA, UAG, UAA B) UAG, UAA, UGA C) UAG, UGA, UAA D) UAA, UAG, UGA 82. Intron sequences in DNA always begin and end with A) AG, GT B) GT, AG C) TG, GA D) GA, TG www.biologyexams4u.com
  21. 21.   9 83. Any one of a group of restriction enzymes that recognizes the same nucleotide sequences A) Isozyme B) Ribozyme C) Isoschizomer D) Isomer 84. The length of the DNA associated with a protein is determined using the technique A) DNA replication B) DNA fingerprinting C) DNA footprinting D) DNA priming 85. A cell or tissue culture in which single cells or small clumps are grown in an agitated liquid medium A) Slop culture B) Suspension culture C) Retroculture D) Sericulture 86. About 75% of all white North Americans can taste the chemical phenylthiocarbamide and the remainder cannot. The ability to taste is governed by dominant allele ‘T’ and inability to taste by the allele ‘t’. (The population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium). Then the genotypic frequencies are A) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.3, tt– 0.2 B) TT–0.25, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.25 C) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.2, tt– 0.3 D) TT–0.3, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.3 87. Avena abyssinica is a tetraploid with 28 chromosomes. The cultivated oats (A. sativa) appears to be a hexaploid in the same series with the chromosome number: A) 168 B) 84 C) 42 D) 56 88. A normal chromosome with the gene sequence ABCD o EFGH (Small ‘o’ represents centromere).The chromosomal mutation represented by the gene sequence ABCFE o DGH is A) Pericentric inversion B) Paracentric inversion C) Reciprocal translocation D) Non-reciprocal translocation 89. Philadelphia chromosome seen in many leukemia patients is the result of reciprocal translocation between chromosomes: A) 9 and 22 B) 2 and 9 C) 2 and 13 D) 9 and 13 90. Dietary restrictions can essentially eliminate the severe mental retardation that is associated with this disorder A) Phenylketonuria B) Familial hypercholesterolemia C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Haemophilia 91. The genetic abnormality produced by XXY condition in humans is A) Down’s syndrome B) Kline felter’s syndrome C) Turner’s syndrome D) Lesch-Nyhan disease www.biologyexams4u.com
  22. 22.   10 92. The sry gene is located on the A) X-chromosome B) Y-chromosome C) Autosome D) Nucleosome 93. Chiasma is a greek word meaning A) Cross B) Ring C) Chain D) Straight line 94. In sweet peas the genes for flower colour and pollen length were studied. The double heterozygote showed a preponderance of the parental combinations. This could be due to A) Independant assortment B) Linkage C) Crossing over D) Incomplete Dominance 95. RNA polymerase binds to genes at the A) Operator B) Enhancer C) Promoter D) Inducer 96. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is an A) RNA directed DNA polymerase B) RNA directed RNA polymerase C) DNA directed DNA polymerase D) DNA directed RNA polymerase 97. Puffs or balbiani rings in salivary gland chromosomes are sites of A) DNA replication B) RNA synthesis C) DNA duplication D) Protein synthesis 98. Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by A) Watson and Crick B) Jacob and Monad C) Beadle and Tatum D) Sutton and Boveri 99. Deposition of material between the microfibrils of the cell wall is called A) Intersusception B) Intussusception C) Interference D) Integration 100. The first man-made cereal ‘Triticale’ has been developed from a cross between A) Wheat and Oat B) Wheat and Maize C) Maize and Rice D) Wheat and Rye 101. Which is the hexaploid species of Wheat? A) Triticum monococcum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum aestivum D) Triticum turgidum 102. A ‘trisomic’ individual has A) An extra chromosome B) One less chromosome C) Two extra chromosomes D) One pair of extra chromosome www.biologyexams4u.com
  23. 23.   11 103. Kappa particles are present in A) Plastids B) Plasmids C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm 104. Phage ØX-174 has A) Double stranded DNA B) Double stranded RNA C) Single stranded RNA D) Single stranded DNA 105. The first codon discovered by Nirenberg Mathaei was A) GGG B) CCC C) UUU D) AAA 106. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codon of A) Serine and isoleucine B) Cysteine and valine C) Tyrosine and tryptohan D) Phenylalanine and methionine 107. RNA polymerase III makes A) rRNA B) hnRNA C) tRNA, 5SrRNA D) sn RNA 108. The headquarters of the National Horticulture Board is situated at A) New Delhi B) Thiruvananthapuram C) Gurgaon D) Bhopal 109. An evolutionary event in which a significant percentage of a population or species is killed or otherwise prevented from reproducing A) Bottle-neck B) Genetic load C) Founder effect D) Segregational load 110. The equilibrium attained between the electric potential and concentration gradient in a closed system with two compartments separated by a semi-permeable membrane A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Donnan equilibrium C) Maxwell-Boltzmann equilibrium D) Michaelis-Menten equilibrium 111. Dispersion force or London force is a type of .................. force A) Van der Waals B) Hydrophobic-hydrophilic C) Ionic D) Covalent 112. The particle associated with bioluminescence A) Photon B) Electron C) Scintillon D) Phytotron www.biologyexams4u.com
  24. 24.   12 113. The average fleece weight in a large band of sheep together with its standard deviation was calculated to be 10.3±1.5lb. The statistics for fleece grade was 5.1± 0.7. Which trait is relatively more variable? A) Fleece weight B) Fleece grade C) Both traits D) None of the traits 114. A common digital sound file existing in personal computers is known as A) JPEG file B) ZIP file C) WAV file D) BMP file 115. A translator that converts a programme written in assembly level language into a machine level language A) Compiler B) Assembler C) Algorithm D) Interpreter 116. The largest order among the Gymnosperms A) Cycadales B) Coniferales C) Ginkgoales D) Gnetales 117. In eukaryotes ATP-Synthase enzyme involved in respiration is in the A) Cytoplasam B) Mitochondrial matrix C) Oxysomes D) Quantasomes 118. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants A) Campesterol B) Sitosterol C) Stigmasterol D) Cholesterol 119. Oxidative phosphorylation is a process that A) Occurs during respiration B) Occurs during photosynthesis C) Occurs in the thylakoid membrane D) Involves PS I and PS II 120. BLAST programme is used in A) DNA sequencing B) Amino acid sequencing C) DNA bar coding D) Bioinformatics ************ www.biologyexams4u.com
  25. 25. 12903 120 MINUTES 1. The plant part from which colchicine is isolated A) Fruit &seeds B) Stem& leaf C) Seeds & corms D) Fruit & bulb 2. Albuminous cells are present in A) Monocotyledonous plants B) Hydrophytes C) Gymnosperms D) Bryophytes 3. The Casparian strip is usually composed of A) Pectin B) Lignin C) Suberin D) Chitin 4. Histochemical localization of proteins is performed by using A) Sudan black B) Mercuric bromophenol blue C) Periodic acid Schiffs (PAS) reagent D) Iodine potassium iodide (IKI) solution 5. Orcein is obtained from A) Fractionation of coal tar B) Heartwood of Caesalpinia C) Roccella tinctoria. D) Abdominal part of insects Dactylopius coccus 6. Janus green B is used to stain A) Chloroplast B) Golgi complex C) Vacuoles D) Mitochondria 7. The sectioning of woody materials for histo enzymological study is made through---- A) Rotary microtome B) Sledge microtome C) Cryotome D) Rocking microtome 8. Molecular formula of chlorophyll a is A) C55H70O5N4Mg B) C55H72O6N4Mg C) C55H70O6N4Mg D) C55H72O5N4Mg 9. RQ value of protein is A) Higher than 1 B) 1 C) Less than 1 D) Infinite 10. Recombination nodules are present in A) Kinetochore B) Centriole C) Synaptonemal complex D) Nucleolar organizing region www.biologyexams4u.com
  26. 26. 2 11. The movement of solutes in the phloem is mainly A) Lateral B) Acropetal C) Basipetal D) Centripetal 12. The first stable compound in Hatch and Slack cycle is A) Pyruvic acid B) Malic acid C) Citric acid D) Oxalo acetic acid 13. ------------ is an example for sulphur containing amino acid A) Aspartic acid B) Methionine C) Glycine D) Isoleucine 14. Microevolution means A) Evolution at geographical level B) Evolution in a small community C) Changes in gene frequency within a population D) Spatial evolution 15. When a population formerly continuous in range, splits into two or more geographically isolated populations and form new species, the mode of speciation is A) Sympatric speciation B) Polytypic speciation C) Allopatric speciation D) Evolutionary speciation 16. Endosperm is absent in A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae C) Poaceae D) Malvaceae 17. Tyloses are A) Composite sieve plate B) Specialized laticeferous canals C) Tracheal plugs D) Resin ducts 18. In Dracaena, secondary vascular bundle is A) Bicollataral B) Amphicribral C) Collateral D) Amphivasal 19. Osmium tetra oxide is used in electron microscopy as a A) Fixing agent B) Mordant C) Staining agent D) Precipitator 20. The pH of phloem sap is about------------------ A) 5.5-6.5 B) 6.5 -7.5 C) 8.0-8.5 D) 4.5-5.5 www.biologyexams4u.com
  27. 27. 3 21. Q10 refers to A) Quantum recharge B) Respiratory coefficient C) A temperature coefficient D) Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) coefficient 22. Warburg effect explains decreased rate of photosynthesis due to A) High concentration of CO2 B) Low concentration of CO2 C) High concentration of O2 D) Low concentration of O2 23. Fruit drop is caused by A) Accumulation of more auxin in fruit than in stem B) Accumulation of less auxin in fruit than in stem C) Absence of auxin in stem and roots D) Accumulation of auxin in roots 24. The closure of lid of pitcher in Nepenthes is A) A turgor movement B) A paratonic movement C) A tropic movement D) An autonomic movement 25. National park is an example of A) In vitro conservation B) Ex situ conservation C) In situ conservation D) All of these 26. In Funaria capsule, the peristome consist of A) 16 teeth B) 32 teeth C) 64 teeth D) 128 teeth 27. Protonema is found in A) Riccia B) Anthoceros C) Marchantia D) Funaria 28. Western Ghats passes through ------------ states in India A) 6 B) 4 C) 7 D) 5 29. Partial or complete loss of virulence in pathogen is called A) Abortive parasitism B) Attenuation C) Neutralism D) Susceptibility 30. Phytoalexins are produced A) During infection B) During flowering C) Throughout the lifecycle D) By seedlings only www.biologyexams4u.com
  28. 28. 4 31. Katte disease of cardamom is caused due to A) Colletotrichum elettariae B) Phytophthora medii C) Cardamom mosaic virus D) Fusarium sp. 32. If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O is ½ , what is the probability of being either blood type A or blood type O? A) 5/8 B) 1/16 C) 1/8 D) 1/2 33. An animal has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes. During meiosis how many chromatids are present in metaphase of second meiotic stage? A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 32 34. What is the sexual phenotype of a diploid fruit fly that has XXYYY sex chromosome? A) Male B) Female C) Intersex D) Metamale 35. Betty has normal vision but her mother is color blind. Sam is color blind. If Betty and Sam are married and have a girl child, what is the probability that the child will be color blind? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1/3 D) 2/3 36. How many genotypes are present at a locus with four alleles? A) 15 B) 10 C) 8 D) 16 37. An organism has 10 pairs of independent genes. Aa BB cc Dd Ee Ff Gg HH II Jj. How many types of gametes with respect to gene content can this individual produce? A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 128 38. Which process of DNA transfer in bacteria require a virus A) Conjugation B) Transduction C) Transformation D) All of these 39. Species A has 2n=16 chromosomes and species B has 2n=14 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in an allotriploid of these two species? A) 21 or 24 B) 42 or 48 C) 22 or 23 D) 45 40. The percentage of cytosine in double stranded DNA molecule is 40%. What is the percentage of Thiamine? A) 40% B) 60% C) 20% D) 10% www.biologyexams4u.com
  29. 29. 5 41. What type of replication require a break in the nucleotide strand to get started A) Theta replication B) Rolling cycle replication C) Linear eukaryotic replication D) All of these 42. If two loci are 10 map units apart, what proportion of the meiotic events will contain a single cross over in the region between these two loci, assuming that no multiple cross over occur? A) 10% B) 15% C) 5% D) 20% 43. What is the effect of high level glucose in lac operon A) Transcription is stimulated B) Little transcription takes place C) Transcription not affected D) Transcription may be stimulated or inhibited depending upon the level of lactose. 44. In RNA silencing, si RNAs and mi RNAs usually bind to which part of the mRNA molecule that they control A) 5’UTR B) Segments that encodes aminoacids C) 3’poly(A) tail D) 3’UTR 45. DNA binding regulatory proteins are grouped into distinct classes based on the motif found within the binding domains. In the following group which are common bacterial regulatory proteins A) Helix –turn- helix B) B.zinc finger C) Leucine zipper D) Helix –loop -helix 46. In a group of students, about 36% could roll their tongues, a trait determined by a dominant gene (R). The other 64% of the students were nonrollers (r) . The population is in Hardy-Wienberg equilibrium. What is the frequency of the gene R and its recessive allele r? A) R=0.3 and r=0.1 B) R=0.64 and r=0.36 C) R=0.8 and r=0.2 D) R=0.2 and r=0.8 47. Which of the following changes is a transition base substitution? A) Adenine replaced by thymine B) Cytosine replaced by adenine C) Guanine replaced by adenine D) Three nucleotide pairs are inserted into DNA 48. A genetically engineered squash called Freedom II carries genes from A) Watermelon mosaic virus B) Zucchini virus C) Cauliflower mosaic virus D) Both A & B www.biologyexams4u.com
  30. 30. 6 49. Which gene is inserted to the target gene to create knockout mice? A) ‘tk’ gene B) ‘neo’ gene C) Both A & B D) Neither A & B 50. In the following common bioinformatic data bases, which contains protein sequence data? A) Gene Bank B) EMBL-Bank C) dbEST D) UniProt 51. Genes found in different species that evolved from same gene in a common ancestor is called A) Homologs B) Paralogs C) Orthologs D) Homeologs 52. Which lichen is known as “Reindeer moss?” A) Cladonia rengiferina B) Peltigera canina C) Lobaria pulmonaria D) Rocella montaignei 53. Proflavin and acridine oranges are chemicals that cause mutations because A) They distort the structure of DNA B) They chemically modify the normal bases C) They are similar in structure to the normal bases D) They sandwich between adjacent bases in DNA 54. A codon that specifies aminoacid Tryptophan undergoes a single base substitution that yields a nonsense codon. What is the mutated codon? A) UUG B) UGA C) UAA D) UGG 55. The retrovirus genome is A) RNA B) DNA C) RNA in free virus but converted to DNA inside the host cell D) DNA in free virus but converted to RNA inside the host cell 56. A recombinant cross is performed between two organisms producing a total of 400 offspring. There were two distinct types of recombinants, with 36 of the first type and 58 of the second type present. The recombination frequency of the gene is A) 0.145 B) 0.235 C) 0.345 D) 0.445 57. What are known as “safe havens” during insertion of transposable elements? A) Centromere regions B) Retrotransposon regions C) Heterochromatin regions D) All these www.biologyexams4u.com
  31. 31. 7 58. Total length of life cycle in yeast A) 90 minutes B) 1 hour C) 12 hours D) 24 hours 59. P elements are transposable elements found in A) Maize B) Yeast C) Drosophila D) Arabdiopsis 60. Hammerling performed experiments to prove that nucleus is the physical basis of heredity by working on A) Neurospora crassa B) Drosophila melanogaster C) Acetabularia crenulata D) Saccharomyces pombi 61. Minute granular structures found on the inner face of the thyalakoid membrane A) Quantasomes B) Diplosomes C) Oxysomes D) Lysosomes 62. When a cell with 2n = 60 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, each of the four resulting cells has ------ chromosomes A) 30 B) 60 C) 40 D) 10 63. The somatic chromosome number (2n) of Arabidopsis thaliana is A) 20 B) 10 C) 5 D) 30 64. The normal sequence of markers on a certain Drosophila chromosome is 123.456789, where the dot represents the centromere. One fly was isolated with the following aberration, 1654.32789. What could be the structural aberration involved? A) Paracentric inversion B) Deletion C) Duplication D) Pericentric inversion 65. If the somatic chromosome number for an organism is 2n = 16, the hexaploid number would be A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64 66. --------------- is a drooping pendant fruticose lichen A) Physcia B) Cladonia C) Usnea D) Haematomma 67. Cyphellae in lichens are analogous to ----------------- in higher plants A) Palisade tissue B) Epidermis C) Bundle sheath D) Stomata 68. Which of the following is called ‘walking fern’? A) Selaginella rupestris B) Selaginella bryopteris C) Adiantus incisum D) Adiantum caudatum www.biologyexams4u.com
  32. 32. 8 69. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele? A) Marsillea B) Lycopodium C) Pteris D) Dryopteris 70. The fossil fern, Rhynia was discovered by A) Sir William Dawson B) Kidson and Lang C) De Bary D) Captain Cooke 71. Smallest fern among the following is A) Drynaria B) Anogramma C) Cyathea D) Woodsia 72. Endosperm in gymnosperm is A) Generally diploid B) Always haploid C) Triploid D) With different ploidy levels 73. Characters of both conifer and cycads are found in A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra C) Cupress D) Thuja 74. The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Cycas is A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 0 75. The dwarf shoots of Pinus wallichiana are A) Monofoliar B) Bifoliar C) Trifoliar D) Pentafoliar 76. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by special barrier are A) Autogenic B) Allogenic C) Allopatric D) Sympatric 77. Area within the centre of diversity protected from human interference. A) Gene sanctuary B) Gene bank C) Biosphere D) Microcentre 78. Which is the age of ‘higher gymnosperms’? A) Mesozoic B) Palaeozoic C) Archaeozoic D) Proterozoic 79. The storage of energy at consumer’s level is A) Gross primary productivity B) Secondary productivity C) Net primary productivity D) Primary productivity www.biologyexams4u.com
  33. 33. 9 80. Ozone in the atmosphere absorbs: A) All UV-C B) All UV-C and most of UV-B C) All UV-A and UV-B D) All UV-A and UV-C 81. The taxa which is believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is called: A) Extinct B) Rare C) Vulnerable D) Living fossil 82. Total soluble salts in soil are measured by A) Tensiometer B) Conductivity meter C) pH meter D) None of these 83. Yeast is an important source of A) Vitamin C B) Riboflavin C) Sugar D) Fat 84. Powdery mildews of crops are caused by A) Bacteria B) Ascomycetes C) Phycomycetes D) Basidiomycetes 85. A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed is A) Phycomycetes B) Zygomycetes C) Deuteromycetes D) Basidiomycetes 86. The type of ovule in which micropyle and funicle lie in one line A) Orthotropous B) Anatropous C) Amphitropous D) Campylotropus 87. Study of pollen grains in honey is known as A) Iatropalynology B) Aeropalynology C) Melissopalynology D) Pharmacopalynology 88. Sporopollinin is seen in A) Intine B) Exine C) Endocarp D) Mesocarp 89. The common bread wheat is called: A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum turgidum C) Triticum monococcum D) None of these 90. Major component of ‘Jeevani’ is A) Ocimum basilicum B) Acorus calamus C) Trichopus zeylanicus D) Bacopa monnieri www.biologyexams4u.com
  34. 34. 10 91. Predominant ethnic group in Thiruvananthapuram district is: A) Kani B) Malavedan C) Malapandaram D) Cholanaikan 92. X2 test is used to A) Measure the degree of deviation of the experimental result from the expected result B) To test the closeness of observed and expected frequency C) To test the population variance and sample variance D) All of the above 93. Mode can be located graphically with the help of A) Line diagram B) Bar diagram C) Histogram D) Pie diagram 94. X-ray diffraction analysis is based on A) Beer-Lambert’s law B) Bragg’s equation C) Partition coefficient D) Sedimentation coefficient 95. Sudan Black B is often used for visualization of A) Protein B) Carbohydrates C) Aminoacids D) Lipids 96. Which instrument is more useful to study the surface details of a specimen? A) Phase contrast microscope B) Scanning electron microscope C) Light microscope D) Transition electron microscope 97. Stock and scion are needed for doing A) Budding B) Grafting C) Layering D) None of these 98. Insecticide that remains active in environment for the longest period of time A) Organophosphates B) Chlorinated hydrocarbons C) Carbonyles D) None of these 99. The large center root of plant used in bonsai is cut off A) To dwarf the plant B) To cause root brancing C) To make the root system shallow enough to fit in the container D) To simplify the root pruning job 100. Which vegetable crops use large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer? A) Leaf B) Root C) Fruit D) All of these www.biologyexams4u.com
  35. 35. 11 101. Rhinoviruses are the causative organism for A) Tuberculosis B) Whooping cough C) Diphtheria D) Common cold 102. Bacterial cell divides once in every minute. It takes I hour to fill a petri plate. How much time is taken to fill half of the plate? A) 59 minutes B) 49 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 29 minutes 103. Infective RNA particles without protein sheath are: A) Rickettse B) Mycoplasma C) Virus D) Viroid 104. Operating system is A) A collection of hardware components B) A collection of input-output devices C) A collection of software routines D) All of the above 105. A data base of current sequence map of the human genome is called A) OMIM B) HGMD C) Golden path D) GeneCards 106. Laminarin is the reserve food material of A) Chlorophyta B) Rhodophyta C) Phaeophyta D) Cyanophyta 107. Chlamydomonas and Volvox are similar because A) Both of them are motile B) They are filamentous C) They are colonial D) They have diploid thallus 108. Which of the following algal group never produces motile, flagellated cells among any of its members? A) Chrysophyta B) Phaeophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Rhodophyta 109. The most primitive algal group is A) Green algae B) Brown algae C) Red algae D) Blue-green algae 110. The newly collected specimen which is used as a substitute, when the original type material is missing in a herbarium, is designated as A) Lectotype B) Holotype C) Neotype D) Isotype www.biologyexams4u.com
  36. 36. 12 111. Hypanthodium is the characteristic of A) Amorphophallus B) Acrocephalus C) Ficus D) Euphorbia 112. A single seeded fruit with inseparably fused testa and pericarp is A) Achene B) Caryopsis C) Cypsella D) Cremocarp 113. A family having unisexual flowers with parietal placentation is A) Cruciferae B) Euphorbiaceae C) Orchidaceae D) Cucurbitaceae 114. The family Lythraceae belongs to the series A) Disciflorae B) Calyciflorae C) Heteromerae D) Inferae 115. The family Amaryllidaceae differs from Liliaceae in having A) Actinomorphic to slightly zygomorphic flowers B) Inferior ovary C) Axile placentation D) Perianth of six tepals 116. The lowest ranking taxa in numerical taxonomy is A) Species B) Operational taxonomic unit C) Character states D) Variety 117. Cladistic relationship is expressed in terms of correlation amongst individuals with regard to A) Phenotypic characters B) Their evolutionary history C) Relationship between operational taxonomic unit D) Their chromosomal behaviour 118. Primary centre of origin of rice is A) Asia minor centre B) Central Asia centre C) Hindustan centre D) Mediterranean centre 119. Heterosis results from A) Harmfull effects of recessive alleles and heterozygosity B) Homozygosity C) Heterozygosity D) Heterozygosity and masking of harmfull effects of recessive alleles 120. Production of a double cross hybrid involves A) Two inbreds B) Four inbreds C) Six inbreds D) Three inbreds …………… www.biologyexams4u.com
  37. 37. 14203 120 MINUTES 1. Which of the following is not a domain in the three domain classification? A) Eukarya B) Bacteria C) Cyanobacteria D) Archaea 2. Teminism is the phenomenon of synthesis of A) DNA depending RNA B) RNA depending DNA C) RNA depending Proteins D) RNA depending RNA 3. Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present in A) Oriza sativa B) Triticumestivum C) Pisumsativum D) Zea mays 4. Bioluminescence is usually associated with A) Chrysophyta B) Pyrrophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Phaeophyta 5. Name the Irish moss which produces carageenin? A) Octoblepharum albidum B) Leucobryumbowringii C) Porphyra tenera D) Chondruscrispus 6. Which of the following are not algae in the true sense? A) Spirogyra and Chlorella B) Nostoc and Spirogyra C) Ulva and Chlorella D) Nostocand Chlorella 7. The following is not a vegetative mode of reproduction in fungi A) Fragmentation B) Rhizomorph C) Sclerotia D) Somatogamy 8. Rhizopus, Pencillium and Aspergillus are examples of A) Parasitic fungi B) Symbiotic fungi C) Saprophytic fungi D) Predacious fungi 9. The following is not cultivated asan edible fungi A) Coprinuscomatus B) Agaricusbispora C) Volvariellavolvacea D) Pleurotussajorcaju 10. Parmeliais known as A) Iceland moss B) Orchil C) Rock flower D) Reindeer moss www.biologyexams4u.com
  38. 38. 2 11. In Lichens following special vegetative structure is formed as respiratory organs A) Soredia B) Isdia C) Cyphellae D) Medulla 12. When a big fish eats a small fish, which eats water fleas supported by phytoplankton, the water fleas are A) Producers B) Primary consumers C) Secondary consumers D) Tertiary consumers 13. Match the following A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3 D) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 14. Red rust in tea is caused by A) Fungi B) Bacteria C) Algae D) Virus 15. Basidospores differ from ascospores in which of the following characters? A) Four spores and are exogenously produced B) Eight spores and are exogenously produced C) Four spores and are endogenously produced D) Eight spores and are endogenously produced 16. Cyanobacteria form a variety of associations with bryophytes ranging from the almost accidental to close symbioses. Name the bryophyte that possesses this property A) Marchantia B) Anthoceros C) Porella D) Polytrichum 17. When moss spore germinate they form A) Leafy gamaetophyte directly B) Capsule directly C) Protonema , then a leafy gametophyte D) Protonema which bears archegonia and antheridia a. Apothecium 1. Erysiphe b. Perithecium 2. Peziza c. Cleistothecium 3. Claviceps d. Ascostroma 4. Loculoascomycetidae www.biologyexams4u.com
  39. 39. 3 18. The conducting tissues do not consists Xylem and Phloem tissues in A) Pinus B) Cycas C) Brassica D) Funaria 19. The sporophyte containspseudoelators in A) Riccia B) Marchatia C) Anthoceros D) Funaria 20. The protostele of --------------species shows variations with respect to its shape and arrangement of vascular tissue such as actinostele, plectostele, mixed protostels and plectosteles A) Marsilea B) Salvinia C) Equisetum D) Lycopodium 21. Dehiscence of sporangia takes place by a vertical splitting in A) Lycopodium B) Selaginella C) Equisetum D) Marselia 22. In theprothallus of the fern plant A) The nuclei of all cells including sex organs and gametes have monoploid number B) Only the sex organs and gametes have monoploid number C) Only the gametes have monoploid number D) The cells have mixploid condition 23. Winged seeds are present in A) Cycas B) Pinus C) Gnetum D) Ephedra 24. Deodar wood, the strongest coniferous wood is obtained from A) Cryptomeria B) Cedrus C) Taxodium D) Sequoia 25. The gymnosperm Ginkgo bilobais considered as living fossil because it retains primitive characters and A) It originated in the Triassic period of Mesozoic era B) It originated in the Jurassic period of Mesozoic era C) It originated in the Cretaceous period of Mesozoic era D) It originated in the Triassic period of Paleozoic era 26. In the system of classification by Bentham & Hooker dicotyledonous plants have been classified as A) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Monochlamydae B) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Dichlamydae C) Archechlamydae, Polypetalae, Monochlamydae D) None of these www.biologyexams4u.com
  40. 40. 4 27. In the plant name Capparislasiantha R.Br..ex.DC. The author citation indicated that A) Robert Brown published the name B) De candolle named it C) Robert Brown has more status than de Candolle D) Robert Brown and de Candolle have equal status 28. Gynobasic style is characteristic to the family A) Liliaceae B) Loranthaceae C) Lauraceae D) Labiatae 29. In a heaxaploid plant 2n=42. The base chromosome number x = A) 21 B) 7 C) 14 D) 12 30. Triticumaestivum is a polyploidy with genomes from A) Triticummonococum&Aegilopsspeltoedus B) Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa C) Aegilopsissquarrosa&Triticummonococum D) Triticummonococum ,Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa 31. The fruit in the family cruciferae is A) Siliqua B) Achene C) Berry D) Follicle 32. Cincinnus inflorescence is a distinguishing feature of family A) Rutaceae B) Metastomaceae C) Caryophyllaceae D) Lythraceae 33. Quinine is obtained from the plant that belongs to the family A) Rutaceae B) Rhamnaceae C) Rosaceae D) Rubiaceae 34. The fleshy edible fruit of cashew nut is the modified A) Ovary B) Thalamus C) Mesocarp D) Epicarp 35. A species confined to a small area is known as A) Rare B) Key stone C) Endemic D) Endangered 36. For preservation in the herbarium, the specimens are treated with A) Heating B) Repellents C) Fumigants D) All the above www.biologyexams4u.com
  41. 41. 5 37. Which among the following system is not a phylogenetic system of classification? A) Charles Bessey B) Robert Thorne C) Engler&Prantl D) De Candolle 38. A taxon should have a single correct name if the same name to be used for different species or taxa is known as A) Tautonym B) Basionym C) Homonym D) Nomennudum 39. The pollen tube that enters the ovule by piercing the integuments is known as A) Porogamy B) Chalazogamy C) Mesogamy D) Syngamy 40. Endosperm development is completely absent in A) Orchidaceae B) Podostemaceae C) Both in A&B D) None of the above 41. Monosporicembryosac with eight nuclei is found in A) Adoxa B) Polygonum C) Allium D) Fritillaria 42. Indian rubber plant is A) Ficuselastica B) Ficusaltissima C) Ficuscarica D) Ficuspalmate 43. Saffron is obtained from A) The stigma B) The stamens C) The petals D) The seeds 44. Ragi is obtained from A) Oryza sativa B) Eleusinecoracana C) Panicummiliaceum D) Sorghum vulgare 45. Chlorofluorocarbons rise to the stratosphere and A) React directly with stratospheric ozone to destroy it. B) Become free radicals that react with oxygen to create ozone. C) React with free radicals to remove carbon dioxide. D) After interacting with UV energy, become free radicals, which destroy ozone. 46. “Jeevani” made by using ethanobotanical lead from the tribe A) Kani B) Kurumar C) Vellan D) Naikkan www.biologyexams4u.com
  42. 42. 6 47. Generally the tribal people are non- vegetarians except A) Todas B) Kora C) Paniyan D) Kurichiyar 48. The fibers of Flax and Hemp originated from A) Xylem B) Pericycle C) Phloem D) Endodermis 49. During secondary thickening, the epidermis ruptured and the protective function is taken by A) Phellum B) Phellogen C) Periderm D) Phelloderm 50. In higher plants, parts get detached from mother plant by forming A) Callus B) Separation layer C) Protective layer D) Abscission zone 51. Calorimeters functions only in the visible light of frequency ranging from A) 400-700nm B) 200-400nm C) 700-800nm D) 100-400nm 52. Which of the following is not a natural dye? A) Brazilin B) Hematoxylin C) Colchineal D) Aniline blue 53. Which of the following can be used to stain DNA? i. Feulgen ii. Ethidium bromide iii.Acetocarmineiv. Orcein A) i and ii only B) i and iii only C) i and iv only D) ii and iv only 54. The vital evidence to discover DNA structure wasprovided by A) Atomic Force Microscopy B) Spectrophotometry C) X-ray Diffraction D) Mass Spectrometry 55. All of the following are true for both TEM and SEM except: A) The illuminating source is an electron beam B) The microscope is focused using electromagnetic lenses C) Can be used to view specimens smaller than 0.2 micrometers D) The specimen must be sectioned prior to viewing www.biologyexams4u.com
  43. 43. 7 56. “Human cells contain DNA sequences that match the sequences found in bacterial 16SrDNA.” What is your response to this statement? A) The statement is untrue, because healthy human cells should contain no bacterial DNA B) The statement is true, because mitochondria contain bacterial DNA sequences C) The statement is untrue, because there is no such thing as rDNA, only rRNA D) The statement is true, because the 16S sequences are part of the human 18S sequences 57. For transmission electron microscopy, thin sections have to be prepared by A) Rotary microtome B) Sled microtome C) Cryomicrotome D) Ultramicrotome 58. Haematoxylin is obtained from the A) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae B) Leaf of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae C) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae D) Leaves of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae 59. The fuelgen nuclear reaction included the following A) Reaction of deoxyribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA B) Reaction of ribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA C) Removal of purine at purine deoxyriboseglycosidic bond of DNA by acid hydrolysis. D) All of the above 60. In humans, the Barr body is an A) Active X chromosome in females B) Active X chromosome in males C) Inactive Y chromosome in males D) Inactive X chromosome in females 61. Disease(s) caused by perturbation of protein conformation A) Prion diseases only B) Alzheimer’sdisease only C) Both A&B D) None of these 62. The following is not a carbohydrate. A) Starch B) Glycogen C) Inulin D) Prostaglandins 63. Kwashiorkor disease is caused by deficiency of A) Starch B) Protein C) Fatty acids D) Minerals www.biologyexams4u.com
  44. 44. 8 64. The anticodon loop of atRNA typically consists of A) 3 codons B) 6 codons C) 7 codons D) 5 codons 65. Transcription is specifically regulated by regulatory proteins of unique motifs - A) Helix-turn Helix B) Zinc finger C) Leucine Zipper D) All the above 66. Eco R1 is the restriction enzyme that recognizes the following DNA sequence A) GGATCC CCTAGG B) GAATTC CTTAAG C) GCGC CGCG D) TCGA AGCT 67. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin D 68. Which of the following is not listed as essential amino acid in humans? A) Arginine B) Valine C) Leucine D) Alanine 69. In higher plant leaves, the reduction of nitrate to ammonium takes place by the combined action of nitrate reductase localized in cytosol and nitrite reductase localized in A) Peroxisomes B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplasts D) Cytosol 70. The swelling of doors and windows during rainy season is due to A) Adsorption of water B) Absorption of water C) Imbibition of water D) Diffusion of water 71. Which of the following represents the sequence of electron flow in the light reactions of photosynthesis in higher plants? A) H2O  photosystem I  photosystem II  NADP B) H2O  photosystem II  photosystem I  NADP C) H2O  photosystem II  photosystem I  ATP D) NADPH  photosystem I → photosystem II  O2 www.biologyexams4u.com
  45. 45. 9 72. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and release electron is A) Carbon B) Iron C) Zinc D) Oxygen 73. Which of the following statements are associated with the process of photorespiration in plants? (P) Photorespiration takes place in only C3 plants. (Q) Photorespiration takes place in only C4 plants. (R) Photorespiration takes place in both C3 and C4 plants. (S) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the peroxisome. (T) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the mitochondria. A) (P) and (S) B) (R) and (S) C) (Q) and (T) D) (R) and (T) 74. How many distinct photosynthetic mechanisms exist in vascular plants? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 75. In the following crops, which produces maximum carbohydrate/unit land? A) Rice B) Wheat C) Potato D) Sugarcane 76. The treatment that induces rapid growth and development in the plants of temperate or polar region is A) Vernalization B) Grating C) Scarification D) Soaking of seeds 77. Movement of pollen tube towards micropyle of ovule depends on A) Thigmotropism B) Thermotropism C) Chemotropism D) Hydrotropism 78. Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle? A) Ribulosebisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and sedoheptulose1, 7-bisphosphatase B) Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase C) Glyceraldehyde3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase D) Phosphoglycolate phosphatase, glycerol kinase, and serine synthetase 79. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover time? A) Tropical dry forests B) Tropical wet forests C) Temperate deciduous forests D) Boreal forests www.biologyexams4u.com
  46. 46. 10 80. A community dominated by shrubs and bushes is called A) Steppe B) Prairie C) Scrub D) Pampas 81. Population of individuals of a species having genetically fixed variations but are interfertile and placed under same taxonomic species is called A) Ecads B) Ecotypes C) Endemic species D) Key stone species 82. Which among the following is not an organophosphates pesticide? A) Parathion B) Malathion C) Methyl parathion D) DDT 83. Tectonagrandis shed leaves during A) Winter B) Summer C) Before flowering D) After fruiting 84. Which of the following represents a food chain A) Grasshopper-Green plants-Frog-Snake-Peacock B) Green plants - Grasshopper- -Frog-Snake-Peacock C) Grasshopper-Green plants- Snake- Frog –Peacock D) Green plants -Grasshopper- Frog--Peacock- Snake 85. Match Column I Column II a. Strontium (i) minamata b. Mercury (ii) itai–itai c. lead (iii) bone cancer d. Cadmium (iv) anaemia A) a- iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii B) a- ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii C) a- i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv D) a- iv, b-i c-iii, d-ii 86. The period known as Age of Giant Lycopods A) Cretaceous B) Jurassic C) Triassic D) Carboniferous 87. Gondwana land consists of A) India, Africa, Australia, South America &Antartica B) South America &Antartica C) Africa, America &Antartica D) India & Australia www.biologyexams4u.com
  47. 47. 11 88. Which of the following best supports the endosymbiotic theory of the evolutionary origin of mitochondria? A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes contain electron carriers. B) Genes for mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits are found in the nuclear DNA C) Mitochondrial and bacterial ribosomal functions are inhibited by the same antibiotics D) The outer mitochondrial membrane contains the protein porin. 89. The organism which requires priority of conservation according to the Red Data Book published by IUCN is A) Vulnerable B) Endangered C) Rare D) Threatened 90. The following biofertilizer is not a nitrogen source A) Rhizobium B) Azolla C) Pseudomonas D) Azospirillum 91. Biosphere reserve in Madhya Pradesh A) Gulf of Mannar B) Sundarbans C) Nandadevi D) Panchmarhi 92. Diploid organisms in which one chromosome of a single pair is missing are called A) Trisomic B) Nullisomic C) Monosomic D) Tetrasomic 93. Abnormal males possessing an extra X chromosome develop A) Klinefelter Syndrome B) Turner Syndrome C) Down syndrome D) Patau Syndrome 94. In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes will most likely lead to which of the following? A) Nondisjunction of the affected chromosome B) Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies C) Increased recombination frequency in the inverted region D) Mispairing of the affected chromosome with a nonhomologous chromosome 95. Smallest unit in the cell wall is A) Fibril B) Microfibril C) Micelle D) Cutin 96. The following crystalline DNA helix structure is left handed A) A- DNA B) B –DNA C) Z -DNA D) D –DNA www.biologyexams4u.com
  48. 48. 12 97. During meiosis, crossing over between two non-sister chromatids occurs at A) Leptotene B) Zygotene C) Pachytene D) Diplotene 98. If an organism of genotype AaBbCcDd are test crossed, how many different phenotypes can appear in the progeny A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 99. The genotype Ab/aB produces 8% each of cross over type gametes. The distance between A and B is estimated as A) 8cM B) 16cM C) 4cM D) None of the above 100. A class of mutations caused by addition or deletion of one or two nucleotides is called A) Silent Mutation B) Transition C) Frame shift D) Transversion 101. Chloroplast based DNA markers are now being used for the taxonomic identification of plants. This method is called A) RAPD B) RFLP C) AFLP D) DNA barcoding 102. Suppose that in a sample of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black. White wool is dominant over black wool. Estimate the frequency of recessive allele A) 0.7 B) 0.3 C) 0.9 D) 0.1 103. Individuals born with a condition known as phenylketonuria must control their intake of phenylalanine or suffer developmental problems. Because of this they must avoid foods rich in what? A) Proteins and lipids B) Fats and oils C) Proteins D) Simple sugars 104. The mRNA codon GUC will be recognized by the anticodon of tRNA A) CAG B) GUC C) GAC D) CTG 105. The radioisotope used to label protein differently from nucleic acid is A) 32 P B) 14 C C) 35 S D) 15 N 106. There are three kinds of RNA polymerase, each specific for one class of RNA. Which of the following is the correct match? A) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II –mRNA, RNA III-tRNA B) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III-mRNA C) RNA I-mRNA, RNAII-tRNA, RNAIII-rRNA D) RNA I-tRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III- r RNA www.biologyexams4u.com
  49. 49. 13 107. The terminator codons are A) UAA, UAG, UGA B) UUU, UUC, UUG C) UUA, UGG, UGA D) UGC, UGG, UAG 108. A base change in DNA that would not affect the amino acid sequence in the protein is known as A) Missense mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Silent Mutation D) Neutral mutation 109. Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH = 7.0) results in A) Both proteins migrate to the anode B) Histones migrate to the anode and myoglobin migrates to the cathode C) Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode D) Both proteins migrate to the cathode 110. Formation of what type of chemical bond is catalyzed by DNA ligase A) Phosphoester B) Hydrogen C) Glycosidic D) Ester 111. The following crop is used in phytoremediation A) Mustard B) Wheat C) Rice D) Sugarcane 112. Freeze preservation of living plant cells involves the following steps A) Freezing- thawing – storage- reculture B) Freezing-storage- reculture –thawing C) Freezing-storage-thawing-reculture D) Freezing--reculture -storage-thawing 113. The cDNA library of the organism will be A) Tissue specific B) Growth specific C) Organ specific D) Cell specific 114. Drought tolerance in plants is strongly correlated with the accumulation of aminoacid A) Serine B) Lysine C) Tryptophan D) Proline 115. If male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid , the endosperm will be A) Haploid B) Pentaploid C) Triploid D) Tetraploid www.biologyexams4u.com
  50. 50. 14 116. The tool used for pairwise analysis of DNA sequences A) ClustalW B) PROBCONS C) MUSCLE D) BLAST 117. Which of the following public domain is/are open access data bases? A) NCBI B) ExPASy C) PDB D) All the above 118. Emasculation in coconut tree is done by A) Removing anthers from the male flowers B) Removing anthers from the bisexual flowers C) Removing the male flowers from the inflorescence D) Removing anthers from the male flowers before anthesis 119. When light is irradiated into a rapidly flowing solution containing cells, a scattered light is released from the cells and cells can be separated based on the properties of the scattered light. This principle is used in A) Radioimmunoassay B) Flow cytometry C) Immunoprecipitation D) Fluorescence microscopy 120. The standard deviation of the data is 6. When each observation is increased by 1, the standard deviation of the new data is A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 7 ****************** www.biologyexams4u.com
  51. 51. 13603 120 MINUTES 1. Mycoplasma are resistant to common antibiotics like penicillin because of A) Sterols in the membrane B) Lack of cell wall C) Small genome size D) Active repairing mechanism 2. The compound employed as a fusogen for plant protoplast fusion techniques? A) Sodium chloride B) Potassium chloride C) Polyethylene glycol D) Trehalose 3. Reverse transcriptases are encoded by retroviruses. One of the enzymes from the mammalian cells which shows reverse transcriptase-like activity is A) Telomerase B) Ribozyme C) Caspase D) Ribonuclease 4. The frequency of an allele in a population can be changed by forces like A) Dominance, family selection, fitness & diversification B) Selection, mutation, migration, inbreeding & random genetic drift C) Forward mutation, gene conversion, neutral evolution & recombination D) Gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation & out breeding 5. The methodology for defining gene arrangement in very long stretches of DNA (for example 50-100kb) is A) Nick translation B) Chromosome walking C) AFLP D) Southern blotting 6. Norman Borlaug, the Father of Green Revolution, revolutionized agriculture by developing new varieties of A) Wheat B) Rice C) Maize D) Corn 7. Theory of Continental Drift was proposed by A) Du Tolit B) Charles Darwin C) Alfred Wegener D) Weisman 8. For a population in which mortality rate is low until the end of life span, the mode of survivorship graph is A) Highly convex curve B) Highly Diagonal curve C) Concave curve D) Linear curve www.biologyexams4u.com
  52. 52. 2 9. The mechanism that best describes the opening of stomata in plants? A) Influx of K+ into the guard cells followed by endosmosis, making the cells turgid B) K+ triggers the water pumps in the guard cell membrane that make them turgid C) Efflux of K+ from the guard cells followed by water, making the cells flaccid D) Loss of K+ from guard cells creates positive pressure leading to turgidity of the guard cells 10. How many ATP molecules or ATP equivalents are required to synthesize a protein which contains 100 amino acids? A) 600 B) 400 C) 200 D) 300 11. Polygonum type embryo sac is A) Monosporic B) Bisporic C) Trisporic D) Tetrasporic 12. In a frequency distribution, if the mean is less than the mode, and the median is greater than the mean but less than the mode, the distribution is considered to be: A) Negatively skewed B) Positively skewed C) Symmetrical D) Open ended 13. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence? A) FORTRAN B) COBOL C) PROLOG D) C 14. Cell cycle check points form a mechanism to ensure A) Proper DNA replication B) Proper chromosome separation C) Proper completion of each stage in cell cycle D) Proper termination of cell cycle 15. Which of the following type of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens? A) Phase-contrast B) Bright field C) Electron D) Confocal 16. Which of the following techniques would give you the most precise and accurate information about where and when a given gene is expressed? A) In situ hybridization B) DNA microarray C) Promoter gene fusion including introns D) Reporter gene fusion including introns 17. The spore of diatoms resulting from syngamy are called A) Autospore B) Auxospore C) Androspore D) Zygospore www.biologyexams4u.com
  53. 53. 3 18. Infectious single stranded RNA in plants that are not associated with any protein is known as A) Viruses B) Viroids C) Priones D) Satellite viruses 19. Powdery lesions on the underside of the coffee leaves appear as orange yellow to red orange in colour known as coffee rust is caused by A) Hemileia vastatrix B) Puccinia graminis C) Cronartium ribicola D) Uromyces phaseoli 20. Which of these spores are characteristic of the black bread mold Rhizopus? A) Basidospores B) Arthrospores C) Sporangiospores D) Ascospores 21. Litmus, a dye used in laboratories as an indicator of acid-base, is obtained from A) Rocella B) Usnea C) Peltigera D) Everina 22. Sporophyte with Synangium, homosporous with eusporangite development is seen in the pteridophyte A) Psilotum B) Lycopodium C) Isoetes D) Marselia 23. Birbal Sahni (1948) made the first collection of fossilized pteridophyte Pentoxylales from the village Nipania of A) Bihar B) Assam C) Utter Pradesh D) Kashmir 24. Who among the following proposed a phylogenetic system of classification? A) Carl Linnaeus B) Bentham and Hooker C) John Hutchinson D) Charles Darwin 25. Plants with stellate hairs, mucilaginous, free lateral stipule, solitary flowers, free petals with contorted aestivation, monoadelphous stamen, ovules with axile placentation is seen in the family A) Malvaceae B) Rutaceae C) Caryophyllacea D) Meliaceae 26. Pavement tissue, a unique region occurs in the ovule of the gymnosperm A) Gnetum B) Taxus C) Agathis D) Ephedra 27. Study of medical aspects of pollen grains is known as A) Latropalynology B) Mellitopalynology C) Aeropalynology D) Copropalynology www.biologyexams4u.com
  54. 54. 4 28. Strip of parenchyma cells, polygonal or radially elongated, lying in between vascular bundle is known as A) Cambium B) Bundle sheath C) Medullary rays D) Endodermis 29. Feulgen staining of DNA is based on the reaction of Schiffs reagent with A) Free aldehyde group of pentose sugar B) Purines at N-7 position C) Pyrimidines at N-1 position D) Phosphate moiety of nucleotide 30. Winged bean is the common name of A) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus B) Viccia angularis C) Lens culinaris D) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba 31. The chemistry of raphide crystal is A) Silica B) Calcium oxalate C) Calcium carbonate D) Ferric sulphate 32. In a competitive inhibition the Km and Vmax values of an enzyme A) Km and Vmax values decrease B) Km value increases whereas Vmax remains unchanged C) Km and Vmax values increase D) Km value remains unchanged and Vmax value decreases 33. The proteins in the native PAGE are separated on the basis of A) Molecular mass B) Net charge and size C) Net charges D) Based on isoelectric value 34. Which is the strongest reducing agent in photosynthetic electron transport cycle in chloroplast? A) P700* B) P680* C) Plastoquinone D) Plasocyanin 35. If a carotenoid-less mutant plant was grown under normal sunlight, then ……. occurs A) Increased chlorophyll oxidation and necrosis B) Increased chlorophyll synthesis C) Increased photosynthetic rate D) Reduced photorespiration 36. Plasma membrane infoldings are characteristic of A) Transfer cells B) Transfusion tissue C) Mitochondria D) Companion cells www.biologyexams4u.com
  55. 55. 5 37. The antibody that binds to mast cells, promote the release of histamine and other agents that produce allergic symptoms A) Ig M B) Ig G C) Ig E D) Ig D 38. Deinococcus radiodurans an extremophilic bacterium is able to survive even exposure to massive radiation? A) Because it possess a thick shell which acts as a shield from the radiation B) Because it has unique repair mechanisms C) Because its cell wall contains radioactive neutralizing elements D) Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair 39. The presence of pyrenoid in the middle of the chloroplast in a bryophyte, a unique feature, makes it apparently resemble with algae is seen in A) Funaria B) Riccia C) Anthoceros D) Porella 40. Canada balsam is obtained from A) Podocarpus acutifolius B) Taxus baccata C) Agathis alba D) Abies balsamea 41. Taxonomy, when it is strengthened by incorporating data from semantides and non semantides is called A) Numerical taxonomy B) Cytotaxonomy C) Chemotaxonomy D) Alpha taxonomy 42. Botanical Survey of India was established in 1890 under the Ex-officio Director A) Sir George King B) Sir Arthur James C) J.D. Hooker D) Robert Kyd 43. A fossil bryophyte identified from Rhaetic, Upper Triassic is A) Naiadita B) Plagiochasma C) Leucobryum D) Plagiochila 44. Carnoy’s fluid employed in cytological preparations consists of the following A) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + glacial acetic acid B) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + distilled water C) Absolute alcohol + Formalin + glacial acetic acid D) Absolute alcohol + Chromic acid + glacial acetic acid 45. Abnormal functioning of cambium and multiple cambial ring formation leads to anomalous secondary growth in A) Bignonia B) Bauhinia C) Boerhavia D) Eupatorium 46. The chemotherapeutic drug derived from Taxus species which is used to treat breast cancer is A) Vincristin B) Vinblastin C) Paclitaxel D) Taxine www.biologyexams4u.com
  56. 56. 6 47. Melting of DNA molecule leads to A) Decrease in optical density B) Increase in optical density C) No change in optical density D) Fluctuation in optical density 48. When the cell is Plasmolyzed, its A) DPD = OP B) DPD = 0 C) DPD = OP + TP D) DPD = OP – TP 49. A transitional zone between two ecosystems is called A) Fragile ecosystem B) Biome C) Ecotone D) Buffer zone 50. Whose name is most closely associated with molecular evolution? A) Theodosius Dobzhansky B) Motoo Kimura C) Frederick Sanger D) Stephen Jay Gould 51. International Conservation for Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) headquarters is located at A) Morges, Switzerland B) Paris, France C) Vienna, Austria D) New York, USA 52. The Gangetic estuary of Sunderban region is rich in A) Deciduous forests B) Evergreen forests C) Subtropical forests D) Mangrove vegetation 53. A gene inherited from female is not recognized in either male or female offspring, but the same gene is expressed in both male and female offspring when inherited from male. This can be aptly explained by A) Repression B) Deletion C) Recombination D) Imprinting 54. Chromosomal puffs are active sites of A) RNA synthesis B) DNA replication C) Lipid synthesis D) Polysaccharide synthesis 55. Satellite DNA is A) Short repetitive nucleotide sequence B) Single gene regions C) Ribosomal RNA genes D) Extra chromosomal DNA 56. The factor involved in the control of epigenetic gene expression in eukaryotes is? A) RNA polymerase II B) DNA methyltransferase C) TF II D D) TF II H 57. In a population, 75% are with dominant phenotype and the rest are with the recessive phenotype. If the population is in equilibrium with respect to this locus, what is the frequency of the dominant allele? A) 0.5 B) 0.25 C) 0.75 D) 0.40 www.biologyexams4u.com
  57. 57. 7 58. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disease that causes a variety of phenotypic changes in skin cells on exposure to light like freckles on face, arms, and legs. What is the most likely disorder of this DNA repair mechanism? A) Base excision repair B) Nucleotide excision repair C) Defective RNA transcription from TATA- less promoter D) Impaired DNA repair by photo reactivation 59. Which was the first eukaryotic chromosome sequenced with 315 kb? A) Yeast chromosome III B) Yeast chromosome XI C) Arabidopsis chromosome IV D) Arabidopsis chromosome III 60. Elite plants of a population are selected at the time of harvest and their seeds are bulked for sowing in the next season is termed as A) Pure line selection B) Mass selection C) Line breeding D) Recurrent selection 61. First genetically modified plant produced in 1982 was A) Transgenic tobacco B) Transgenic maize C) Transgenic tomato D) Transgenic cotton 62. The mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is A) Translocation B) Inversion C) Crossing over D) Duplication 63. A mouse in which one particular gene has been replaced by its inactivated form generated in vitro is called A) Transgenic mouse B) Knockout mouse C) Humouse D) Recombinant mouse 64. The field of horticulture involved in fruit growing and study of all fruits and nuts is A) Pomology B) Olericulture C) Arboriculture D) Floriculture 65. Which among the following tribal community receives benefit of the use of Trichopus zeylanicus as per benefit sharing system? A) Kuruchiyar B) Kaatunaikan C) Kani D) Mullukurumba 66. Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1phage and plasmid are common cloning vectors with a range from 1 to 300k. Which of the following is the proper order for these vectors in terms of cloning capacity? A) Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1 phage, plasmid B) Cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, P1 phage, plasmid C) P1 Phage, cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, plasmid D) Plasmid, cosmid, P1 phage, Bacterial artificial chromosome www.biologyexams4u.com
  58. 58. 8 67. The first step of proof reading during protein synthesis is carried out by? A) Ribosomes B) aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase C) m-RNA D) t-RNA 68. Position effect is the result of A) Mutations B) Deletions C) Transversions D) Inversions 69. A taxonomic system based only on the traits that reflect the order in time in which branches arose in a phylogenetic tree is called A) Phylogeny B) Cladistic C) Classical evolutionary taxonomy D) Phenetics 70. A keystone species is one that A) Exhibits higher likelihood of extinction than a non keystone species B) Exerts a strong influence on an ecosystem C) Leads to extinction of other species D) Has a weak influence on an ecosystem 71. Plant succession initiated on such areas where there is extreme scarcity of water is known as A) Lithosere B) Hydrosere C) Xerosere D) Psammosere 72. The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as the A) Net primary productivity B) Standing crop C) Trophic efficiency D) Standing state 73. Paratracheal parenchyma may be found: A) at the interface of spring and summer wood B) around wood rays C) around xylem vessels D) in phloem 74. Endosperm haustoria with vermiform appendage is reported in A) Grevillea B) Coconut C) Adoxa D) Hyoscymus 75. Pseudostem with sheathing leaf base, thick midrib, spathaceous bracts, corolla two lipped, stamens 5, ovary inferior with many ovules on axile placentation – these are seen in A) Arecaceae B) Aroideae C) Poaceae D) Musaceae 76. Prokaryotes contain one RNA polymerase. How many are there in eukaryotes? A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 www.biologyexams4u.com
  59. 59. 9 77. The gymnosperm wood which is densely packed with reduced pith and cortex is known as A) Pycnoxylic B) Monoxylic C) Hard wood D) Light wood 78. Red rot of sugar cane is caused by A) Colletotrichum falcatum B) Xanthomonas citri C) Alternaria solani D) Fusarium oxysporum 79. The genetic effect seen in an isolated population formed by a few individuals of a species is known as A) Bottleneck effect B) Founder effect C) Assortative effect D) Random mating 80. Which fungal group shows Clamp Formation? A) Basidomycota B) Ascomycota C) Chytridiomycota D) Deuteromycota 81. The algae possess a life cycle that switches between diploid sporophyte and haploid gametophyte which are indistinguishable morphologically i.e. isomorphic diplohaplontic? A) Volvox B) Zygnema C) Ulothrix D) Cladophora 82. The binding of the antigen to the antibody takes place through the interaction of antigen with A) Light chain of antibody B) Light & heavy chain of antibody C) Light & heavy chain and with Fc fragment of the antibody D) Heavy chain of antibody 83. Student’s t-test was developed A) As an easy statistical test for students B) By the students of Oxford University C) By W.S.Gosset D) By R.A.Fisher 84. Teichoic acids are polysaccharides of glycerol phosphate typically found in A) Cell walls of gram positive bacteria B) Cell walls of gram negative bacteria C) Cell membrane of gram positive bacteria D) Cell membrane of gram negative bacteria 85. Of the three types of ecological pyramids, which pyramid gives the best overall picture of the functional nature of communities? A) Pyramid of number B) Pyramid of mass C) Pyramid of energy D) Both A and C www.biologyexams4u.com
  60. 60. 10 86. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Root apical meristem is the meristem of synthesis of cytokinin B) Methionine is the precursor of Ethylene C) Tryptophan is the precursor of IAA D) Thidiazuron is the most abundant naturally occurring cytokinin of higher plants 87. Agar is obtained from the algae A) Gelidium B) Gracillaria C) Both A & B D) Polysiphonia 88. The most common type of chromosome rearrangement involving acrocentric chromosomes of humans is A) Robertsonian translocation B) Inversion C) Duplication D) Deletion 89. In amphivasal vascular bundles A) Peripherally arranged xylem elements enclose a mass of phloem B) Peripherally arranged phloem elements enclose a mass of xylem C) Xylem and phloem are arranged side by side D) Xylem is seen on either side of the phloem 90. A Pteridophyte member with ridged stem, consists of alternating vallecular and carinal canal with V shaped poorly developed xylem A) Selaginella B) Equisetum C) Microsorium D) Marsilea 91. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra C) Williamsonia D) Lyginopteris 92. The specimen collected from the same locality from where the holotype was originally collected and is the contingent from the same population is known as A) Tototype B) Neotype C) Epitype D) Isotype 93. The family characterized by herbaceous plants, swollen nodes, dichasial cyme, complete, actinomorphic, hypogynous flower, obdiplostemonous condition, ovules on free central placentation. A) Caryophyllaceae B) Ranunculaceae C) Cruciferae D) Rutaceae 94. If a diploid cell contains six chromosomes, how many possible random arrangements of homologous could occur during Metaphase- I A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 64 95. A plant of genotype AB/ab is test crossed to ab/ab. If the two loci are 10 map units apart, what proportion of the progeny will be AB/ab? A) 5% B) 45% C) 10% D) 20% www.biologyexams4u.com
  61. 61. 11 96. The genome of a typical bacterium contains about 5 × 106 base pairs and can be replicated in about 41 minutes. The human genome is 600X larger (3 × 109 base pairs) and at the rate of a bacterium would require 300 hours (~12 days) to be replicated; yet the entire human genome can be replicated within a few hours. How is this possible? A) Eukaryotic DNA is simpler to replicate than prokaryotic DNA B) Human DNA polymerases works much faster than that of prokaryotes C) The nucleosomes of eukaryotic DNA allow for faster DNA replication D) Human DNA contains more origins of replication than prokaryotic DNA 97. Choose the mismatch A. DNase I 1.Cleaves only ds DNA B. Maxam-Gilbert method 2.Chemical modification of bases C. Dideoxy terminator 3. Sanger method D. Biotin 4. Water soluble vitamin 98. The bacterial enzyme that changes positively supercoiled DNA into negatively supercoiled DNA is A) DNA helicase B) DNA gyrase C) Single stranded binding protein D) Polymerase 99. In sheep, dominant allele B produces white wool and its recessive allele b produces black wool. In a total of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black. Estimate the frequency of the B allele A) 0.1 B) 0.9 C) 0.3 D) 0.7 100. A bag contains 10 black and 20 white balls and a ball is drawn in random. What is the possibility of drawing a black ball? A) 0.33 B) 0.22 C) 0.55 D) 0.88 101. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of DNA double helix were taken using the technique known as A) Diffraction B) X-ray crystallography C) Fluorescence D) Transmission electron microscopy 102. An analysis of chromosomal DNA by Southern blot technique, involves the following steps 1. Autoradiography 2. Blotting 3. Cleavage 4. Electrophoresis 5. Hybridization Which of the following sequence of steps best illustrates this technique? A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,3,2,4,5 C) 3,5,2,4,1 D) 3,4,2,5,1 www.biologyexams4u.com
  62. 62. 12 103. Axenic culture is best defined as A) Cell culture B) Organ culture C) Cell culture of microbes D) Cell culture free from other microbes 104. Binomial of a plant with no accompanying description is known as A) Tautonym B) Nomen nudum C) Late homonym D) Later isonym 105. Adventive polyembryony is due to A) Cleavage of proembryo B) Embryo from cells other than egg cell C) Splitting of zygote D) Embryos from nucellus 106. Henna dye is obtained from A) Lawsonia inermis B) Lagerstroemia speciosa C) Lythrum baeticum D) Indigofera tinctoria 107. Jeffreys maceration technique comprises the following chemical combination A) Chromic acid + nitric acid B) Potassium chlorate C) Potassium chlorate + chromic acid D) Sodium sulphite + chlorine water 108. Dicentric chromatids are produced when crossing over takes place in chromosomes with A) Heterozygous paracentric inversion B) Heterozygous pericentric inversion C) Homozygous inversions D) Duplication 109. Fumaria type, Cucurbita type, Lathyrus type and Anemarrhena type are categories of A) Root stem transition B) Nodal anatomy C) Stelar types D) Embryo sac types 110. Ribose and Deoxyribose differ in the structure around a single carbon namely A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C5 111. The key enzyme for nitrogen fixation namely Nitrogenase consists of dinitrogenase and dinitrogen reductase. These differ from each other in the presence of the following metal component A) Iron B) Molybdenum C) Zinc D) Manganese 112. Name the compound with greatest standard free energy A) ATP B) Phosphocreatine C) Phosphoenol pyruvate D) cAMP www.biologyexams4u.com
  63. 63. 13 113. One of the kinase enzymes in Glycolytic pathway is reversible A) Hexokinase B) Phosphofructokinase C) Pyruvate kinase D) Phosphoglycerate kinase 114. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination A) Lysine B) Glutamate C) Alanine D) Tryptophan 115. The event leading to post translational modification A) Hydroxylation B) Glycosylation C) Phosphorylation D) All of these 116. Ribosomes are attached to endoplasmic reticulum so as to form rough endoplasmic reticulum mediated by A) Ribophorin I B) Ribophorin II C) Both (A) and (B) D) Magnesium linked protein 117. The largest cell organelle is A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondrion C) Peroxisome D) Golgi cisternae 118. In Ectocarpus, gametangia are sexual bodies which are A) Plurilocular B) Unilocular C) Monosporangia D) Nucule 119. What characteristic domain is found in eukaryotic proteins that enable them to enter the endoplasmic reticulum? A) Stop transfer domain B) Signal sequence C) Signal sequence receptor D) Signal recognition protein 120. Cryptochromes are pigments involved in the circadian rhythms of plants, sensing of magnetic fields in a number of species and are sensitive to A) Red light B) Blue light C) Far red light D) Both blue & red light ……………… www.biologyexams4u.com
  64. 64. A 16103 120 MINUTES 1. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is A) TATATA B) TATAAT C) TTAATT D) TATTAT 2. The topological form of DNA that does not occur in biological systems is A) A-DNA B) B-DNA C) C-DNA D) Z-DNA 3. The enzymes that induce slight negative supercoiling in natural DNA is A) DNA topoisomerase B) DNA helicase C) DNA primase D) DNA ligase 4. Non-covalent chemical bonds that stabilize the DNA double helix by connecting the adjacent aromatic rings of base pairs is A) Sigma bonds B) Delta bonds C) Gamma bonds D) Pi bonds 5. In DNA triple helix, the third strand is attached to the double helix by A) Watson & Crick pairing B) Hoogsteen pairing C) Agostic pairing D) Ionic pairing 6. RNA polymerase binds to a gene on the 3' end of a DNA template strand, termed A) Repressor B) Promoter C) Attenuator D) Operator 7. Intron homing is A) Removal of introns from the exon sequences B) Splicing of introns in the hnRNA C) Insertion of intron to an intron-less site D) Deletion of introns from a homologous site 8. The snRNPs are found in A) Ribosome B) Lysosome C) Replisome D) Spliceosome 9. In humans, the gene with the greatest number of introns is for A) Globin B) Titin C) Insulin D) Cyclin 10. The 1993 Nobel prize in Physiology and Medicine for the discovery of gene- splicing was awarded to A) Philip Allen Sharp & Richard J. Roberts B) Elizabeth H. Blackburn & Carol W. Greider C) Mario Capecchi, Martin Evans & Oliver Smithies D) Selman Waksman & Albert Schatz www.biologyexams4u.com
  65. 65. 2 11. In which of the following families is pseudo embryo sac present? A) Podostemaceae B) Amaranthaceae C) Malvaceae D) Poaceae 12. Single letter code of tryptophan A) W B) F C) Y D) Z 13. Which of the following is not an osmolyte? A) Proline B) Sucrose C) Plastoquinone D) Trehalose 14. Which one of the following terms describes the repeated selection on intervening populations derived from interbreeding of selected individuals to accumulate the desirable genes for a particular quantitative character without loss of genetic variability? A) Mater line selection B) Recurrent selection C) Mass selection D) Pure line selection 15. Which statement is correct regarding Melbourne Code – 2011? A) Latin diagnosis is not mandatory for names published on or after 01/01/ 2012. B) Publication of taxa in electronic media is effective on or after 01/01/ 2012. C) The Code is named as International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi and plants. D) All of the above 16. Ames test is a test for: A) Coliforms B) Carbohydrates C) Mutagenecity D) Lipids 17. The basic unit of numerical taxonomy is called A) PTU B) OTU C) CTU D) KTU 18. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species? A) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered; an endangered species has population numbers too low that it is likely to become extinct B) A threatened species is already extinct; an endangered species means that the population’s numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years C) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered; an endangered species is already extinct D) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing 19. Which among the following is not a nucleic acid database? A) EMBL B) GenBank C) DDBJ D) SWISS-PROT www.biologyexams4u.com

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