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In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English.
There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Question 1 to 3
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The dialogues
and questions will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Boy : Do you use the internet very often?
Girl : Yes, I do. I use it for communication.
Boy : How do you communicate with it?
Girl : I send and receive emails, and I speak with my friends using voice mail.
Narrator: What is the main topic of the conversation?
You will read in your test book:
A. How to use email.
B. Receiving emails.
D. Internet usage.
E. Voice mail.
The best answer to this question is choice D “Internet usage”. Therefore you should choose answer
A. Doing homework
B. Meeting a teacher
C. Finishing homework
D. Forgetting to make homework
E. Asking for submitting the homework
A. To leave the man alone
B. To drive the man home.
C. To find the lost wallet.
D. To borrow the man‟s wallet.
E. To lend the man money
A. T`wo days
B. Three days
C. Four days
D. Five days
E. Six days
Questions: 4 to 8
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four
responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will
not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are
saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.
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Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man: Where are we going to stay?
Woman: At the Sun Hotel, near the beach.
Man: Why there?
Narrator: What will the woman most likely reply?
You will also hear:
A. Staying there.
B. It‟s on the beach.
C. Living in the hotel.
D. There‟s a hotel there.
E. It provides excellent service.
The best answer to the question is choice E “It provides excellent service.” Therefore, you should
choose answer E.
4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Questions 9 to 11
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English. The
dialogues and a monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you
must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to a dialogue or
monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be
most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
1 2 3
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1 2 3
4 . 5.
1 2 3
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Questions 12 to 15
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice.
They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
A. Bintan island
B. Riau province
D. Riau archipelagoes
E. Indonesian Archipilago
B. Riau province
D. Riau archipelago
E. Archipelago of Indonesia
A. An Ant
B. The Dove
C. The Hunter
D. A Dove and an Ant
E. The Hunter and The Ant
A. Bit his foot
B. Get on the leaf
C. Flying over the lake
D. Landed on the ground
E. he picked up a big leaf and dropped it
THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING SECTION
The following text is for questions 16 and 17.
All members of English Squad
Today (Wednesday, January 9, 2013) we are going to have a meeting
at the AV room at 3.30 P.M.
Don‟t forget to bring the list of members of your group
The meeting is expected to last for one and half hours
Don‟t miss it!
(Taken from the Jakarta Post)
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16. The members of English Squad are expected to . . .
A. make a group
B. prepare a meeting
C. arrive before 3.30 P.M.
D. bring the list of members
E. make the AV room dirt free
17. The main purpose of the text is to ….
A. persuade all members to bring the invitation
B. announce the schedule of the meeting
C. invite all members to join the meeting
D. remind all members to bring the list
E. tell all members to come on time
This text is for questions 18 and 19.
INTERNATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL JAKARTA
Mrs. Dian Safitri
Dear Mrs. Dian
Subject: Our order No. 9FA
I am very sorry to report that fifteen of two hundred and thirty five copies of
High School English books I ordered from you received on 10th
were badly damaged.
As the package containing High School English books appeared to be in a
perfect condition, I received and signed it without any questions. I unpacked
the books myself with great care and can only assume that the damage must be
due to careless handling at some stage prior to packing.
I will be glad if you will replace all the damaged High School English books. I
have put all the damaged books aside and in case you need them to support
this claim. I‟ll send them back to you.
18. What is the letter mainly about?
A. The purchase of fifteen High School English books.
B. The receipt of two hundred and thirty English books.
C. The purchase of two hundred and thirty English books.
D. The return of the damaged High School English books.
E. The complaint of the High School English books‟ order.
19. There are … High School English books received without any damages.
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This text is for questions 20 to 21.
CHEVY RADIO FM 103.7
59 Pasir Kaliki Rd. Bandung 40172
Want to feel relaxed while improving your English?
Listen regularly to our most progressive and wonderful English program:
Broadcasted every Tuesday, 10.15 P.M. to 12.00 P.M.
Our program includes:
o World News
o News from the entertainment world (Music, Film, and Sports)
o Celebrities Interview
With the hosts of the program: Lexy and Febri
20. Which program is excluded in the text?
A. World News
21. We assumed that “RENDEZVOUS” is the name of ….
A. Radio Program
D. Guest star
This text is for questions 22 to 24.
Jakarta: The Corruption Eradication Commission (KPK) received a bomb threat Thursday,
prompting the Jakarta Police Bomb Squad (Gegana) to check the area. “There was a problem threat
made through the receptionist‟s telephone this afternoon,” KPK spokesperson, Johan Budi said, as
quoted by Vivanews.com.
The Bomb Squad arrived at the scene around 4 p.m. Officers with black vest sand metal
detector, swept the building; on Jl. HR. Rasuna Said, but found nothing. Setiabudi Police Chief
Comr. Aji Indra, however, denied that a bomb threat had been made. “It‟s an evacuation drill. Now
we‟re going to check the location first,” Aji said, as quoted by Kompas.com. - JP.
22. What is the text about?
A. An issue of the bomb threat
B. A bomb threat to KPK
C. An action of terrorist
D. The Bomb Squad
E. Kompas News
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23. Why did Police force coming to the spot?
A. There was a bomb threat.
B. Their duty concerned with.
C. They look for the criminals.
D. They got the telephone call.
E. They need to see the condition.
24. “The Bomb Squad arrived at the scene around 4 p.m.” (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
This text is for questions 25 to 27.
Russell Carrington Wilson (born November 29, 1988) is an American football quarterback for
the Seattle Seahawks of the National Football League (NFL). Wilson was selected by the Seahawks
with the 12th
pick in the third round (75th
overall) of the 2012 NFL Draft.
Wilson played college football for the University of Wisconsin during the 2011season, in
which he set the single season FBS record for passing efficiency (191.8) and led the team to a Big
Ten title and the 2012 Rose Bowl. Wilson received the Big Ten Quarterback of the Year award and
was named a consensus first-team All-Big Ten and third-team All-American by Yahoo! Sports.
Wilson played football and baseball for North Carolina State University before transferring
to Wisconsin. In 2008, he was named the ACC Rookie of the Year in football and became the first
freshman quarterback to receive first team All-ACC honors. Wilson also played minor
league baseball for the Tri-City Dust Devils in 2010 and the Asheville Tourists in 2011 as a second
Wilson signed a four-year, $2.99 million contract with the Seattle Seahawks on May 7, 2012
and was named the team's starting quarterback on August 26, 2012. In his rookie season Wilson led
the Seahawks to a 11-5 regular season record and the divisional round of the NFL playoffs, and was
voted the Pepsi NFL Rookie of the Year.
25. How could Wilson become a team of National Football League?
A. He was just chosen by the Seahawks without selection.
B. He led the team to a Big Ten title and the 2012 Rose Bowl.
C. He played college football for the University of Wisconsin.
D. He passed his selection with the 12th
pick in the third round.
E. He played minor league baseball for the Tri-City Dust Devils.
26. The fourth paragraph is that ….
A. Wilson‟s team was voted the Pepsi NFL.
B. Wilson led the Seahawks‟ football team.
C. Wilson joined with the National Football League.
D. Wilson only received $2.99 million for his contract.
E. Wilson signed a four-year contract with the Seattle Seahawks.
27. Why does the writer imply that Wilson becomes a successful football player?
A. He is supported by Seahawks and his parents to be a football player for NFL.
B. He is coincident to be chosen as a football player for the team of NFL.
C. He decides to be the football player because of his lucky choice.
D. He predicts his football skill leading to be a football player.
E. He intends to be the team of National Football League.
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This text is for questions 28 to 30.
The giraffe (Giraffa camelopardalis) is an African even-toed ungulate mammal, the tallest
living terrestrial animal and the largest ruminant. Its species name refers to its camel-like appearance
and the patches of color on its fur. Its chief distinguishing characteristics are its extremely long neck
and legs, its horn-like nosecones, and its distinctive coat patterns. It stands 5 - 6 m (16 - 20 ft) tall
and has an average weight of 1,600 kg (3,500 lb) for males and 830 kg (1,800 lb) for females. It is
classified under the family Giraffidae, along with its closest extant relative, the okapi. The nine
subspecies are distinguished by their coat patterns.
The giraffe's scattered range extends from Chad in the north to South Africa in the south and
from Niger in the west to Somalia in the east. Giraffes usually inhabit savannas, grasslands, and
open woodlands. Their primary food source is acacia leaves, which they browse at heights. Giraffes
are preyed on by lions, and calves are also targeted by leopards, spotted hyenas, and wild dogs.
Adult giraffes do not have strong social bonds, though they do gather in loose aggregations if they
happen to be moving in the same general direction. Males establish social hierarchies through
"necking", which are combat bouts where the neck is used as a weapon. Dominant males gain
mating access to females, which bear the sole responsibility for raising the young.
The giraffe has intrigued various cultures, both ancient and modern, for its peculiar
appearance, and has often been featured in paintings, books, and cartoons. It is classified by
the International Union for Conservation of Nature as Least Concern, but has been extirpated from
many parts of its former range, and some subspecies are classified as Endangered. Nevertheless,
giraffes are still found in numerous national parks and game reserves.
(Taken from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Giraffe)
28. Based on the text, we know that …
A. the giraffe males do not gain mating access to females.
B. the giraffes hardly inhabit savannas and grasslands.
C. the adult giraffes usually have strong social bonds.
D. the giraffes never do gather in loose aggregations.
E. the giraffe‟s primary food source is acacia leaves.
29. The text mainly concerns with ….
A. the giraffe‟s life
B. the giraffe‟s herb
C. the giraffe‟s food
D. the giraffe‟s location
E. the giraffe‟s enemies
30. We learn from the text that the giraffe is classified as ….
A. an omnivore
B. a leave-eater
C. a vegetarian
D. a carnivore
E. a herbivore
The following text is for question 31 to 34.
Solar energy is becoming a popular energy source due to the fact that it is the most abundant and
most cost effective energy source on the planet. Solar energy is created when the power of the sun is
harnessed in order to produce energy. Since the 1950‟s, solar energy is used to create sources of
power to fuel technology, homes, and many businesses. Because technology is evolving at the speed
of light, solar energy is becoming more proficient as an energy source and recognized as a feasible
alternative to fossil fuels.
Today‟s technology allows for the harnessing of solar energy through cells known as solar
cells. These are also called photovoltaic cells. Photovoltaic cells are placed in direct sunlight and as
the sun hits these cells, a chemical reaction takes place to produce electric currents. These currents
are, then, converted into electricity that can be used to power everyday items or even households.
Solar energy is classified as either active solar energy or passive solar energy. Panels and
solar cells are not used in passive solar energy, but structures or buildings will be constructed in a
way to capture the sun‟s power through the use of windows or tanks. These systems will, then, heat
homes or water, but can not be converted into actual electricity.
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Active solar energy is just the opposite. Solar panels or solar cells will be used to capture the
sun‟s energy. The panels or cells are placed in a way that they will maximize the sun‟s exposure.
The sun‟s energy is, then, converted into direct or alternate current electricity which is, then, stored
into batteries. In some cases, the electricity will be fed into a grid system of a utility plant when
larger amounts of energy are needed.
(Taken from http://www.ifpaenergyconference.com)
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. Source of energy.
B. Popular energy.
C. Solar energy.
D. Solar panels.
E. Solar cells.
32. Based on the text above, we infer that . . . .
A. people use solar energy only for their research
B. sun‟s energy is the least useful than other energies
C. solar energy is a source of energy used in daylight only
D. active solar energy is as not important as the passive one
E. solar energy can replace fossil fuel as the major energy source
33. The main purpose of the text is to . . . .
A. explain how utilize solar energy
B. describe two kinds of the solar energy
C. retell the readers about the solar panels
D. persuade the readers to use the solar energy
E. present two points of view about the solar energy
34. “The sun‟s energy is, then, converted into direct or alternate current electricity….”
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
The following text is for questions 35 to 38.
Nowadays, many people have realized that agriculture is much more important than other
supporting tools in economic development in Indonesia agriculture should be the priority of
development because of some good reasons.
First of all, the agriculture's contribution in the beginning of the development of the country
was the highest of all sectors. At present, almost half of the total Indonesian labors are working in
the agriculture sector, but the contribution of the agriculture sector does not reach 30 percent.
Second, the agriculture sector is expected to fulfill the need of food in the country. As the number of
population increases in an alarming rate each year, food supply must also increase butthe
agricultural production per capita never increases more than onepercent each year, and in some
extreme cases, it is even stagnant.
Last but not least, without agricultural development, the growth of the industrial sector will be
hampered because the growth that comes from industry will bring a wider gap into the internal
economy in that country. In turn, this gap will create serious poverty problems, wider inequality of
income distribution, and increase unemployment
It is, therefore, obvious that the government should put agriculture as the priority of national
35. What does the text tell about?
A. Agriculture‟s contribution
B. Agricultural development
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C. Economic development
D. Agricultural sector
E. Industrial sector
36. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. The agriculture's contribution was the highest of all sectors.
B. The agriculture's contribution was the development of the country.
C. The contribution of the agriculture sector does not reach 30 percent.
D. The contribution of the agriculture sector was the asset for the country.
E. Almost half of the total Indonesian labors are working in the agriculture sector
37. According the text, in order to support economic development, the government should ...
A. Produce more food as the priority.
B. Reduce labors in the agriculture sector.
C. Supply more food for the national needs.
D. Prioritize the development of agriculture.
E. Increase the industrial sector as the first priority.
38. "As the number of population increases in an alarming rate each year, ..." (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to...
This text is for questions 39 to 42.
Video games become a controversial issue for parents and educators. Those who are in favor of
video games believe that video games have some benefits. However, people who are against video
games consider these games have several negative effects.
In the proponents‟ point of view, video game functions as a form of light entertainment. As a
part of a balanced entertainment, games can provide stress relief for kids, help with aspects of
coordination and concentration on visual details, and help kids relate to one another in some forms
of healthy competition.
On the contrary, the opponents of video games think that video games have some disadvantages.
Video game players are prone to aggressive thoughts, attitudes, and actions. Violent video games
cause children to be less sensitive to the pain and suffering of others. Study also shows that these
children are more fearful of the world around them. In addition, video games make the players
addicted. Furthermore, too much time on any video entertainment takes away time spent on school
work. As a result, the games cause children to weaken their school achievement.
In conclusion, parents should limit their children on playing video games. Children can play
video games at their leisure but parents should think about how well balanced it is. Violent video
games also can be thought as treats.
(Taken from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Video_game_controversies)
39. Which of the following statements is the benefit of video games?
A. Video games cause stress to children.
B. Video games can‟t help kids to compete fairly.
C. Video games can coordinate the kids‟ cooperation.
D. Video games do not function as a form of light amusement.
E. Video games can improve children‟s coordination and concentration.
40. The main idea of paragraph three is . . . .
A. the benefits of video games
B. the advantages of video games
C. the amusement of video games
D. the disadvantages of video games
E. the advantages and disadvantages of video games
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41. We imply that parents …
A. should bound their kids‟ time on video games.
B. shouldn‟t limit their children‟s time to play video games.
C. cannot control their children‟s leisure time on video games.
D. have to play games with their children because it is helpful.
E. mustn‟t control their children in spending their time on video games.
42. “In addition, video games make the players addicted.” (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
This text is for questions 43 and 44.
Murder, she says is a classic mystery that will be received most enthusiastically by people who
enjoy folk culture. The film is like a traditional folk story, one that has been told and retold through
the centuries by expert story tellers.
Like a folk story, the film contains little that is new or surprising. But the beauty of this
movie lies in the way the story is presented. The photography is good, the music is exciting, and the
special effect are realistic, but do not overpower the film itself. Best of all the acting is wonderful.
43. The film will be received by the people because of....
A. the plot
B. the story
C. the music
D. the photography
E. the way of presenting
44. Having reviewed the film, the reviewer suggests that the readers should … it.
This text is for questions 45 and 46.
Although Gone With The Wind was a sort of second choice with the New York Film Critics, its
presentation was accorded more space in newspapers than any motion picture has ever been given.
After buying the rights to the novel, David Selznick had attracted attention by his suggestions for the
part of Scarlett O’Hara.
The picture was first presented publicly in Atlanta and some of the newspapers, including
The New York Times, sent staff writers to attend that opening. The accounts were printed on the
first pages of some editions of the afternoon newspapers in large cities all over the country.
Gone with the Wind was launched in two theaters in New York the Astor and the Capitol. In
The New York Times, the review was spread over four columns with a two-column cut and an
added account of the celebrities present. The critic referred to it as „a handsome, scrupulous,
unstinting version of the 1,037-page novel‟.
45. What does the text tell about?
A. The review about “Gone with the Wind film
B. The famous novel “Gone with the Wind”
C. The story of Gone with the Wind
D. The part of Scarlet O‟Hara
E. An interesting movie
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46. From the text, we know that...
A. The novel was so ugly so there were many critics about it.
B. David Selznick was the author of” Gone with the Wind”.
C. “Gone with the Wind” was launched in two theatres.
D. “Gone with the Wind” became a debatable novel.
E. ”Gone with the wind” got much appreciation.
For questions 47, arrange the following sentences into the correct and meaningful
1) Insert the document into the feeder of the fax machine, the feeder is usually at the top of the
machine, and there is usually an icon on it to show which way to have the paper face up or
2) Press send. The fax machine will attempt to dial the number. If the other fax machine picks
up, the document will begin transmitting.
3) Done the paper is the document feeder, enter the number that you want to fax to into the fax
machine. The number gets entered just like a phone number does.
4) You will need the document that you want to fax, a fax machine, a fax machine to send to as
well as that the fax machine‟s fax number ( the same as the phone number).
5) Watch the fax machine‟s display to make sure that the fax goes through. When the fax has
been sent, you‟ll get a message saying a transmitting is done.
Which of the followings is the correct arrangement?
For questions 48 to 50, complete the following paragraph with the correct words provided!
Among the pre-Colombian cultures of the New World the civilizations of Mesoamerica-the
region from Mexico south to Guatemala and Honduras- were unique in their possession of a
true form of writing: a series of hieroglyphs arranged in vertical column and in many instances
combined with numerals. The glyphs were at least (48) … related to a spoken language.
Although there were many regional (49) …, the four major systems were those of Maya of
shouter. Mexico, Belize, Guatemala and Honduras, of the Aztec of central Mexico and of the
Mixtec and Zapotec of southern Mexico.
Of the four Zapotec system was the oldest. It (50) … perhaps as early as 600 B.C. in the
valley of Oaxaca, some 550 kilometers south of Mexico City.
(Taken from Zapotec Writing by Joyce Marcus, 1980)