Pharma mcqs 2nd term test 2011

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2nd Term MCQ's Pharmacology WMC WMC WAH CANTT PAKISTAN

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Pharma mcqs 2nd term test 2011

  1. 1. <ul><li>Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical curative agent for Plasmodium vivax /ovale Malarial infections? </li></ul><ul><li>Quinine </li></ul><ul><li>Primaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Proguanil </li></ul><ul><li>Amodiaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether </li></ul>
  2. 2. <ul><li>Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical curative agent for Plasmodium vivax /ovale Malarial infections? </li></ul><ul><li>Quinine </li></ul><ul><li>Primaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Proguanil </li></ul><ul><li>Amodiaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether </li></ul>
  3. 3. Q.2: Chloramphenicol:- a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive Organisms b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in common infection c) Has a wide distribution but less concentration in brain d) Recommended for serious rickettsial infection e) Causes dose related, aplastic anemia
  4. 4. Q.2: Chloramphenicol:- a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive Organisms b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in common infection c) Has a wide distribution but less concentration in brain d ) Recommended for serious rickettsial infection e) Causes dose related, aplastic anemia
  5. 5. <ul><li>Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of hepatic disease? </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Doxycycline </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Azithromycin </li></ul>
  6. 6. <ul><li>Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of hepatic disease? </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Doxycycline </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Azithromycin </li></ul>
  7. 7. <ul><li>Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzae meningitis? </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Cefoxitin </li></ul><ul><li>Cefaclor </li></ul><ul><li>Cefamandole </li></ul><ul><li>Cephalexin </li></ul>
  8. 8. <ul><li>Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzae meningitis? </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Cefoxitin </li></ul><ul><li>Cefaclor </li></ul><ul><li>Cefamandole </li></ul><ul><li>Cephalexin </li></ul>
  9. 9. <ul><li>Q.5 : Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to Staphylococcus aureus βeta lactamases? </li></ul><ul><li>Amoxicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Piperacillin </li></ul><ul><li>Methicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzathine penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Ticarcillin disodium </li></ul>
  10. 10. <ul><li>Q.5 : Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to Staphylococcus aureus βeta lactamases? </li></ul><ul><li>Amoxicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Piperacillin </li></ul><ul><li>Methicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzathine penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Ticarcillin disodium </li></ul>
  11. 11. <ul><li>Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because: </li></ul><ul><li>Complete absorption from upper GIT </li></ul><ul><li>Natural resistance of the organism to drug </li></ul><ul><li>Induction of beta lactamase in the organism </li></ul><ul><li>Modification of penicillin binding proteins on the bacteria </li></ul><ul><li>Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it inactive </li></ul>
  12. 12. <ul><li>Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because: </li></ul><ul><li>Complete absorption from upper GIT </li></ul><ul><li>Natural resistance of the organism to drug </li></ul><ul><li>Induction of beta lactamase in the organism </li></ul><ul><li>Modification of penicillin binding proteins on the bacteria </li></ul><ul><li>Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it inactive </li></ul>
  13. 13. <ul><li>Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has shown growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which one of the following cephalosporins should be used in treatment of this case? </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftazidime </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftizoxime </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Cefuroxime </li></ul><ul><li>Cefotetan </li></ul>
  14. 14. <ul><li>Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis? </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadiazine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphasalazine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadimidine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadoxine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphacetamide </li></ul>
  15. 15. <ul><li>Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis? </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadiazine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphasalazine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadimidine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadoxine </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphacetamide </li></ul>
  16. 16. <ul><li>Q.9: Bacteroides fragilis infection is preferably treated with: </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracyclines </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>c)Tobramycin </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Azithromycin </li></ul>
  17. 17. <ul><li>Q.9: Bacteroides fragilis infection is preferably treated with: </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracyclines </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>c)Tobramycin </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Azithromycin </li></ul>
  18. 18. <ul><li>Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi except : </li></ul><ul><li>Ticarcillin disodium </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul>
  19. 19. <ul><li>Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi except : </li></ul><ul><li>Ticarcillin disodium </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul>
  20. 20. <ul><li>Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI? </li></ul><ul><li>Phenoxymethyl penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Nafcillin </li></ul><ul><li>Amoxicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenecillin indanyl sodium </li></ul><ul><li>Piperacillin </li></ul>
  21. 21. <ul><li>Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI? </li></ul><ul><li>Phenoxymethyl penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Nafcillin </li></ul><ul><li>Amoxicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenecillin indanyl sodium </li></ul><ul><li>Piperacillin </li></ul>
  22. 22. <ul><li>Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: </li></ul><ul><li>Nephrotoxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Hepatoxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Bone marrow depression </li></ul><ul><li>Ocular toxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Alopecia (hair loss) </li></ul>
  23. 23. <ul><li>Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: </li></ul><ul><li>Nephrotoxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Hepatoxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Bone marrow depression </li></ul><ul><li>Ocular toxicity </li></ul><ul><li>Alopecia (hair loss) </li></ul>
  24. 24. <ul><li>Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria) </li></ul><ul><li>Isoniazid </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrazinamide </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul>
  25. 25. <ul><li>Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria) </li></ul><ul><li>Isoniazid </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrazinamide </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul>
  26. 26. <ul><li>Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul><ul><li>Isoniazid </li></ul><ul><li>Thiacetazone </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrazinamide </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul>
  27. 27. <ul><li>Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul><ul><li>Isoniazid </li></ul><ul><li>Thiacetazone </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrazinamide </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul>
  28. 28. <ul><li>Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzylpenicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline </li></ul><ul><li>Netilmicin </li></ul>
  29. 29. <ul><li>Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzylpenicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline </li></ul><ul><li>Netilmicin </li></ul>
  30. 30. <ul><li>Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Streptomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzylpenicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline </li></ul><ul><li>Netilmicin </li></ul>
  31. 31. <ul><li>Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism. </li></ul><ul><li>E.coli </li></ul><ul><li>Bacteroides fragilis </li></ul><ul><li>Clostridium difficile </li></ul><ul><li>Clostridium welchii </li></ul><ul><li>Bacillus anthracis </li></ul>
  32. 32. <ul><li>Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism. </li></ul><ul><li>E.coli </li></ul><ul><li>Bacteroides fragilis </li></ul><ul><li>Clostridium difficile </li></ul><ul><li>Clostridium welchii </li></ul><ul><li>Bacillus anthracis </li></ul>
  33. 33. <ul><li>Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on prolonged use. Except: </li></ul><ul><li>Orange colour urine, sweat & tears </li></ul><ul><li>Thrombocytopenia </li></ul><ul><li>Flu-like syndrome </li></ul><ul><li>Light chain proteinurea </li></ul><ul><li>Inhibition of Cytochrome P 450 </li></ul>
  34. 34. <ul><li>Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on prolonged use. Except: </li></ul><ul><li>Orange colour urine, sweat & tears </li></ul><ul><li>Thrombocytopenia </li></ul><ul><li>Flu-like syndrome </li></ul><ul><li>Light chain proteinurea </li></ul><ul><li>Inhibition of Cytochrome P 450 </li></ul>
  35. 35. <ul><li>Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is: </li></ul><ul><li>Nystatin </li></ul><ul><li>Amphotericin – B </li></ul><ul><li>Flucytosine </li></ul><ul><li>Griseofulvin </li></ul><ul><li>Econazolc </li></ul>
  36. 36. <ul><li>Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is: </li></ul><ul><li>Nystatin </li></ul><ul><li>Amphotericin – B </li></ul><ul><li>Flucytosine </li></ul><ul><li>Griseofulvin </li></ul><ul><li>Econazolc </li></ul>
  37. 37. <ul><li>Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is: </li></ul><ul><li>Nystatin </li></ul><ul><li>Amphotericin – B </li></ul><ul><li>Flucytosine </li></ul><ul><li>Griseofulvin </li></ul><ul><li>Econazolc </li></ul>
  38. 38. <ul><li>Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly excreted by the kidneys </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly metabolized by biotransformation </li></ul><ul><li>High lipid solubility </li></ul><ul><li>More entry into infected RBCs </li></ul><ul><li>High tissue binding </li></ul>
  39. 39. <ul><li>Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly excreted by the kidneys </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly metabolized by biotransformation </li></ul><ul><li>High lipid solubility </li></ul><ul><li>More entry into infected RBCs </li></ul><ul><li>High tissue binding </li></ul>
  40. 40. <ul><li>Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:- </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly excreted by the kidneys </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly metabolized by biotransformation </li></ul><ul><li>High lipid solubility </li></ul><ul><li>More entry into infected RBCs </li></ul><ul><li>High tissue binding </li></ul>
  41. 41. <ul><li>Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with : </li></ul><ul><li>30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA </li></ul><ul><li>50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA </li></ul><ul><li>70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul><ul><li>50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul><ul><li>23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul>
  42. 42. <ul><li>Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with : </li></ul><ul><li>30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA </li></ul><ul><li>50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA </li></ul><ul><li>70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul><ul><li>50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul><ul><li>23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA </li></ul>
  43. 43. <ul><li>Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella typhii infection. </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Neomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Ampicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul>
  44. 44. <ul><li>Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella typhii infection. </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Neomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Ampicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul>
  45. 45. <ul><li>Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in renal infections is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul><ul><li>Vancomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Linezolide </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin stearate </li></ul>
  46. 46. <ul><li>Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in renal infections is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul><ul><li>Co-trimoxazole </li></ul><ul><li>Vancomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Linezolide </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin stearate </li></ul>
  47. 47. <ul><li>Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except: </li></ul><ul><li>Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolite </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodia </li></ul><ul><li>Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pump </li></ul><ul><li>Least toxic among all antimalarial drugs </li></ul><ul><li>An alternative to primaquine as gametocidal </li></ul>
  48. 48. <ul><li>Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except: </li></ul><ul><li>Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolite </li></ul><ul><li>Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodia </li></ul><ul><li>Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pump </li></ul><ul><li>Least toxic among all antimalarial drugs </li></ul><ul><li>An alternative to primaquine as gametocidal </li></ul>
  49. 49. <ul><li>Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant P. falciparum? </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus lumefantrine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus amodiaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus mefloquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus halofantrine </li></ul>
  50. 50. <ul><li>Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant P. falciparum? </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus lumefantrine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus amodiaquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus mefloquine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine </li></ul><ul><li>Artemether plus halofantrine </li></ul>
  51. 51. <ul><li>Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is: </li></ul><ul><li>Mefloquine </li></ul><ul><li>Quinine </li></ul><ul><li>Artesunate </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrimethamine </li></ul><ul><li>Halofantrine </li></ul>
  52. 52. <ul><li>Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is: </li></ul><ul><li>Mefloquine </li></ul><ul><li>Quinine </li></ul><ul><li>Artesunate </li></ul><ul><li>Pyrimethamine </li></ul><ul><li>Halofantrine </li></ul>
  53. 53. <ul><li>Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by Treponema pallidum .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete recovery except: </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzyl-penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadiazine </li></ul>
  54. 54. <ul><li>Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by Treponema pallidum .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete recovery except: </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline </li></ul><ul><li>Erythromycin </li></ul><ul><li>Benzyl-penicillin </li></ul><ul><li>Ceftriaxone </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphadiazine </li></ul>
  55. 55. <ul><li>Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with any one of the following drugs except: </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ day </li></ul><ul><li>Cap Azithromycin 500 mg daily </li></ul>
  56. 56. <ul><li>Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with any one of the following drugs except: </li></ul><ul><li>Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourly </li></ul><ul><li>Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ day </li></ul><ul><li>Cap Azithromycin 500 mg daily </li></ul>
  57. 57. <ul><li>Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate: </li></ul><ul><li>Negligible plasma protein binding </li></ul><ul><li>Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq </li></ul><ul><li>Inhibition of renal excretion by sodium </li></ul><ul><li>Half life 18-23 hours </li></ul><ul><li>Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression </li></ul>
  58. 58. <ul><li>Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate: </li></ul><ul><li>Negligible plasma protein binding </li></ul><ul><li>Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq </li></ul><ul><li>Inhibition of renal excretion by sodium </li></ul><ul><li>Half life 18-23 hours </li></ul><ul><li>Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression </li></ul>
  59. 59. <ul><li>Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:- </li></ul><ul><li>Noscapine </li></ul><ul><li>Codeine </li></ul><ul><li>Nalorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Morphine </li></ul><ul><li>Papaverine </li></ul>
  60. 60. <ul><li>Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:- </li></ul><ul><li>Noscapine </li></ul><ul><li>Codeine </li></ul><ul><li>Nalorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Morphine </li></ul><ul><li>Papaverine </li></ul>
  61. 61. <ul><li>Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be responsible? </li></ul><ul><li>Amantadine </li></ul><ul><li>Bromocriptine </li></ul><ul><li>Levodopa </li></ul><ul><li>Selegeline </li></ul><ul><li>Carbidopa </li></ul>
  62. 62. <ul><li>Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be responsible? </li></ul><ul><li>Amantadine </li></ul><ul><li>Bromocriptine </li></ul><ul><li>Levodopa </li></ul><ul><li>Selegeline </li></ul><ul><li>Carbidopa </li></ul>
  63. 63. <ul><li>Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of porphyria. </li></ul><ul><li>Ketamine </li></ul><ul><li>Propofol </li></ul><ul><li>Etomidate </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Oxazepam </li></ul>
  64. 64. <ul><li>Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of porphyria. </li></ul><ul><li>Ketamine </li></ul><ul><li>Propofol </li></ul><ul><li>Etomidate </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Oxazepam </li></ul>
  65. 65. <ul><li>Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following: </li></ul><ul><li>Zolpidem </li></ul><ul><li>Alprazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Flumazenil </li></ul><ul><li>Cholrazepate </li></ul><ul><li>Sufentanil </li></ul>
  66. 66. <ul><li>Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following: </li></ul><ul><li>Zolpidem </li></ul><ul><li>Alprazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Flumazenil </li></ul><ul><li>Cholrazepate </li></ul><ul><li>Sufentanil </li></ul>
  67. 67. <ul><li>Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same day. </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Midazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Propofol </li></ul><ul><li>Halothane </li></ul><ul><li>Etomidate </li></ul>
  68. 68. <ul><li>Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same day. </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Midazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Propofol </li></ul><ul><li>Halothane </li></ul><ul><li>Etomidate </li></ul>
  69. 69. <ul><li>Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the following except: </li></ul><ul><li>Hypertension </li></ul><ul><li>Muscle flaccidity </li></ul><ul><li>Acidosis </li></ul><ul><li>Hyperkalemia </li></ul><ul><li>Body temperature> 104 C </li></ul>
  70. 70. <ul><li>Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the following except: </li></ul><ul><li>Hypertension </li></ul><ul><li>Muscle flaccidity </li></ul><ul><li>Acidosis </li></ul><ul><li>Hyperkalemia </li></ul><ul><li>Body temperature> 104 C </li></ul>
  71. 71. <ul><li>Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use. </li></ul><ul><li>Halothane </li></ul><ul><li>Enflurane </li></ul><ul><li>Ketamine </li></ul><ul><li>Nitrous oxide </li></ul><ul><li>Desflurane </li></ul>
  72. 72. <ul><li>Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use. </li></ul><ul><li>Halothane </li></ul><ul><li>Enflurane </li></ul><ul><li>Ketamine </li></ul><ul><li>Nitrous oxide </li></ul><ul><li>Desflurane </li></ul>
  73. 73. <ul><li>Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following except: </li></ul><ul><li>Flaccidity </li></ul><ul><li>Rigidity </li></ul><ul><li>Resting tremors </li></ul><ul><li>Excessive salivation </li></ul><ul><li>Micrographia </li></ul>
  74. 74. <ul><li>Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following except: </li></ul><ul><li>Flaccidity </li></ul><ul><li>Rigidity </li></ul><ul><li>Resting tremors </li></ul><ul><li>Excessive salivation </li></ul><ul><li>Micrographia </li></ul>
  75. 75. <ul><li>Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following characteristics. </li></ul><ul><li>Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors </li></ul><ul><li>It has no anticonvulsant properties. </li></ul><ul><li>It possesses little muscle relaxing property </li></ul><ul><li>It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound insomnia </li></ul><ul><li>Development of tolerance is common on prolonged use. </li></ul>
  76. 76. <ul><li>Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following characteristics. </li></ul><ul><li>Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors </li></ul><ul><li>It has no anticonvulsant properties. </li></ul><ul><li>It possesses little muscle relaxing property </li></ul><ul><li>It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound insomnia </li></ul><ul><li>Development of tolerance is common on prolonged use. </li></ul>
  77. 77. <ul><li>Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of: </li></ul><ul><li>Bulimia nervosa </li></ul><ul><li>Chronic pain of neuropathic origin </li></ul><ul><li>Generalized anxiety disorder </li></ul><ul><li>Obsessive compulsive disorder </li></ul><ul><li>Premenstrual dysphoric disorder </li></ul>
  78. 78. <ul><li>Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of: </li></ul><ul><li>Bulimia nervosa </li></ul><ul><li>Chronic pain of neuropathic origin </li></ul><ul><li>Generalized anxiety disorder </li></ul><ul><li>Obsessive compulsive disorder </li></ul><ul><li>Premenstrual dysphoric disorder </li></ul>
  79. 79. <ul><li>Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be reversed with: </li></ul><ul><li>Naloxone </li></ul><ul><li>Naltrexone </li></ul><ul><li>Nalmefene </li></ul><ul><li>Flumazenil </li></ul><ul><li>Glutamate </li></ul>
  80. 80. <ul><li>Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be reversed with: </li></ul><ul><li>Naloxone </li></ul><ul><li>Naltrexone </li></ul><ul><li>Nalmefene </li></ul><ul><li>Flumazenil </li></ul><ul><li>Glutamate </li></ul>
  81. 81. <ul><li>Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin: </li></ul><ul><li>Nystagmus </li></ul><ul><li>Gingival hyperplasia </li></ul><ul><li>Hirsutisim </li></ul><ul><li>Osteomalacia </li></ul><ul><li>Alopecia (Hair loss) </li></ul>
  82. 82. <ul><li>Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin: </li></ul><ul><li>Nystagmus </li></ul><ul><li>Gingival hyperplasia </li></ul><ul><li>Hirsutisim </li></ul><ul><li>Osteomalacia </li></ul><ul><li>Alopecia (Hair loss) </li></ul>
  83. 83. <ul><li>Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except: </li></ul><ul><li>Acts through blockade of Na-ion channels </li></ul><ul><li>Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic seizures </li></ul><ul><li>Increases hepatic metabolism of other drugs </li></ul><ul><li>Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal neuralgia </li></ul><ul><li>Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence. </li></ul>
  84. 84. <ul><li>Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except: </li></ul><ul><li>Acts through blockade of Na-ion channels </li></ul><ul><li>Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic seizures </li></ul><ul><li>Increases hepatic metabolism of other drugs </li></ul><ul><li>Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal neuralgia </li></ul><ul><li>Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence. </li></ul>
  85. 85. <ul><li>Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication. </li></ul><ul><li>Acamprossate </li></ul><ul><li>Naltrexone </li></ul><ul><li>Disulfiram </li></ul><ul><li>Methanol </li></ul><ul><li>Topiramate </li></ul>
  86. 86. <ul><li>Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication. </li></ul><ul><li>Acamprossate </li></ul><ul><li>Naltrexone </li></ul><ul><li>Disulfiram </li></ul><ul><li>Methanol </li></ul><ul><li>Topiramate </li></ul>
  87. 87. <ul><li>Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters except: </li></ul><ul><li>Nor epinephrine </li></ul><ul><li>Serotonin </li></ul><ul><li>GABA </li></ul><ul><li>Glutamate </li></ul><ul><li>Acetylcholine </li></ul>
  88. 88. <ul><li>Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters except: </li></ul><ul><li>Nor epinephrine </li></ul><ul><li>Serotonin </li></ul><ul><li>GABA </li></ul><ul><li>Glutamate </li></ul><ul><li>Acetylcholine </li></ul>
  89. 89. <ul><li>Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except. </li></ul><ul><li>Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%. </li></ul><ul><li>Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium. </li></ul><ul><li>If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more severe. </li></ul><ul><li>Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption. </li></ul><ul><li>Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion. </li></ul>
  90. 90. <ul><li>Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except. </li></ul><ul><li>Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%. </li></ul><ul><li>Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium. </li></ul><ul><li>If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more severe. </li></ul><ul><li>Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption. </li></ul><ul><li>Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion. </li></ul>
  91. 91. <ul><li>Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia? </li></ul><ul><li>Buprenorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine. </li></ul><ul><li>Fentanyl </li></ul><ul><li>Levallorphan </li></ul><ul><li>Meperidine </li></ul>
  92. 92. <ul><li>Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia? </li></ul><ul><li>Buprenorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine. </li></ul><ul><li>Fentanyl </li></ul><ul><li>Levallorphan </li></ul><ul><li>Meperidine </li></ul>
  93. 93. <ul><li>Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as compared to morphine. </li></ul><ul><li>Pethidine </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine </li></ul><ul><li>Fentanyl </li></ul><ul><li>Tramadol </li></ul><ul><li>Nalaxone </li></ul>
  94. 94. <ul><li>Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as compared to morphine. </li></ul><ul><li>Pethidine </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine </li></ul><ul><li>Fentanyl </li></ul><ul><li>Tramadol </li></ul><ul><li>Nalaxone </li></ul>
  95. 95. <ul><li>Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists except </li></ul><ul><li>Buprenorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Butorphanol </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine </li></ul><ul><li>Nalbuphine </li></ul><ul><li>Codeine </li></ul>
  96. 96. <ul><li>Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists except </li></ul><ul><li>Buprenorphine </li></ul><ul><li>Butorphanol </li></ul><ul><li>Pentazocine </li></ul><ul><li>Nalbuphine </li></ul><ul><li>Codeine </li></ul>
  97. 97. <ul><li>Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true? </li></ul><ul><li>Gets ionized at pH of body fluids </li></ul><ul><li>Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as compared to procaine </li></ul><ul><li>Is metabolized by the plasma esterases. </li></ul><ul><li>Is poorly water soluble </li></ul><ul><li>Is incompatible with catecholamines </li></ul>
  98. 98. <ul><li>Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true? </li></ul><ul><li>Gets ionized at pH of body fluids </li></ul><ul><li>Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as compared to procaine </li></ul><ul><li>Is metabolized by the plasma esterases. </li></ul><ul><li>Is poorly water soluble </li></ul><ul><li>Is incompatible with catecholamines </li></ul>
  99. 99. <ul><li>Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting. </li></ul><ul><li>Alochol dehydrogenase </li></ul><ul><li>Acetylcholine estrase </li></ul><ul><li>Aldehyde dehydrogenase </li></ul><ul><li>Xanthine oxidase </li></ul><ul><li>Carbonic anhydrase </li></ul>
  100. 100. <ul><li>Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting. </li></ul><ul><li>Alochol dehydrogenase </li></ul><ul><li>Acetylcholine estrase </li></ul><ul><li>Aldehyde dehydrogenase </li></ul><ul><li>Xanthine oxidase </li></ul><ul><li>Carbonic anhydrase </li></ul>
  101. 101. <ul><li>Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterus </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Amylobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Secobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Phenobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Oxybarbitone </li></ul>
  102. 102. <ul><li>Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterus </li></ul><ul><li>Thiopentone </li></ul><ul><li>Amylobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Secobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Phenobarbitone </li></ul><ul><li>Oxybarbitone </li></ul>
  103. 103. <ul><li>Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be treated with </li></ul><ul><li>Ephedrine </li></ul><ul><li>Atropine </li></ul><ul><li>Dobutamine </li></ul><ul><li>Phentolamine </li></ul><ul><li>Epinephrine </li></ul>
  104. 104. <ul><li>Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be treated with </li></ul><ul><li>Ephedrine </li></ul><ul><li>Atropine </li></ul><ul><li>Dobutamine </li></ul><ul><li>Phentolamine </li></ul><ul><li>Epinephrine </li></ul>
  105. 105. <ul><li>Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by gastric juice is </li></ul><ul><li>Alprazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Clorazepate </li></ul><ul><li>Midazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Chlordiazepoxide </li></ul><ul><li>Desmethyldiazepam </li></ul>
  106. 106. <ul><li>Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by gastric juice is </li></ul><ul><li>Alprazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Clorazepate </li></ul><ul><li>Midazolam </li></ul><ul><li>Chlordiazepoxide </li></ul><ul><li>Desmethyldiazepam </li></ul>
  107. 107. <ul><li>Q.53: In local anaesthesia, </li></ul><ul><li>Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pH </li></ul><ul><li>The drug binds with sodium channels on outer side of membrane </li></ul><ul><li>Drugs having low water solubility are suitable for infiltration anaesthesia </li></ul><ul><li>Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity reactions than the amides </li></ul><ul><li>Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs </li></ul>
  108. 108. <ul><li>Q.53: In local anaesthesia, </li></ul><ul><li>Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pH </li></ul><ul><li>The drug binds with sodium channels on outer side of membrane </li></ul><ul><li>Drugs having low water solubility are suitable for infiltration anaesthesia </li></ul><ul><li>Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity reactions than the amides </li></ul><ul><li>Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs </li></ul>
  109. 109. <ul><li>Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptors </li></ul><ul><li>Risperidone </li></ul><ul><li>Amisulpride </li></ul><ul><li>Olanzapine </li></ul><ul><li>Chlorpromazine </li></ul><ul><li>Lithium carbonate </li></ul>
  110. 110. <ul><li>Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptors </li></ul><ul><li>Risperidone </li></ul><ul><li>Amisulpride </li></ul><ul><li>Olanzapine </li></ul><ul><li>Chlorpromazine </li></ul><ul><li>Lithium carbonate </li></ul>
  111. 111. <ul><li>Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antiemetic </li></ul><ul><li>Thioridazone </li></ul><ul><li>Haloperidol </li></ul><ul><li>Fluphenazine </li></ul><ul><li>Chlorpromazine </li></ul><ul><li>Thiothixine </li></ul>
  112. 112. <ul><li>Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antiemetic </li></ul><ul><li>Thioridazone </li></ul><ul><li>Haloperidol </li></ul><ul><li>Fluphenazine </li></ul><ul><li>Chlorpromazine </li></ul><ul><li>Thiothixine </li></ul>
  113. 113. <ul><li>Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following adverse effects except </li></ul><ul><li>Dryness of mouth </li></ul><ul><li>Constipation </li></ul><ul><li>Extrapyramidal syndrome </li></ul><ul><li>Retention of urine </li></ul><ul><li>Insomnia </li></ul>
  114. 114. <ul><li>Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following adverse effects except </li></ul><ul><li>Dryness of mouth </li></ul><ul><li>Constipation </li></ul><ul><li>Extrapyramidal syndrome </li></ul><ul><li>Retention of urine </li></ul><ul><li>Insomnia </li></ul>
  115. 115. <ul><li>Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines. </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause dose related anterograde amnesia </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause retrograde amnesia </li></ul><ul><li>Most of the benzodiazepines do not have muscle relaxant properties </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause irreversible confusional state in elderly </li></ul><ul><li>Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines does not leads to withdrawal symptoms </li></ul>
  116. 116. <ul><li>Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines. </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause dose related anterograde amnesia </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause retrograde amnesia </li></ul><ul><li>Most of the benzodiazepines do not have muscle relaxant properties </li></ul><ul><li>They can cause irreversible confusional state in elderly </li></ul><ul><li>Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines does not leads to withdrawal symptoms </li></ul>
  117. 117. <ul><li>Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions except </li></ul><ul><li>Chronic pain </li></ul><ul><li>Nocturnal enuresis </li></ul><ul><li>Malignant hyperthermia </li></ul><ul><li>Endogenous depression </li></ul><ul><li>Hyperkinetic syndrome </li></ul>
  118. 118. <ul><li>Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions except </li></ul><ul><li>Chronic pain </li></ul><ul><li>Nocturnal enuresis </li></ul><ul><li>Malignant hyperthermia </li></ul><ul><li>Endogenous depression </li></ul><ul><li>Hyperkinetic syndrome </li></ul>
  119. 119. <ul><li>Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics except </li></ul><ul><li>It is component of anesthesia </li></ul><ul><li>It has a high blood gas partition coefficient </li></ul><ul><li>It is potent analgesic </li></ul><ul><li>It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of Byles,Machine </li></ul><ul><li>It is used in combination with other inhalational agents due to high MAC value </li></ul>
  120. 120. <ul><li>Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics except </li></ul><ul><li>It is component of anesthesia </li></ul><ul><li>It has a high blood gas partition coefficient </li></ul><ul><li>It is potent analgesic </li></ul><ul><li>It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of Byles,Machine </li></ul><ul><li>It is used in combination with other inhalational agents due to high MAC value </li></ul>
  121. 121. <ul><li>Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication to </li></ul><ul><li>Slow down the gastric emptying </li></ul><ul><li>Dilate the pupils </li></ul><ul><li>Prevent bradycardia </li></ul><ul><li>Causes bronchodilatation </li></ul><ul><li>Prevent colic during visceral surgery </li></ul>
  122. 122. <ul><li>Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication to </li></ul><ul><li>Slow down the gastric emptying </li></ul><ul><li>Dilate the pupils </li></ul><ul><li>Prevent bradycardia </li></ul><ul><li>Causes bronchodilatation </li></ul><ul><li>Prevent colic during visceral surgery </li></ul>
  123. 123. <ul><li>Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention. </li></ul><ul><li>Sucralfate </li></ul><ul><li>Ranitidine </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenoxolone </li></ul><ul><li>Cimetidine </li></ul><ul><li>Omeprazole </li></ul>
  124. 124. <ul><li>Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention. </li></ul><ul><li>Sucralfate </li></ul><ul><li>Ranitidine </li></ul><ul><li>Carbenoxolone </li></ul><ul><li>Cimetidine </li></ul><ul><li>Omeprazole </li></ul>
  125. 125. <ul><li>Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except: </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>Vancomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Bacitracin </li></ul><ul><li>Clindamycin </li></ul><ul><li>Cycloserine </li></ul>
  126. 126. <ul><li>Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except: </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>Vancomycin </li></ul><ul><li>Bacitracin </li></ul><ul><li>Clindamycin </li></ul><ul><li>Cycloserine </li></ul>
  127. 127. <ul><li>Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis induced peritonitis is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ampicillin + β lactamase inhibitor </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Clindamycin </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul>
  128. 128. <ul><li>Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis induced peritonitis is: </li></ul><ul><li>Ampicillin + β lactamase inhibitor </li></ul><ul><li>Metronidazole </li></ul><ul><li>Chloramphenicol </li></ul><ul><li>Clindamycin </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul>
  129. 129. <ul><li>Q.64: Which of the following anti T. B drugs is structural analogue of PABA: - </li></ul><ul><li>Thiacetazone </li></ul><ul><li>Para-amino salicylic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul><ul><li>INH </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul>
  130. 130. <ul><li>Q.64: Which of the following anti T. B drugs is structural analogue of PABA: - </li></ul><ul><li>Thiacetazone </li></ul><ul><li>Para-amino salicylic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Rifampicin </li></ul><ul><li>INH </li></ul><ul><li>Ethambutol </li></ul>
  131. 131. <ul><li>Q.65: Which of the following drugs is most cost – effective in the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs caused by E. Coli: - </li></ul><ul><li>Nalidixic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Methenamine </li></ul><ul><li>Nitrofurantoin </li></ul><ul><li>Pipemedic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul>
  132. 132. <ul><li>Q.65: Which of the following drugs is most cost – effective in the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs caused by E. Coli: - </li></ul><ul><li>Nalidixic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Methenamine </li></ul><ul><li>Nitrofurantoin </li></ul><ul><li>Pipemedic acid </li></ul><ul><li>Ciprofloxacin </li></ul>

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