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  1. 1. A CMM 1 B CMM 2 C CMM 0 D All of Above A Equvivance partitioning B Fault injection C Code Coverage D None of above A LOC B Test Metric C Product Metric D Process Metric A Perfomance Testing B White Box Testing C Black Box Testing D Alpha Testing A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are 1 Phase defination is covered in 2 Which is a black box testing method? 5 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Documentation Fault 3 A Metrics used to measure the charestric of documentation and code is called 4 A Non Functional Testing is called SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 is not D All of them are valid reasons for failure A Component testing should be performed by development B Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing C Component testing should have completion criteria planned D Component testing does not involve regression testing A Management report B Interim Test report C Project status report D Final test report A Is unlikely to be completed on scheduleB Is likely to be fault-free C Is unlikely to cause a failure D Is likely to be liked by the users A At most 0.81 B Equal to 0.9 C Greater than 0.9 D At least 1/0.81 6 Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? 9 In unit testing of a module, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. The reliability of module is ? 7 Function/Test matrix is a type of 8 A reliable system will be one that: SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET
  2. 2. A 50% B 60% C 30% D 70% A A white box testing technique appropriate for component testin B A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing C A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing D A black box testing technique used only by developers A Proxy B Driver C Stub D None of the above Equivalence partitioning is: A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail 40% times. The program P can fail ? To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data. 10 11 12 A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of 13 SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET A 4000 B 5000 C 4333 D 4667 A 234.25 B 933.45 C 142.50. D 230.25 A Capture test cases B Capture requirements 15 Use Case is used for 14 A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its newest inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The company needs to determine the effort in person-months needed to develop which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of lines of code (LOC) developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC developed with L1. the product will have to be maintained for five years. Various parameters for the company are given in the table below. Parameter Language L1 Language L2 Man years needed for development LOC / 10000 LOC / 10000 Development Cost per year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000 Maintenance time 5 years 5 years Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000 Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is the LOC for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of the project using L2? SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET
  3. 3. C Capture design specification D all of the above. A Static testing B State Transition Testing C Dynamic Testing D none of the above. A ability of system to run without failure B ability of system to support users C The poit at which system break down D all of the above. A Testing tool B Test Methedology C Test Metric D all of the above. A estimating testing effort B perfoming LCSAJ testing C Defect calculation D None of above Code review is for16 17 Stress testing measures 19 Metric based technique is for 18 QTP is SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET C Defect calculation D None of above A No B Yes C May be yes D None of the above. A Unit Testing B Integration Testing C System Testing D None of the above. A By repetating test case, remove errorsB correct errors C update errors D None of the above. A Prototype Method B Agile Method C Waterfall Method D all of the above. A SpiralModel B Waterfall model C V- Model D all of the above. 20 Is it possible to have a software product with "Zero defect"? 23 Face to face Communication is in 22 Pesting Paradox in testing testcase is 21 A Testing which detect the defects in fully functional software is 25 Test Planning includes 24 W - model is updation of SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET
  4. 4. A Test Strategies B Test methods C Test Bed Creation D all of the above. A QTP B Silktest C Selenium D all of the above. A Load Runner B BugZilla C Qtp D all of the above. A alpha testing B Hardening testing C System Testing D all of the above. A Integration testing B Alpha Testing C stress testing D Unit testing 26 Example of Testing Tool 29 Data independence means 28 To Detect cracks and Holes in the networks by 27 Non functional testing tool SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET C stress testing D Unit testing A Common Testing System B Commercial off the shelf C Code and Test system D None of above A Autocad B Flash C Mcafee D all of the above. A Understanding of testing tools B understanding of functional domain C Expertise team lcontromonitoring an D all of the above. A Reliablility B Reusablility C Portability D all of the above. A Black Box Testing B White Box Testing 32 Required Skill of Test Manager 31 COTS example is 30 COTS is 34 Which testing devides input domain into class for testcase? 33 COTS is for SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET
  5. 5. C Equvivance Testing D Boundry Value Analysis A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Recorder B Author C Moderator D Reviewer A Analysis phase B Design Phase C Code Phase D Testing Phase 35 Types of review 38 SRS is an artifact of 37 The person who records the procedding of review meeting is 36 Group Activity can be seen in 39 Nonfunctional requirement is SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET A Reliability B usability C maintainability D All of above A Varification B Testing C Validation D all of the above. A Less iteration B Error detection at later stage C Not applied to real time system D All of above A Waterfall model B Spiral Model C Prototype Model D all of the above. A User Get Idea about system B Low cost C Fast Development D All of above 41 Disadvtage of prototype model is 40 Evaluting Software during various phases of SDLC is called 39 Nonfunctional requirement is 44 Important aspect of coding is 43 advtage of prototype model is 42 Risk Analysis phase is in SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET
  6. 6. A productivity B efficiency C reliability D all of the above. A Architectural design B data design C Interface design D All of above A IBM B Microsoft C Motorola D Intel A Abstraction B Information Hiding C refinement D 90-120 days A n B n*(n-1)/2 C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 47 Which of the following is in design stage… 46 RAD model was proposed by 45 Data structure of application is in 48 If n number of programmers are in team , then number of paths is SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 A 10% B 20% C 5% D 0 A Data Element B Behaviour element C Class based element D Scenario based element A cardinality B modality C directionality D Both (A) and (B) A Flow base element B Class base element C Scenario base element D Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dic A Well defined process B Data element Hiarchy C Specification design D Obeservable mode of behaviou 50 Which of these is not element in object oriented analysis model 49 if 99% code is written in C and 1% code is written in assembly lenguage then increse in execution time compare to 1% code written in assembly language is 53 Behaviour modeling is for 52 UML diagram is useful in representing 51 Relationship shown in data model is for SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET
  7. 7. A transorm data element B Show relationship between data C Reaction to external event D all of the above. A 45% B 100% C 90% D 50% A 30% B 70% C 10% D 20% A Method B Tools C Manufacturing D Process 56 A program P has p1 and p2 sub programs. Probability of p1 fails is 50% and p2 fails is 40%. What about the probability os P fails 55 In unit testing of a module, the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.5. The reliability of module is ? 54 State diagram is for 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 57 Which of this is not software engineering layers SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET A analysis , Design, Code, maintenance,test B communication,planning,modellin g,construction,deployment C communication,risk management, design,code,test D Analysis,planning,design,code,test A iterative in nature B not produce throw away C accommodate changes easily D all of above A complex project B small project C develop core module D all of above A Test bed B Traceablity Matrix C Test Metric D All of above A Retesting B Regresssion testing C Adhoc Testing D perfomance testing 59 Evolutionary model is 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 62 Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as 61 The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases 60 Incremental model approach in software development is useful in SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET
  8. 8. A Sometimes B Many Times C Always D None A Testing and validation B Reverse engineering C Identification of faults D Development A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Input B Output 65 The first item defined for a new system is its 64 Top down approach is used for 63 Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution 67 The first item defined for a new system is its 66 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A TRUE B FALSE C D A Are delivered on time and under budget B Have complete documentation C Are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer D Have measurable specification for process outputs A Analysis, design, testing B Definition, development, support C What, how, where D Programming, debugging, maintenance A Dependence matrix B SRS C Cause-effect graph D Chart 68 To test competing product in to the market comparision testing is done 71 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a 70 What are the three generic phases of software engineering? 69 A key concept of quality control is that all work products SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET
  9. 9. A Scope, constraints, market B Business and marketing concerns C Technology, finance, time, resources D Technical prowess of the developers A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Level 1 B Level 2 C Level 3 D Level 4 74 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is 73 The first item defined for a new system is its 72 Software feasibility is based on which of the following . 76 75 The process is at least documented in CMM SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET A P and R B Q and R C P and S D Q and S A the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index B the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index. C it is on a set of fields that form a candidate key D it is on a set of fields that include the primary key 77 An index is clustered, if 76 Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query? P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause 78 Function point metric of a software also depends on the SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET
  10. 10. A Number of function needed B Number of final users of the software C Number of external inputs and outputs D all of above A Stamp coupling B Content coupling C Control coupling D Data coupling A Software functions B Process activities C Information domain values D Project schedule A Inheritance B abstraction 80 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on 79 The worst type of coupling is 81 Cohesion is closely bound to SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET C coupling D None of above A Control coupling B Content coupling C message coupling D None of above A Cyclomatic complexity B Function count C LOC D Program length A Software design B Testing C Software requirement specification D Both (A) and (B A ISO 9000 B ISO 9003 C ISO9002 D ISO 9001 A Customer Myths B Management Myths 83 Which is not a size metric? 82 Which coupling is high ? 86 Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on 85 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is 84 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET
  11. 11. C Practitioner Myths D all of above A RAD B Prototype C SpiralModel D None of above A content coupling B stamp coupling C messsage coupling D control coupling A Spiral Model B Prototype Model C Water Fall Model D all of above A step-wise refinement B modularity C flow charting D loop invariants 89 For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and user-friendliness are extremely important), one will use 88 Data structure coupling is also know as 87 What is an incremental software process model that emphasize an extremely short development cycle? 90 Top-down design does not require SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET C flow charting D loop invariants A Cyclomatic number B Hamiltonian circuit C Eulerian cycle D None of the above A Stress testing B Unit testing C Beta testing D Mutation testing A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Error correction B Establishing scope C Adaptation D Enhancement A Adaptive maintenance B Perfective maintenance C Corrective maintenance D None of above 92 One of the fault base testing techniques is 91 Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing? 95 Emergency fixes known as patches are result of 94 Which one of these are not software maintenance activity 93 Reliability of software is directly dependent on SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET
  12. 12. A Adaptive maintenance B Corrective maintenance C Perfective maintenance D Preventative maintenance A Size measurement B Design recovery C Cost measurement D All of the above A Analysis Modelling B Requirement Gathering C Formulation D User Interface Prototyping A Highly Coheshive B Comprehenshive C Loosly coupled D All of above 98 Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks? 97 Reverse engineering is the process which deals with 96 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called 99 As use-cases are organised to functional packages.Each functional Package must be SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET C Loosly coupled D All of above A Content B maintainability C links D Nevigation A Forms B cookies C browser D links A Reusable B Organized C Repeatable D Ad hoc A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Yes B No C Can't Say D May be yes 101 Which of the following is not the WebApp Interface Mechanism? 100 Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp 104 Graph based testing is only applied to object oriented system? 103 Reliability of software is directly dependent on 102 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET
  13. 13. A OO software B Application Software C System Software D None of above A SRS B input C output D Software Metric A Analysis Effort method B Function Point Analysis C COCOMO D All of Above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 30 FP D None of above Methods for estimation in software engineering include: if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the project effort is 106 ____ a measure of some property of a piece of software or its specifications 108 107 105 Use case provide useful input for design of black-box test for SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET C 30 FP D None of above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 40 person-month D None of above A version control B naming convention (programming) C software archival agreements D all of above A the project's progress B Project's scheudle C Project's planning D None of above A ISO 9000 B ISO 9001 110 Software Configuration Management include 109 if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the software size is 112 Risk management is associated with 111 The purpose of project monitoring and control is to keep the team and management up to date on SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET
  14. 14. C ISO 31000 D None of above A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B Risk event x Probability of Occurrence C Constant (3.0) D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D Risk retention 113 Composite Risk Index value = 116 115 Self Insurance falls under 114 sprinklers are designed to put out a fire to reduce the risk of loss by fire is called SUJJECT CODE: 14/19 PGCET A we can always design test data to execute the controlled statement B the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is undecidable C the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is intractable D none of the above A an infinite number of test cases B 2^ 48 test cases C 2^164 test cases D None of above A error in code as negative values remain negative B The code finds absolute value of y C error in code as positive values remain negative D None of above 116 In an if statement 117 Jacob has written a program to complete the roots of the quadratic equation ax2+bx+c=0. Assuming a 16 bit computer to exhaustively test his program for all integer values for a, b and c he requires 118 Consider the code below begin If (y<=0) then y = 0-y; abs = y End; 119 Ashok rewrites part of the code in some production code making it more efficient. This maintenance activity is called SUJJECT CODE: 14/19 PGCET
  15. 15. A perfective B adaptive C corrective D none of above A perfective B adaptive C corrective D none of above A Testing can show the presence of bug but never absence B Testing can always find the bug C If we test enough we can find all bugs D None of above A By Analyst B By programmer 120 An error is detected in some production code. The maintenance effort to fix the error is called 121 Choose the correct statement 122 Testing is best done SUJJECT CODE: 15/19 PGCET C By Software Engineer D By independent test team A The tests he generates may give nonrepeatable results B The tests will always given repeatable results C He will find the bug for all runs of the program D None of the above. 124 Ramesh wants to test the folowing program by generating random test values for x and y. The error in the program is z = 22 should be there read (x); read ( y); If (x== y) then z = 2; else z = 0; end If; 123 Clinton wants to test his module where he had forgotten to initialize x If x = 0 then Write ("abnormal") Else Write ("normal"); End if; SUJJECT CODE: 15/19 PGCET
  16. 16. A Random testing is insufficient as the bug may never detected B Random testing will always find the bug C Random testing always generates equal value of x and y D None of above A Ramesh's testing is much better B Suresh's testing may be better than Ramesh C 200 test cases would have been enough D None of the above A His method of edge coverage is not enough B His testing is exhaustive as he will find all the bugs C His test data has to be carefuly designed and will work for all flow graphs D None of above 125 Suresh and Ramesh design test cases for a fragment of code. Suresh runs 100 test cases but Ramesh runs 200 test cases 126 Mohit writes test data which will exercise each edge of the flow graph for his program 127 Consider the above modules Ca and Cb where a and b are the sizes. Then SUJJECT CODE: 16/19 PGCET A E (a + b) > Ea + Eb B E (a + b) < Ea +Eb C E (a + b) > =Ea + Eb D None of the above A 01:10 B 01:02 C 01:05 D 01:20 A 01:03:05 B `1:10:100 C 01:03:10 D 01:02:05 A Ea < Eb B Ea > Eb 128 Variation in debugging : coding ability has been reported to be 129 Form the detailed design speciication. If the coding is done in C++ : C : assembler the resulting code sizes will be on the average. 130 Consider two modules A and B, both utility programs in the same organization developed by the same team of programmers, where a and b are the sizes, respetively. The cost to develop each module is Ca and Cb. The efforts are Ea and Eb. if Ca > Cb then SUJJECT CODE: 16/19 PGCET
  17. 17. C Ea = Eb D both (A) and (C) A Data abstraction B modularity C concurrency D data hiding A content,common,control,stamp B common,content,control,stamp C stamp,control,content,common D None of above A feasibility B Testing C Design D Maintenance 132 The rating of coupling of modules for strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) are 131 Informational cohesion is a realization of 133 The largest %cost of software life cycle is in SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET C Design D Maintenance A Process B Method C Architectue D None of above A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program 135 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of 134 Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering? 137 Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ? 136 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET
  18. 18. A Software does not wear out B Software is flexible C Software is not manufactured D Software is always correct A B Productivity C Reliability D Size A Functionality B Productivity C quality D Efficiency A Rupee B Person C Person - Months D Month 138 Which of the following is not a product matrix ? 141 Match the following 140 Efforts is measured in terms of ? 139 Which of the following is not a process metric ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B A 10 programmers B 8 programmers C 13 programmers D 100/13 programmers A 10 B 13 C 5 D 8 144 If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 143 If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 142 To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET
  19. 19. A 9 B 8 C D 0.9 A Robustness B Recovery from error C Security D None of above A 100 B 48 C 40 D 36 A uncover problem araes before they " go critical " B track potential risks C assess the status of an ongoing project D All of above 147 Project indicator enables a software project manager to ? 146 Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ? 145 Stress testing measures 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET A Partition teting B Random testing C Fault based testing D All of above A Technical B Management C Both A and B D None of above A Provide batch totals B Provide for a check digit C Provide hash totals D all of above 150 To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ? 149 In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ? 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET
  20. 20. 1 What is the grammar for generating strings like a=b=c? A right→leƩer=right|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z B right→leƩer=leƩer letter→a|b|..|z C right→leƩer=leƩer|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z D right→right=leƩer|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z 2 Out of the following grammars, which one is right associative grammar? A string→string+string|0|1|2|3 B stmt→if (expr) stmt else stmt C right→leƩer=right|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z D list→list+digit|digit digit→0|1|2|3 A synthesized B inherited C syntax D parsed A scanning B parsing C stack D analysis A left-to-right B top-down C right-to-left D Bottom-up A Linear,Hierarchical,Semantic B linear,portable,bottom-up C Linear,nonlinear,synthesis D linear,nonlinear,top-down A lexical analysis B semantic analysis C syntax analysis D synthesis A syntax tree B semantic tree C directed acyclic graph D graph A macro preprocessor B rational preprocessors C language extensions D File inclusion 6 In compiler, analysis consists of which three phases? 9 Who allows a user to define shorthands for longer constructs? 7 Hierarchical analysis is also called ___________ 8 __________ is the compressed representation of the parse tree. 3 An attribute is said to be ____ if its value at a parse tree node is determined from attribute values at the children of the node. 4 __________is the process of determining if a string of tokens can be generated by a grammar. 5 __________ can handle large class of grammars and translation schemes. SUJJECT CODE: 1/16 PGCET
  21. 21. A hypothetical machine code B relocatable machine code C pass code D register transfer code A backtracking B forwarding C backpatching D looping A parsing rule B syntax directed definition C operator precedence D semantic actions A token B context free grammar C lexeme D regular expression A semantic analyzer B lexical analyzer C code generator D parser A parsing,semantic analysis B regular expression,context free grammar C scanning,lexical analysis D code generator,code optimization A enhanced writability B enhanced portability C enhanced readability D enhanced security A lexeme B identifier C pattern D symbol A fi (a==f(x))… B a=(b C a=b c D all of the above 16 The advantage of separating analysis phase into lexical analysis and parsing is ______________ 17 const pi=3.1416, pi in lexical analysis is called _______ 18 Which error will not be identified by lexical analyzer? 13 ___________ is used to describe patterns 14 Which part of the compiler strip out comments from the source programme? 15 Lexical analyzers are divided into cascade of which two phases? 10 The output of the second pass of assembler is called what? 11 The technique of merging intermediate and target code generation into one pass is called __________. 12 In a translation scheme, ______ are embedded within the right sides of the production. SUJJECT CODE: 2/16 PGCET
  22. 22. A ahmedabad B med C bad D abad A gjrt B jar C gja D rag A gjrt B rjg C jug D rgu A balanced constructs B nested constructs C repeating strings D all of the above A misspelling an identifier B operator applied to incompatible operand C arithmetic expression with unbalanced parantheses D infinitely recursive calls A phrase level B panic mode C error production D global correction A canonical derivation B left derivation C derived derivation D constant derivation A rightmost derivation B leftmost derivation C top down derivation D bottom-up derivation A context free B context sensitive C ambiguous D regular 20 Which is the substring of string gujarat? 19 Which is the prefix of the string ahmedabad? 23 Out of the following , which one is the syntactic error? 24 synchronizing token is used in which type of error recovery? 21 Which is the subsequence of the string gujarat? 22 What can not be described by regular expressions? 27 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is said to be 28 A left recursive grammar can cause a recursive descent parser with backtracking to go into ____________ 25 Rightmost derivations are sometimes called _________ 26 E→-(E+E)→-(id+E)→(-id+id) , this is the example of SUJJECT CODE: 3/16 PGCET
  23. 23. A infinite loop B panic mode C recovery mode D execution mode A input buffer,stack,parsing table,output stream B input string, stack, transition diagram, output stream C input buffer,stack,regular definition,output stream D input buffer,stack, error recovery, output stream A nonterminal B terminal C synchronizing token D casesensitive character A both B and C B hard to read C difficult to use for translation process D none of the above A handle B right sentential form C left sentential form D handle pruning A handle B viable suffixes C viable prefixes D suffixes A number of symbols of lookahead B number of iterations C number of symbols on stack D number of sets A left most derivative B left-to-right scanning C left recursion D left factoring A right-to-left scanning B right side of the production C right most derivation in reverse D right recursion 31 Left recursion elimination and left factoring make the resulting grammar ______________ 32 A rightmost derivation in reverse can be obtained by what? 29 Which four components are there in table driven predictive parser? 30 FOLLOW function can be used as what during panic mode recovery? 35 In LR(k) parsing, "L" refers to _________ 36 In LR(k) parsing, "R" refers to 33 The set of prefixes of right sentential forms that can apper on stack of a shift reduce parser are called ______________ 34 In LR(k) - k refers to ___________ SUJJECT CODE: 4/16 PGCET
  24. 24. A synthesized B Nonterminal C terminal D inherited A dependency graph B directed graph C parse tree D syntax tree A run time allocation B static allocation C heap allocation D stack allocation A pointer reference B dangling reference C null reference D deallocated reference A top down parser B bottom up parser C predictive parser D recursive descent parser A SLR parsing table B Canonical LR parsing table C LALR parsing table D None of the above A Keeping track of variable declaration B Checking for the correct use of L values and R values C both A and B D None of these A syntax tree B post fix notation C three address code D all of these A shorter and slower B shorter and faster C longer and slower D longer and faster 39 Which storage allocation strategy manages the run time storage? 40 When there is a reference to storage that has been deallocated, the reference is called ___________________ 37 Which attribute value at a node in a parse tree is defined in terms of attributes at the parent and/or siblings of that node? 38 The directed graph that depicts interdependencies among the inherited and synthesized attributes at the nodes in the parse tree is called ____ 43 Inherited attribute is a natural choice in 44 An intermediate code form is 41 Shift reduce parsers are 42 YACC builds up 45 Instructions involving register operands are usually _______ and ______ than those involving operands in memory. SUJJECT CODE: 5/16 PGCET
  25. 25. A lexeme,pattern B pattern,lexeme C pattern,token D token,lexeme A predictive parser B recursive descent parser C Both a and b D Canonical LR parsing A LR(1) B LALR(1) C LL(1) D operator precedence A LL B LR C both a and b D neither a nor b A Expansion,control stacks B copying, control stacks C Activation,control stacks D None of these A Run time,compile time B link time,compile time C compile time,run time D link time,link time A starvation,dangling references B memory leaks,dangling references C starvation,memory leaks D starvation,heap allocation A Runtime B Peephole C Algorithmic D logical A Dead code B Hibernating code C static code D dynamic code 47 Non backtracking top-down parsers are also called ___________ 48 All SLR(1) grammars are also ________________. 46 A ____ is a rule that describes that set and a _____ is a sequence of characters matching the patterns 51 Static binding is performed at ____ while dynamic binding is performed at _____ 52 _____ and _____ are disadvantages of manual deallocation. 49 S-attributeddefinition can be implemented using ________ parsers. 50 The execution of a procedure body is called ___ of the procedure maintained on _____. 55 What will be the precedence relation id __ + __id 53 Eliminating redundant load is an example of ____ optimization. 54 Instructions that compute a value that is never used is called ____. SUJJECT CODE: 6/16 PGCET
  26. 26. A >,< B <,> C >,= D <,= A kernel item B nonkernel item C itemset D initial item A nonterminal,value B value,storage location C storage location,value D terminal,storage location A value B address of the memory location C name D none of the above A global B environment C control D local A weakly typed B static type C strongly typed D none of the above A "[a-zA-Z0-9]" B "[a-zA-Z]" C "[^"n]*["n] D "[a-zA-Z0-9]"n A make y.tab.c B make y.tab.c and y.tab.h C make y.tab.c and link to lex library D make y.tab.c and lex.yy.c A "+" and "-" appears on the left side of production B "+" appears to the left of "-" C "+" has a higher precedence than "-" D "+" and "-" are left associative 61 What is the regular expression for matching quoted strings? 62 What is the prurpose of -d option when following command is executed? yacc -d ch3-01.y 63 What is the interpretation of following YACC declaration? %left '+' '- ' 56 Initial item S'→.S is considered _________ 59 The stack holds all the ____ variables defined within a function during its activation. 60 What type of language is "C"? 57 The term l-value refers to the _________ of an expression and r-value refers to the ____ of an expression. 58 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. SUJJECT CODE: 7/16 PGCET
  27. 27. A match one,two or three occurences of letter A B match if the string contains A,1,2 and 3. C match one to three occurences of letter A D match if the string contains A,1 and 3. A id1:=id2+id3*60 B temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+id3*60.0 C temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+temp1 D temp1:=id3*60.0 id1:=id2+temp1 A expr→termexpr' expr'→+termexpr'|Є B expr→expr' expr'→term+expr C expr→termexpr' expr'→+termexpr' D expr→termexpr' expr'→Є A num→digit(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+)? B num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+) C num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+)?digit+)? D num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+)? A value B position C address D sata A value B program counter machine register C address D function definition A data constraints B heap constraints C stack constraints D addressing constraints 70 The storage layout for data object is strongly influenced by the_______of the target machine 71 what is true in case of static allocation 67 What is the regular definition of unsigned numbers? 68 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. 69 In case of procedure calls in C, what is saved on the stack? 64 What is the meaning of regular expression A{1,3} 65 What will be the output of the code optimizer, if the following input is given? temp1:=inttoreal(60),temp2:=id3*temp1,temp3:=id2*temp2,id1:=temp3 66 What will be the output if we remove the left recursion? expr→expr+term|term SUJJECT CODE: 8/16 PGCET
  28. 28. A the size of the data object must be known at compile time B recursive procedure are unrestricted C data structure can be created dynamically D all of these A fields whose sizes are not fixed early B fields whose sizes are defined at run time C fields whose sizes are not proper D fields whose sizes are fixed early A logical error B syntactical C lexical D semantic A (a,((a,a),(a,a))) B (a,(a,a),(a,a))) C (a,((a,a,(a,a))) D (a,((a,a,a,a))) A grammer generates all relational expression B grammer generates all logical expression C grammer generates all mathematical expression D grammer generates all boolean expression A not ambiguous B not a valid grammar C ambiguous D none of the above A LALR(1) B operator precedence C SLR(1) D undefined 76 This grammar is R → R' | 'R | RR | R* | (R) | a|b ______________ 77 What type of grammer is this ? S → Aa | bAc | dc | bda A → d 73 Use of dangling references, is what type of error? 74 consider the grammer S → (L) | S L → L, S | S which string we can generate out of above grammer ? 75 consider the grammer bexpr → bexpr or bterm | bterm bterm → bterm and bfactor | bfactor bfactor → rootbfactor | (bexpr) | true | false 72 what is placed in the middle in case of activation records ? SUJJECT CODE: 9/16 PGCET
  29. 29. A ab B aabb C abab D all of these A {a} B {Є} C {b} D {a,b} A {$,a,b} B {} C {a,b} D {Є} A 6 a's B 3 a's C 4 a's D 8 a's A produce a lexical analyzer from a regular-expression B use context free grammar C use directed acyclic graph D use heap storage A logical operations B speed of lexical analysis C stack implementation D ease of operations A DO is a keyword B DO is not a keyword C lexical error D lexical analyzer does panic mode recovery A to push scanned characters back in the input stream B To stop taking the input C to push lookahead characters back in the input stream D To read next character 85 what is the purposr of function ungetc if used with lexical analyzer ? 82 how lexical analyzer can be implemented ? 83 out of following what is the most concerned part for compiler design ? 84 what does the lexical analyzer do in case of following input ? DO 5 I = 1.25 79 S → AaAb | BbBa A → Є B → Є what is in the FIRST(A) ? 80 S → AaAb | BbBa A → Є B → Є what is in the FIRST(S) ? 81 Which string is not generated by the following grammer ? S → aSa | aa 78 consider the grammer S → aSbS | bSaS |Є which string can be generated by the above grammer ? SUJJECT CODE: 10/16 PGCET
  30. 30. A a-a B [a-a] C a+ D a* A bracket is not important B order of regular expression is not important C concatenation is associative D regular expression r,s,t are equal A r+ B (r|Є)* C (r|0)* D r+0 A To check whether the entered text is tring or integer B To convert the value to integer C to hold the lexical value returned D undefine the value A integer telling how long the lexeme is B string telling the value of the lexeme C number of digits in lexeme D number of alphabets in lexeme A each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the beginning B both buffer half holds a sentinel character at the end and beginning C each buffer half does not hold a sentinel character at the end D each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the end A delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim B delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim* C delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim+ D ws → blank | tab | newline 91 in the input buffering in lexical analysis where the sentinel character is kept ? 92 what regular expression lexical analyzer will use to strip out white spaces ? 88 what is the alternate representation for r* 89 for what purpose yylval is in LEX tool ? 90 for what purpose yyleng is in LEX tool ? 86 how can we specify pattern of zero or more a's in lexical analysis ? 87 what does the following rule specify if we write (rs)t = r(st) where r and s are regular expressions. SUJJECT CODE: 11/16 PGCET
  31. 31. A optional_fraction → (.digits) B optional_fraction → (.digits) + C optional_fraction → (.digits) * D optional_fraction → (.digits) ? A I={E→E'+.T} B I={E→E'+T} C I={E→E'.+T} D I={E→E'+T.} A not SLR(1) B SLR(1) C ambiguous D right recursive A evaluating B decorating C analyzing D traversing A directed acyclic graph B directed graph C syntax tree D parse tree A active B breadth first C top down D depth first A definition of a procedure - activation of the procedure B declaration of a name-binding of the name C scope of a declaration - lifetime of binding D all of these A as a hash indexed on the lexeme B as a pointer to the lexeme 100 How symbol table is stored in compiler? 97 What identifies the common subexpression in the expression? 98 The flow control in a program corresponds to _____ traversal of the activation tree. 99 Match the static notation and its dynamic counterpart in context of compiler. 94 I={E→E'.+T} then goto(I,+) consists of ____________ 95 What type of grammar is this? S→L=R S→R L→*R L→id R→L 96 The process of computing the attribute values at the nodes is called ______ the parse tree. 93 what regular expression lexical analyzer will we to find optional fractional part of decimal number ? SUJJECT CODE: 12/16 PGCET
  32. 32. C as a pattern index D as an array of values A labs B bat C ball D bracket A egrep -n -e '[$p-s]' B egrep -n -e '[p|s]' C egrep -n -e '[^p-s]' D egrep -n -e '[p-s]' A nonrecursive call B nondeterminism in transition diagram C recursive procedure call D determinism in transition diagram A translation interleaved with parsing B parse tree method C rule based method D all of these A state B state symbol on the top of the stack and current input symbol C current input symbol D FOLLOW set A reduce - reduce conflict B shift-reduce conflict C shift - shift conflict D reduce-shift conflict what is the syntex directed definition for the following ? 1. D → TL 2. T → int 3. T → real 4. L → L1, id 5. L → id 103 In which case we cannot build predictive parser? 104 Which methods can be used to compute the attributes of different symbols in syntax directed definition? 105 106 in upon constructing LR(1) sets of items following grammer generates which type of conflict ? S' → S S → aAd | bBd | aBe | bAe A → c B → c Who determines the shift reduce parsing decision? 107 101 Which pattern will match if following command is executed? egrep -n -e '[^b]a' 102 What regular expression will be written if we want to match any input line where letter p or q or s exist? SUJJECT CODE: 13/16 PGCET
  33. 33. A 1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) B 1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) C 1. T.type := L.in 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) D 1. T.type := integer 2. T.type := real 3. L.in:=T.type 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) A I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, c C → ●d, d B I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, c|d C → ●d, c|d C I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, C C → ●d, d D I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, C C → ●d, C A Quadruples B Indirect triples C Triples D none of these A E→TR R→addop T{print(addop.lexeme)}R1 | Є B E→TR R→addop T R1 | Є C E→TR R→addop {print(addop.lexeme)} T R1 | Є D E→TR R→addop T R1 {print(addop.lexeme)} | Є 108 what is the initial set of items in case of LR(1) items for the following augmented grammer ? S' → S S → CC C → cC | d 109 Which type of three address code requires lesser space? 110 Out of the following, which translation scheme maps infix expression to corresponding postfix expression? SUJJECT CODE: 14/16 PGCET
  34. 34. A X.x B Z.z C Y.y D A.a A value of local names must be retained when activation ends B A called activation outlives the caller C both of these D none of these A S→ iEtSS' S'→eS E→b B S→ iEtS' S'→eS|Є E→b C S→ iEtSS' S'→S|Є E→b D S→ iEtSS' S'→eS|Є E→b A grammar is not left recursive B S→ Aa|b A→cA'|adA'|Є C S→ Aa|b A→bdA'|A' A'→cA'|adA'|Є D cannot remove left recursion A recognize all programming language construct B most general nonbacktracking shift reduce parsing C superset of predictive parsers D all of these A difficult to understand B too much work to construct LR parser by hand C No drawback D No tool available to generate parser 117 114 What is the result if left recursion is removed from the grammar? S→ Aa|b A→Ac|Sd|Є 115 Why LR parser is attractive? 116 What is the drawback of LR parser? 111 For the semantic rule A.a:=f(X.x,Y.y,Z.z) is associated with the production A→XYZ. Before XYZ is reduced to A,which aƩribute will be on the top of the stack? 112 In which case stack allocation strategy cannot be used? 113 What is the result if left factoring is done on the grammar? S → iEtS | iEtSeS |a E→b What is the three address code for the statement if x<y goto lbl SUJJECT CODE: 15/16 PGCET
  35. 35. A lbl LT x y B lbl x y LT C LT x y lbl D none of these A common subexpression B dead code elimination C copy propagation D Loop optimization A common subexpression B code motion C copy propagation D Loop optimization A while(limit-2>=i) B while (i>limit-2) C t=limit-2 while(i<=t) D for(i=0;i<=limit-2;i++) 118 f:=g is related to which issue of the code optimization in compiler? 119 Which method decreses the amount of code in a loop? 120 What is the code motion equivalent of the statement while (i<=limit-2) SUJJECT CODE: 16/16 PGCET
  36. 36. A counter,registers and variables B counter,interrupt,functions C functions,stack,program counter D local and global variables A create B fork C system D process A interrupt array B interrupt routine C interrupt address D interrupt vector A deadlock B mutual exclusion C mutual awareness D mutual denial A shared heap B shared region C crtitical section D not accessible data A Turnaround B response time C throughput D all of these A preemptive scheduling B process starvation C premature leaving D process observation A too many process switches B too few process switches C increases CPU efficiency D too many sleeps A assembly program B thread C executable program D processs 1 process is an executing program, including the current values of the ____, _________ and ___________. 2 In UNIX process is created by which system call? 5 The part of the program, where the shared memory is accessed is called _____________ 6 Which criteria constitutes a good scheduling policy? 3 Which data structure contains the address of interrupt service procedure? 4 What term is used to indicate that if one process is using shared variable or file , the other processes will be excluded from doing the same thing. 9 A ___________ can be thought of as a program in execution. 7 Allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended that type of scheduling is called _____________ 8 In round robin scheduling , what is the effect of setting the two short quantum? SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET
  37. 37. A tasks,threads B processes,threads C jobs,user programs D jobs,tasks A stack B program counter C data section D heap A array B heap C vector D stack A running,ready,waiting B running,terminated,waiting C waiting,running,ready D ready,waiting,running A accumulators B index registers C stack pointers D all of these A memory management information B cPU registers C process state D accounting information A CPU and real time used B process priority C page tables D list of I/O devices A vector B linked list C tree D array 12 What does a process include that is memory that is dynamically allocated during processes run time? 13 Only one process can be ______ on any processor at any instant. Many processes may be ______ and ___________. 10 A batch system executes _____, wheareas a time-shared system has ____________. 11 A process includes the ________, which contains temporary data(such as function parameters,return addresses and local variables) 16 What is included as part of accounting information in case of process control block? 17 What data structure is used to store all processes? 14 The CPU registers in a process control block include which of the following? 15 Page tables and segment tables are part of which piece of information in process control block? 18 What does a ready queue header contain? SUJJECT CODE: 2/13 PGCET
  38. 38. A pointer to first process control block B pointer to final process control block C pointer to first and final process control block D do not contain any thing A process B particular I/O device C CPU D thread A process scheduler B short term scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler A process scheduler B short term scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler A slow B inefficient C fast D improper A interrupt processes B I/O bound processes C CPU bound processes D memory bound processes A all processses are interrupt processes B all processses are I/O bound processes C all processses are CPU bound processes D all processses are memory bound processes A real time system B batch system C time sharing system D single process system A context switch B process switch C memory switch D task switch 20 What type of scheduler is needed for batch system? 21 What type of scheduler is needed for processes that are ready to execute? 19 The list of processes in a device queue is waiting for a _______ 24 In which case short term scheduler has little work to do? 25 Which type of systems do not have long term scheduler? 22 short time scheduler is _________ 23 _________ uses more of its time doing computations. 26 The task of performing the state save of currrent process and state restore of a different process is called __________ 27 context switch time is overhead for the operating system because _____ SUJJECT CODE: 3/13 PGCET
  39. 39. A system goes in wait mode B system does useful work C system creates many new processes D system does no useful work A ps B execute C process D ls A root B parent C init D login A process pointer B process tag C process identifier D process table A cooperating B CPU sharing C memory sharing D I/O sharing A shared memory,vactor passing B shared memory,message passing C segmented memory,message passing D page memory,message passing A page memory B shared memory C message passing D segmented memory A intermediate amount of data B larger amounts of data C D smaller amounts of data A sending process is blocked until the message is received by receiving process B sending process is blocked until the message is not received by receiving process 28 On UNIX, listing of processing can be obtained using which command? 29 Which process in UNIX, serves as a root parent process for all processes? 32 Which two models can be used for interprocess communication? 33 Which concept is easier to implement for intercomputer communication? 30 each process in UNIX is identified by __________ 31 A process is _____ if it can affect or be affected by the other processes executing in the system. 34 message passing is useful for _______ 35 In which case send() call of message passing is considered blocking send? SUJJECT CODE: 4/13 PGCET
  40. 40. C sending process is blocked until the communication is established D sending process is blocked until the shared memory is defined A shmget() B shmat() C shmctl() D shmcreate() A undefined B many C one D none A sockets B remote procedure calls C Java's remote method invocation D all of these A allows a state of an object to be written to an array B allows a state of an object to be written to a vector C allows a state of an object to be written to a byte stream D allows a state of an object to be written to a file A time consuming and resource intensive B time consuming and resource starvation C time sharing and deadlock D time consuming and memory starvation A kernel threads B user threads C message threads D memory threads A entire process will block if a thread makes a computation B entire process will block if a thread makes a blocking system call C entire process will block if a thread makes an exit D no problem 36 shared memory segment can be removed with the help of which system call? 37 A system has one network address and it has ____ port 40 Which two problems are faced by process creation method? 41 Which types of threads are managed directly by the operating system? 38 Communication in client server system may use 39 Java provides an interface java.io.serializable. What is the use of object serialization? 42 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is many to one? SUJJECT CODE: 5/13 PGCET
  41. 41. A overhead of data B overhead of creating user threads C overhead of starting Operating system D overhead of creating kernel threads A increased responsiveness to user B resource sharing within the process C economy D all of these A tunaround time B throughput time C average time D wait time A time during which a process executes B time during which a process does I/O C spends waiting in the ready queue D all of these A real time system B interactive C time sharing D batch system A cycles of CPU execution B cycle of I/O wait C both A and B D none of these A minimize B maximize C average D none of these A process control block B process table C process identifier D free memory block 44 The benefits of multithreading include 45 The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is the ____ time. 43 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is one to one? 48 Process execution consists of ___________ 49 To guarantee that all users get good service, _____ the maximum response time. 46 The criteria of waiting time in CPU scheduling includes 47 In which type of system turnaround time may not be best criteria for CPU scheduling? 50 When a process enters the ready queue, what is linked onto the tail of queue? 51 What type of scheduling is first come first served? SUJJECT CODE: 6/13 PGCET
  42. 42. A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling C maximum output sceduling D minimum wait scheduling A real time system B interactive C time sharing D batch system A short term CPU scheduling B long term CPU scheduling C both of these D none of these A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling C both of these D none of these A unavailable I/O B unavailable memory C unavailable CPU D starvation A time limits,memory requirements,the number of open files, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst B time limits,memory requirements, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst C time limits,memory requirements,the previous priority, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst D time limits,memory requirements,the number of processes in ready queue, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst A 10 to 20 milliseconds B 10 to 100 milliseconds C 1 to 10 milliseconds D 10 to 50 milliseconds A n-1 B q C (n-1)xq D nxq 52 first come first served scheduling algorithm is troublesome for ____ systems 53 shortest job first scheduling algorithm cannot be implemented at the level of ______ 56 What criteria can be used to define priority in priority scheduling? 57 What is the time quantum in case of round robin scheduling? 54 shortest job first scheduling algorithm is 55 What is a major problem with priority scheduling? 58 In round robin scheduling , if there are n processes in the ready queue and time quantum is q What is the maximum waiting time for a process until its next time quantum? SUJJECT CODE: 7/13 PGCET
  43. 43. A nonpreemptive B preemptive C both of these D none of these A multiuser B interactive C batch D real time A counting B infinite C binary D none of these A resources a process will request and use during lifetime B memory usage pattern C resources a process will request D cannot avoid deadlock A read only files B printer C both of these D none of these A 1,2 B 2,3 C 1,2,3,4 D 1,2,4 A 300040 120900 B 300000 120940 C 300041 110999 D 300940 120000 A compile B run C execution D all of these 65 If program can logically access all addresses from 300040 through 420940(inclusive) then what value is hold by base register and limit register? 66 If the processs can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another , binding must be delayed until ____ time. 67 What is the role of memory management unit? 62 Deadlock avoidance require which information in advance? 63 Which of the following resource cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes? 64 A deadlock can occur if which of the following conditions hold simultaneously? 1. mutual exclusion 2. hold and wait 3. nopreemption 4. circular wait 59 Which type of kernel is free from race conditions? 60 preemptive kernel is suitable for which kind of process? 61 Which type of semaphores are known as mutex locks? SUJJECT CODE: 8/13 PGCET
  44. 44. A run time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses B load time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses C compile time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses D all of these A resident operating sytem,user processes B resident operating sytem,kernel processes C resident operating sytem,loader D resident operating sytem,compiler A allocate the first hole big enough B allocate smallest hole C allocate contiguous blocks D allocate largest hole A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C both of these D none of these A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C both of these D none of these A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C paging D none of these A internal,entire B external, last C internal,0 D external,0 A 4300 B 4353 C 4302 D 4355 74 In memory allocation, segment 2 is 400 bytes long and begins at location 4300. Reference to byte 53 of segment 2 is mapped onto location ____ 75 In which situation Direct access files are of great use? 71 There is a memory allocation scheme with a hole of 18464 bytes. If a processes requests 18462 bytes. Then 2 bytes are left with a hole if exact requested block is allocated. This is called ___________ 72 _____________ is a memory management scheme that permits the physiacl address of a process to be noncontiguous. 73 If a process needs npages plus 1 byte. It would be allocated n+1 frames, resulting in an _____ fragmentation of _____ frame. 68 The memory is divided into which two partitions? 69 What is worst fit strategy to select a free hole from the set of available holes in case of dynamic storage allocation problem? 70 first fit and best fit strategies of memory allocation suffer from ____ SUJJECT CODE: 9/13 PGCET
  45. 45. A For indirect access to small amount of information B For immediate access to indirect information C For immediate access to small amounts of information D For immediate access to large amounts of information A implement identity dependent access B implement group identity C implement role dependent access D implement file list A grep B egrep C nice D cal A indefinite blockage of low priority process in priority scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling in First come first served scheduling C preemptive scheduling in shortest job first D nonpreemptive scheduling in shortest job first A 1 and 3 B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3 A 1 and 3 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 2 D 1,2 and 3 A The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate init process B The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate itself in an orderly fashion 76 For what purpose access control list is used in operating system? 78 aging is the solution to which problem? 79 When a process creates a new process which two possibilities exist in terms of execution? 1. parent continues to execute concurrently with children 2. The parent waits until some or all of its children have terminated. 3. The parent exits so children gets memory for execution 77 Which command can be used in Linux to set priority in priority based scheduling? 80 When a new process is created, which are the two possibilities in terms of the address space? 1. The child process is a duplicate of the parent process 2. The child process has a new program loaded into it. 3. The parent,child process are shifted to new memory area. 81 What is deferred cancellation in case of cancellation of a target thread? SUJJECT CODE: 10/13 PGCET
  46. 46. C The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate memory operations D The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate I/O operations A random number greater than 0 B 1 C 1356 D 0 A physical and virtual memory B open files C I/O buffers D all of these A 1,2,3 B 1,2 C 2,3 D 1,3 A assembler B loader C object module D none of these A a new shared memory segment is created. B a new shared memory segment is created with read permission. C a new shared memory segment is created with write permission D a new shared memory segment is created in private memory are. A shared memory is detached B user selects the location where the shared memory will be attached 87 What is the meaning of NULL in the system call shmat(id,NULL,0)? 84 In which case parerent may terminate the execution of one of its children? 1. The child has exceeded its usage of some of the resources that it has been allocated. 2. The task assigned to the child is no longer required. 3. The parent is exiting and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if its parent terminates. 85 The assembler generates object modules for loader who is a consumer in this? 86 What does IPC_PRIVATE in case of system call shmget(IPC_PRIVATE,size,S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR) 83 Which resources are deallocated by operating system when a process terminates? 82 When fork() is used to create a child process, what is the pid for the child process? SUJJECT CODE: 11/13 PGCET
  47. 47. C operating system selects the location where the shared memory will be attached D process selects the location where the shared memory will be attached A servicing a request with an existing thread is usually faster than writing to create thread. B A thread pool limits the number of threads that exist at any one point. C A and B D none of these A When a process switches from running to waiting state B When a process switches from running to ready state C When a process switches from waiting to ready state D all of these A 24 milliseconds B 27 milliseconds C 10 milliseconds D 17 milliseconds A 6 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 5 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 6 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds D 6 milliseconds 93 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of nopreemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 94 The five processes A,B,C,D,E has burst time 10,1,2,1,5 and priority 3,1,4,5,2 respectively. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of priority scheduling algorithm is ____ 90 In First come First serve scheduling policy, the burst time for processes A,B,C is 24,3,3. burst time in milliseconds. If the processes arrive in orser B,C,A - the average waiting time 91 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 6,8,7,3. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of simple shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 92 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of preemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 88 Thread pools offer which benefit? 89 What is the reason for CPU scheduling decisions? SUJJECT CODE: 12/13 PGCET
  48. 48. A 6.9 milliseconds B 8.2 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds D 6.3 milliseconds A 10 milliseconds B 7.4 milliseconds C 6.2 milliseconds D 5.66 milliseconds A First come first served B shortest job first C priority D none of the above A design a protocol that the process can use to cooperate B design a protocol that the process can use to access kernel thread C design a protocol that the process can use to access shared memory D design a protocol that the process can use to access CPU A 30 hours B 32 hours C 28 hours D 24 hours A 10% B 9% C 0.10% D 0% A in = out B ((in+1)%BUFFER_SIZE)=out C buffer cannot be full D in + 1 =out 100 The shared buffer is implemented in a circular array with two logical pointer in and out. The variable in points to the next free position in the buffer; out points to the first full position in the buffer. In which situation buffer is full? 98 In priority scheduling, if priorities range from 127(low) to 0(high) anf if priority of waiting process is increased by 1 every 15 minutes, then how many hours will be taken for a priority 127 to reach to priority 0. 97 What is a critical section problem? 99 If short term scheduler takes 10 milliseconds to decide to execute a process for 100 milliseconds then _____ percent of the CPU is being used for scheduling the work. 96 If time quantum is too large, round robin scheduling degenerates to which scheduling policy? 95 If three processes A,B,C arrive at time 0 and length of the CPU burst in milliseconds is 24,3,3 respectively and if the time quantum is of 4 milliseconds then average waiting time in round robin scheduling is _____. SUJJECT CODE: 13/13 PGCET
  49. 49. 7 Regular Grammar is subset of A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar C Unrestricted Grammar D All of these 1 A Relation R is called Equivalence Relation if R is A Reflexive B Symmetric C Transitive D All of these 2 A function is called “onto” or “surjective” A If domain and co- domain are same B If the range and co- domain are same C If the range and domain are same D None of these 3 For Language L following is not true A L+ = L*L B L+ = L L* C L+ = L*L* D All are true 4 In which machine all of the moves for an alphabet must be specified? A Finite Automata B NFA C NFA – Λ D All of these 5 Turing Machine is more powerful than Finite Automata because A It has no finite state control B It has the capabilities to remember arbitrary long sequence of input symbols C Tape movement is confined to one direction only D None of these 6 Push Down Automata uses A Tape B Queue C Stack D Tree
  50. 50. 8 (00 + 01 + 10)(0+1)* represents A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length C Strings not starting with 11 D None of these 9 (00 + 01 + 10 + 11)* represents A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length C Strings starting with 00 D None of these 10 The regular expression 0*1(0*10*1)* represents strings with A Even no. of 1’s B Odd no. of 1’s C Odd no. of zeroes D None of these 11 Finite Automata can not have A Accepting State B Starting State C Transition Function D More than one transitions for same input from a state 12 A BC Rule is not allowed in A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar C Regular Grammar D CNF 13 Starting Symbol of a Grammar is subset of A Terminal Symbols B Non Terminal Symbols C Alphabet D Language 14 Following is not a primitive operation of a Regular Language A L1 ∩ L2 B L1 ∪ L2 C L1.L2 D L1* 15 The Regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's is A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ) B (0 +10) * C (0 +11) * D None of these 16 The set of strings over {a, b}* that contain the substring aa is. A a(a*ba*b)*a* B (a)*(b+a)(b) C (aa + bb)* D (a + b)*aa (a + b)*
  51. 51. 17 The regular expression (a + b)* abb denotes: A all possible combinations of a’s and b’s B set of all strings ending with abb C set of all strings starting with and ending with abb D None of these 18 Given two DFA’s M1 and M2” They are equivalent if: A M1 and M2 has the same number of states B M1 and M2 has the sane number of final states. C M1 and M2 accepts the same language i.e. L(M1)= L(M2) D None of these 19 Given a finite automata M =(Q, Σ, δ, qo’ F), If δ maps Q x Σ to 2Q then: A M is NFA B M is DFA C M is NFA with ε-moves D None of these 20 Which of the following phase of compilation process is an optional phase : A Lexical analysis phase B Syntax analysis phase C Code generation phase. D Code optimization phase 21 Which of the following statement is negation of the statement? A 2 is even and -3 is not negative B 2 is odd or -3 is not negative C 2 is odd and -3 is not negative D 2 is even or -3 is not negative 22 Which of the following are the aspects of the high level languages? A Ease of understanding B Naturalness C portability D All of Above 23 In a Finite State Machine, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a function which maps A Q ∑ X Q B Q X ∑ Q C Q A D Q X q0 ∑ 24 In an NFA, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a function which maps A Q X ∑ Q B Q X ∑ Q2 C Q X ∑ 2Q D Q X ∑* Q
  52. 52. 25 By Kleens theorem we prove that A Any language is accepted by FA B Any Regular Language is accepted by FA C Any CFG is accepted by FA D None of these 26 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1 ∪ L2 then A Only A1 is accepting State B Only A2 is accepting State C We must add new accepting States D Both A1 and A2 are accepting State 27 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1. L2 then A Only A1 is accepting State B Only A2 is accepting State C We must add new accepting States D Both A1 and A2 are accepting State 28 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1.L2 then A q1 is starting State B q2 is starting State C We must add new starting State D None of these 29 If f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) = x3 , then (f O g)(x) is A (cos(x))3 B cos (3x) C x3(cosx) D Cos(x3 ) 30 P q is logically equivalent to (here ~ is Negation Sign) A ~q p B ~p q C ~p Λ q D ~p Ѵ q 31 Let the classes of Languages accepted by finite state machines be L1 and the class of Languages represented by regular expressions be L2 then, A L1 is subset of L2 B L2 is subset of L1 C L1 = L2 D L1 ∩ L2 = ф 32 Tautology is A Always True B Always False C Partially True D None of these 33 δ* of Finite Automata is
  53. 53. A Transition Function B Extended Transition Function C Non Recursive Function D None of these 34 Following is an Ambiguous Grammar A S S + S | S * S | a B S aSa | Λ C S aS | Λ D None of these 35 CFG stands for A Compile Free Grammar B Content Free Grammar C Context Free Grammar D None of these 36 In a Push Down Automata, Which of the following Stack operations can not be performed on a particular move? A PUSH B PEEP C POP D None of these 37 Recursive Languages are recognizable by A FA B NFA C NFA - ᴧ D Turing Machine 38 Minimum length of the string formed by Regular Expression (a+b)* abac*(a+b)+ A 3 B 6 C 4 D 8 39 (a+b)* represents A Null String B All Strings of a’s and b’s C String starting with a D None of these 40 If the language L is Recursive language then L is finite or infinite is A Decidable B Un-decidable C Still an open question D None of these 41 Turing Machine can’t solve Halting Problem is A True B False C Still an open question D None of these 42 If P = NP then A P and NPC are different B NP and NPC are different C P,NP and NPC are same D None of these
  54. 54. 43 The Coloring Problem is A NP Hard Problem B NP Complete Problem C P Problem D None of these 44 Conversion from NFA to DFA is done by A Subset construction B Kleen’s Theorem C Minimization Algorithm D Cook’s Theorem 45 Pumping Lemma is used to decide whether Language L is A Context Sensitive B Context Free C Recursive D Not a Regular 46 Which of the following is true? A (a+b)* = (a+b)(a+b)* B (a+b)* = a*b* C (a+b)* = (a*b*)* D None of these 47 (1+0)*0 represents A Binary number that are multiples of 2(two). B String starting with 1 C String starting with 0 D None of these 48 CFG : S SS+ | SS* | a , generates A Prefix Expression B Postfix Expression C Infix Expression D None of these 49 CFG: S aSb | Λ , generates language A (ab)n B ab(a+b)* C (a+b)*(ab)n D an bn 50 The Regular Sets are closed under A Union B Concatenation C Kleen’s Closure D All of Above 51 The output of a moore machine is A Depend on present state and present input B Depend only on the present state C Depend only on present input D All of these
  55. 55. 52 In a Context Sensitive Grammar, no. of Grammar symbols on the left side of a Production can’t be greater than the no. of A Grammar Symbols on right side B Terminals on the right side C Non Terminals on right side D All of these 53 A given grammar is called ambiguous if A 2 or more productions have same non terminal on the left hand side B A derivation tree has more than on associated sentence C Brackets are not present in the grammar D There is a sentence with more than one derivation tree. 54 Let L be a language recognizable by a Finite Automata, then reverse of the language is a A Regular Language B Context Free Language C Context Sensitive Language D Recursively Enumerable Language 55 The logic of Pumping Lemma is a good example of A Pigeon – Hole principle B Divide & Conquer Technique C Recursion D Iteration 56 The no. of Auxiliary memory required for a Push Down Automata to behave as a Finite Automata is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 57 A Push Down Automata behaves like a Turing Machine when no. of Auxiliary memory it has is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 58 Context Free Grammar is not closed under A Concatenation B Union C Complementation D Kleens 59 For two regular languages L1 = (a+b)*b and L2 = b(a+b)*, then L1 ∩ L2 is given by A (a+b)*ab B ab(a+b)* C a(a+b)*b D b(a+b)*a 60 If L is a language recognizable by a Finite Automata then subset of the Language is A Regular Language B Context Free Language
  56. 56. C Context Sensitive Language D Recursively Enumerable Language 61 Which of the following is not accepted by any deterministic Push Down Automata? A String ending in particular alphabet B Strings in which a given symbol is present atleast twice C Even palindromes D None of these 62 If S be an infinite set and S1 ∪ ܵ2 … ∪ ܵ݊ = S, then A Atleast one of the set Si is a finite set B Atleast one of the sets Si is an infinite set C Not more than on of the set Si can be finite D None of these 63 A Grammar that produces more than one Parse tree for same sentence is A Ambiguous B Unambiguous C Regular D None of these 64 Which of the following Regular Expressions denotes a language comprising all possible strings over the alphabet (a,b) A a*b* B (a+b)* C (ab)+ D (a+b*) 65 An Finite Automata can be considered to be a Turing Machine of finite length A Rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement B Without rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement C Rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement D Without rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement 66 Palindromes can’t be recognized by any Finite Automata because A FA can’t deterministically fix the mid-point B FA can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information C Both A and B D None of these 67 If ∑ = (a,b,c,d,e,f), then no. of string in ∑ of length 4 such that no symbol is used more than once in a string is A 60 B 360 C 240 D 720 68 If L = x*(x + yx), then which of the following is not a legal string within L? A yx B xyx
  57. 57. C x D xyxyx 69 If every string of a language can be determined, whether it is legal or illegal in finite time, the language is called A Decidable B Undecidable C Interpretive D Non-determinstic 70 Can a DFA simulate NFA? A No B Yes C Sometimes D Depends on NFA 71 Regular Expression (a+b) denotes the set A {a} B {є, a,b} C {a,b} D {ab} 72 Regular Expression (a+b)(a+b) denotes the set A {a,b,ab,aa} B {a,b,ba,bb} C {a,b} D {aa,ab,ba,bb} 73 Which of the following regular expression denotes zero or more instances of a or b? A a + b B (ab)* C (a+b)* D a* +b 74 The automata is a ____ device and a grammar is a _____ device A generative,cognitive B generative,acceptor C acceptor,cognitive D cognitive, generative 75 The Regular sets are closed under A Union B Concatenation C Kleens’ Closure D All of these 76 To accept strings with N characters the Finite Automata contains minimum A N states B N + 1 States C N + 2 States D N - 1 States 77 Number of Articulation Points in a Rectangle is A 0 B 1 C 2 D 4 78 For a simple connected graph G with n vertices and n edges(n>2), which of the following statement are true? A G has no cycles B G is a Spanning Tree
  58. 58. C G has atleast one cycle D None of these 79 Finite State Machine can recognize A Any Grammar B Only Context Free Grammar C Any Unambiguous Grammar D Only Regular Grammar 80 S aSa | bSb | Λ recognizes A Even Palindrome in (a,b)* B Odd Palindrome (a,b)* C Any Palindrome in (a,b)* D None of these 81 Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization A P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3 B P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 C P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 D P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 82 Find a regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's. A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ ) B (0 +10) * C (11 +010) * D None of these 83 Which phase detects and ignores the comments? A Lexical B Syntax C Semantic D Code Generator 84 The set of strings over {a, b} that contain the substring aa. A (ab)*a B (a + b)*aa (a + b)* C a*(a+b)* D None of these 85 The Left Linear Grammar is A Regular Grammar B CNF C Not a Regular Grammar D None of these 86 Modification of Simple Turing Machine(TM) can be done by
  59. 59. A Multi-Tape TM B Multi-Head TM C Universal TM D All of these 87 Regular Grammar is A Type – 0 B Type – 1 C Type – 2 D Type – 3 88 “Dangling else” is a phenomenon related to A Regular Grammar B Unambiguous Grammar C Ambiguous Grammar D None of these 89 For minimization of Finite Automata we find A Equivalent States B Unreachable State C Finite States D None of these 90 Any Regular Expression is easily converted to A FA B NFA C NFA - Λ D None of these 91 Λ - closure (Null Closure) of a state in NFA - Λ contains A The state itself B All states obtained from Λ - transitions from the state C Both A and B D None of these 92 (11+101)(1+0)* represents A String starting with 11 and 101 B String starting either with 11 or 101 C Strings always starting with 11 D None of These 93 f:R+ R, f(x) = x2 function is A Both onto and one-to- one B Not onto but one-to-one C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one 94 f:R+ R+ , f(x) = x2 function is A Both onto and one-to- one B Not onto but one-to-one C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one
  60. 60. 95 If NFA contains n states then by subset construction the equivalent DFA contains maximum of A n2 states B 2n states C n3 states D 2n states 96 Recursively Enumerable Grammar falls in A Type – 0 B Type – 1 C Type – 2 D Type – 3 97 For simplification of CFG following can be done A Eliminate Null Production B Eliminate not reachable Variables C Eliminate Unit Production D All of these 98 In case of Turing Machine(TM) by reading input x, TM A May go to infinite loop B May go to halt-non final state C May go to halt-final state D All of these 99 Recursively Enumerable Languages are A A proper subset of CFLs B Always recognizable by PDA. C Also called type-0 languages D All of these 100 Any language generated by a Unrestricted Grammar is A Regular Language B Recursively Enumerable Language C Context Free Language D None of these 101 Which of the following properties of Recursively Enumerable sets are decidable? A Emptiness B Finiteness C Regularity D None of these 102 Finite State Machine can recognize A Only Context Free Grammar B Only Regular Grammar C Any unambiguous Grammar D Any Grammar 103 Which of the following problem is not NP-Hard? A Travelling Salesman Problem B 0/1 Knapsack Problem
  61. 61. C Graph Coloring D None of these 104 In a Grammar : S aSa | bSb | Λ For recognizingstring “abba” the number of productions used are A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 105 Finite Automata do not find application in A Syntax Checking B Recognition of Tokens C Checking string ending with some alphabets D None of these 106 “NFA can be simulated by a DFA.” The statement is A True B False C Depends on NFA D Depends on DFA 107 Universal Turing Machine influenced the concept of A Stored program computers B Interpretive implementation of programming language C Computability D All of these 108 Following is not a proof method A Contradiction B Contra-positive C Recurrence D Principle of Mathematical Induction 109 “Finite Automata is a particular case of NFA”. The statement is A False B True C Partially true D Depends upon NFA 110 In NFA, a particular state can have A Zero Transition on an alphabet B One Transition on an alphabet C More than One Transition on an alphabet D All of above 111 (00+11+01+10)* represents A Strings of odd length B Strings of even length C Strings starting with 00 D Strings ending in 10 112 For the language (00)*(11)* drawing/designing ____ is easier. A FA B NFA
  62. 62. C NFA - Λ D Universal TM 113 Which of the following is not true with respect to regular expression? A (a+b)* = (b+a)* B (ab)* = a*b* C (ab+ba)* = (ba+ab)* D (a+b)+ = (a+b)(a+b)* 114 Bottom Up Parsing have A Shift operation B Reduce Operation C Both A and B D None of these 115 With respect to Grammar, Following is the part of actual string of a Language A Variables B Start Symbol C Non Terminal Symbol D Terminal Symbol 116 Grammar: S [S] | {S} | SS | Λ represents A Strings with Λ symbols B Strings with Unbalanced Brackets C Strings with Balanced Brackets D Strings like {SSSS}… 117 L={xcxr / x Є (a,b)* } can be recognized by A FA B NFA C NFA - Λ D Push Down Automata 118 A function f is called bijection if f is A onto B surjective C Both onto and surjective D None of these 119 0(1+0)*0 represents all strings A Starting with 0 B Ending in 0 C Contains substring 00 D Starting with and ending in 0 120 Total no. of substrings of the letter “TOC” (without considering NULL) equal to A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6
  63. 63. 7 An algorithm is made up of 2 modules Ml and M2. If order of M1 is f(n) and M2 is g(n) then the order of the algorithm is A max (f (n) ,g (n)) B min (f (n) ,g (n) ) C f (n) + g (n) D f (n) x g (n ) 1 The depth of a complete binary tree is given by A Dn = n log2n B Dn = n log2n+1 C Dn = log2n D Dn = log2n+1 2 Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and- conquer type? A Bubble sort B Insertion sort C Quick sort D All of above 3 The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by A Counting microseconds B Counting the number of key operations C Counting the number of statements D Counting the kilobytes of algorithm 4 The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when A Item is somewhere in the middle of the array B Item is not in the array at all C Item is the first element in the array D Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all 5 The Average case occur in linear search algorithm A When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array B When Item is not in the array at all C When Item is the last element in the array D When Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all 6 The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is A O(n) B O(log n) C O(n2 ) D O(n log n)
  64. 64. 8 There are 4 different algorithms AI, A2, A3, A4 to ·solve a given problem with the order Iog(n), log(log(n)), nIog(n) ,n / log(n) respectively. Which is the best algorithm? A A1 B A2 C A3 D A4 9 The time complexity of an algorithm T(n), where n is the input size, is given by T( n) = T( n - 1) + (1/n) if n > 1 The order of this algorithm is A log n B n C n2 D nn 10 The running time of an algorithm is given by T(n) = T(n - 1) + T(n - 2) - T(n - 3), if n > 3 n, otherwise. A n B log n C nn D n2 11 Which of the following algorithms solves the all-pair shortest path problem? A Dijkstra's algorithm B Floyd's algorithm C Prim's algorithm D Warshall's algorithm 12 For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m + n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m + n) D O(log(m) + log(n)) 13 Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick sort algorithm? A Dynamic programming B Backtracking C Divide and conquer D Greedy method 14 The correct matching for the following pairs is (A) 0/1 Knapsack (1) Greedy (B) Quick sort (2) Depth-first search (C) Minimum weight (3) Dynamic programming (D) Connected Components (4) Divide and conquer
  65. 65. A A-2 , B-4 , C-1, D-3 B A-3 , B-4 , C-l , D-2 C A-3 , B-4 , C-2 , D-1 D A-4 , B-1 , C-2 , D-3 15 In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a single linked list of length n for a given element is A log(n) B n/2 C log(n/2)-1 D n 16 For the bubble sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? (assume that the computation stops as soon as no more swaps in one pass) A best case: O(n) worst case: O(n*n) B best case: O(n) worst case: O(n*log(n)) C best case: O(1) worst case: O( n ) D best case: O(n*log(n)) worst case: O(n*n) 17 When we say the order of a tree is M, we mean A Every non-leaf node must have M subtrees B Every non-leaf node must have M keys C Every non-leaf node can have at most M subtrees D The Height of the tree is M. 18 Worst case Time Complexity of Merge Sort is A O(n2 ) B O(n log(n) ) C O(2 log(n) ) D O(n2 log(n) ) 19 The number of edges in a Minimum Spanning Tree of a connected Graph G with n vertices is A n log(n) B n! C n*(n-1)/2 D n - 1 20 Time Complexity of Tower of Hanoi Problem (Recursive) with n disks is A n2 B 2n C 3n D n3 21 Total Degree of a Triangle is A 6 B 4 C 3 D 2 22 Travelling Salesman Problem is A NP Problem B P Problem
  66. 66. C Halting Problem D All of Above 22 For the Quick sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? A best case: O(log(n)) worst case: O(n2 ) B best case: O(n2 ) worst case: O(n log(n)) C best case: O(n log(n) ) worst case: O(n2 ) D best case: O(n2 ) worst case: O(n2 log(n) ) 23 A Bi-connected Graph Certainly does not contain any A Cycle B Path C Parallel Edges D Cut Vertex 24 N-Queens Problem can be solved easily by A Dynamic Programming B Backtracking Method C Greedy Method D Divide and Conquer Method. 25 Max Heap Tree has following Property. A Right Child > Parent B Both Children > Parent C Both Children < Parent D None of above 26 Heap Tree is A Complete Binary Tree B Cyclic Graph C 3-way Search Tree D Forest 27 Dynamic Programming Method is not suitable to solve A 0/1 Knapsack Problem B Making Change Problem C Binomial Co-efficient D Fractional Knapsack Problem 28 Krushkal’s Algorithm uses A Greedy Method B Divide and Conquer Method. C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound Method 29 NP Problem is A Polynomial Problem B Non Deterministic Polynomial Problem C Easy to Solve problem D All of Above 30 For a same problem If Time Complexity of Recursive algorithm is x and Time Complexity of Iterative algorithm is y, then A x < y B x > y
  67. 67. C x = y D can not be said 31 for(i=1 ; i<=n ; i++) printf(“**”) ; The above C code has Time Complexity of A 1 B log(n) C n log(n) D N 32 Binary Search Method has Worst Case Time Complexity of A 2n B nlog(n) C log(n) D n*n 33 The number of ways to multiply 4 Matrices in a Chained Matrix Multiplication A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 34 Worst case Time Complexity of Linear Search is A O(n) B O(log(n)) C O(1) D O(nlog(n)) 35 Breadth First Search method uses A Stack B Queue C Hash Table D None of these 36 Minimum no. of states to Search/Recognize string “nano” with Finite Automata is A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 37 Following is a NP Problem related to Graph A To find Longest Path B To find Shortest Path C To find Minimum Spanning Tree D To find a Cycle 38 The “Principle of Optimality” is used in A Greedy Method B Backtracking C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound 39 Worst case Time Complexity of Multiplication of two n X n Matrix is A n2 B n2 log(n) C n log(n) D n3 40 Worst case Time Complexity of Addition of two n X n Matrix is A n2 B n2 log(n) C n log(n) D n3
  68. 68. 41 The running time of the following sorting algorithm depends on whether the partitioning is balanced or unbalanced A Insertion sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort 42 The average case complexity of Insertion Sort is A O(2n ) B O(n2 ) C O(n3 ) D O(2n) 43 The spanning tree of connected graph with 10 vertices contains A 9 edges B 10 edges C 11 edges D 11 vertices 44 Worst case Time Complexity of Heap Sort Algorithm is A O(log(n))2 B O(n) C O(n2 ) D O(nlog(n)) 45 In a heap tree bottom level should be filled A From left to right. B From right to left. C Completely. D None of these 46 The height of heap tree of N data is A O(N) B O(N log(N)) C O(log(N) ) D O(2N) 47 A sorted array in ascending order is A MAX Heap B MIN Heap C Not a Heap Tree D None of these 48 Which of the following algorithm do not have a time complexity of O(n2 ) A Bubble Sort B Shell Sort C Radix Sort D Quick Sort 49 Consider the Array: 26, 35, 11, 49, 54, 30, 80. How array will look like after 2 (two) iterations of Bubble Sort? A 26, 11, 35, 49, 54, 30, 80 B 26, 11, 35, 49, 30, 54, 80 C 11, 26, 35, 30, 49, 54, 80 D None of these
  69. 69. 50 In a Selection Sort of n elements, how many times is the swap function called in the complete execution of the algorithm? A 1 B n-1 C n log(n) D n2 51 Which of the following sorts have a O(n log(n)) Worst case performance? A Insertion Sort B Quick Sort C Heap Sort D None of these 52 An hash table with chaining as a collision resolution technique degenerates to a A Stack B Queue C Linked List D Tree 53 Consider the following statements. I. An algorithm is a no. of steps to be performed to solve a problem. II. To a given problem there may be more than one algoritm. A Only I is correct B Only II is correct C Both I and II are false D Both I and II are correct 54 Analyzing of an algorithm involves A Evaluating the complexity only B Validating the algorithm Only C Both Validating the algorithm and Evaluating the Complexity D None of these 55 The running time of an algorithm means A No. of Primitive Operations(Steps) executed in a machine- independent manner B Time taken on a Standard Computer to execute the program C Time taken by the algorithm on a particular input size. D None of these 56 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these
  70. 70. 57 f(n) = (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these 58 f(n) = O (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these 59 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) implies A f(n) = O (g(n) ) only B f(n) = (g(n) ) only C f(n) = O (g(n) ) and f(n) = (g(n) ) D None of these 60 T(n) = 2 T(n/2) + k.n , where k is constant, then T(n) is equal to A O(n log(n)) B O( log(n) ) C O(n ) D O(n2 ) 61 Time Complexity of Recursive Fibonacci algorithm is A O(n2 ) B O(n3 ) C O(n2 log(n) ) D O(Cn ), where C is a constant 62 Assume the input array is nearly sorted. Then performance of Quick sort is A Better than Average case B Worst than Average case C Same as in Average case D None of these 63 At least how many comparisons are required for merging two sorted lists of n elements each? A 2n -1 B n-1 C 2n+1 D n 64 Which of the following data structure may be used to aid implementation of radix sort? A Stack B Heap C Binary Search Tree D Queue 65 What is the preferred form of representation of Dense graph? A Adjacency Matrix B Adjacency List
  71. 71. C Incidence Matrix D None of these 66 What is the running time of an efficient algorithm to find an Euler Tour in a graph if one exists? A O( |V| ) B O( |E| ) C O( |V| |E| ) D O( |V|2 ) 67 Following Problem(s) is NP Complete A Vertex Cover B SAT(Satisfiable) C K-Colouring D All of these 68 Graphs are represented using A Adjacency tree B Adjacency linked list C Adjacency Graph D Adjacency Queue 69 Infinite recursion leads to A Overflow of run-time stack B Underflow of registers usage C Overflow of I/O cycles D Underflow of run-time stack 70 The running time for creating a heap of size n is A O (n) B O (log n) C O (n log n) D O (n2 ) 71 Recursive procedures are implemented by using ____ data structure. A Queues B Stacks C Linked Lists D Strings 72 A technique for direct search is A Binary Search B Linear Search C Tree Search D Hashing 73 For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the degree of each vertex is equal to A 2n B (2n-1)/2 C 2e D e2 /2 74 Which of the following sorting methods would be most suitable for sorting a list which is almost sorted A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
  72. 72. 75 A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left. The output sequence will be in A Ascending order B Descending order C Bitomic sequence D No specific order 76 Quick sort is also known as A merge sort B heap sort C bubble sort D None of these 77 An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities f (n) and g (n). Then the complexities of the algorithm is in the order of A f(n) x g(n) B Max ( f(n),g(n)) C Min (f(n),g(n)) D f(n) + g(n) 78 The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes A O(1) time B O(n2 ) time C O( log n ) time D O(n log n ) time 79 The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e edges is A O(e) B O(n) C O(e2 ) D O(n2 ) 80 Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use A Hash Tables B Linear lists of Records C Binary Search Tables D Binary Search Trees 81 For merging two sorted lists of size m and n into a sorted size of m+n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m+n) D O(log(m) + log(n )) 82 The running time T(n) is given as T(n) = c + T(n-1) , if n >1 = d , if n<=1 The order of the algorithm is
  73. 73. A n2 B n C n3 D nn 83 Which of the following shows the correct relationship? A O(nlog(n) ) < O(n) B O(2n ) < O(n2 ) C O(n3 ) < O(n2 log(n) ) D O(log(n) ) < O(n) 84 Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is a method to traverse A Graph using shortest path B All successors of a visited node before any successors of any of those successors C A single path of the graph as far as it can go D None of these 85 The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks them up one by one , is an example of A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Insertion Sort D Merge Sort 86 The concept of Order (Big O) is important because A It can be used to decide the best algorithm that solves a given problem B It determine the Maximum space occupied by the algorithm C It is the lower bound of the growth rate of the algorithm D None of these 87 The common implementation of a heap is A Array B Linked List C Multilinked Structure D Doubly Linked List 88 The depth-first search A Uses a queue B Uses a stack C Searches a tree D Searches a linked list 89 For NP-Complete problem A Several Polynomial time algorithms are available. B Polynomial Time algorithms are not exist, hence can not be discovered
  74. 74. C No Polynomial Time algorithm is discovered yet D None of Above 90 If P(n) = n2 then what is correct? A P(n) = n3 B P(n) = n4 C P(n) = n2 D All of the above 91 An algorithm A Is a finite set of instructions B Any well defined computational procedure C Zero or more quantities are externally supplied and at least one quantity is produced. D All are correct 92 Which of the following is type of amortized analysis? A Aggregate Method B Accounting Method C Potential Method D All of these 93 Divide and Conquer is a general design paradigm does not consist the following part A Divide B Recursion C Iteration D Conquer 94 f(n) =n2 , g(n) = n3 ,then which of the following is not correct? A g(n) = (n) B g(n) = O(n2 ) C g(n) = O(n3 ) D g(n) = (f(n)) 95 In the division method for creating hash function, which of the following hash table size is appropriate? A 2 B 4 C 7 D 8 96 Greedy Algorithms have following characteristic. A Objective function B Feasible solution C Selection function D All of these 97 Divide and Conquer method is not suitable to solve Problem like A Merge Sort B Finding Minimum Spanning Tree
  75. 75. C Exponentiation D Binary Search 98 “Chained Matrix Multiplication” can be solved by A Dynamic Programming B Greedy Method C Branch & Bound D Backtracking 99 “Longest Common Subsequence” Problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Dynamic Progamming C Backtracking D None of these 100 What is the minimum number of Stacks of size n required to implement a Queue of size n? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 101 Maximum number of edges in a n node graph is A n(n-1)/2 B n2 C n2 log(n) D n+1 102 Level Ordered Traversal of a Rooted Tree can be done by starting from the root and performing A In-order traversal B Preorder traversal C Breadth First Search D Depth First Search 103 Which of the following Pairs of traversals define Binary Tree uniquely? A Pre-order and Post- order B In-order and Pre-order C Level –order and Post- order D None of these 104 The Time Complexity of finding Transitive Closure of a Binary Relation on a set of n elemtns is known to be A O (n3 ) B O (n) C O (n2 log n) D O (n2 ) 105 In a binary max heap containing n elements, the smallest element can be found in A θ (1 ) B θ (n ) C θ (log(n) ) D θ (nlog(n) ) 106 Which of the following sorting algorithm has minimum worst case time complexity?
  76. 76. A Selection Sort B Bubble Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort 107 Which of the following is not a Graph Traversal technique? A In-order Traversal B BFS C DFS D None of These 108 Greedy algorithms have following characteristics A Objective function B Feasible solution C Selection Function D All of these 109 Divide & Conquer can’t solve Problems like A Merge Sort B Exponentiation C Minimum Spanning Tree D Binary Search 110 Chained Matrix Multiplication problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Dynamic Programming C Backtracking D None of these 111 Longest Common Subsequence Problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Divide & Conquer C Dynamic Programming D None of these 112 If there is an NP-Complete Language L whose Complement is in NP, Then the Complement of any Language in NP is in A P B NP C Both A and B D None of these 113 Both P and NP are closed under the operation of A Union B Intersection C Concatenation D Kleene’s 114 Binary Search method uses as input A Unsorted Array B Linear Linked List C Sorted Array D Hash Table 115 Which of the method is used to solve Recurrences?

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