Exam 3 Content Review

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Exam 3 Content Review

  1. 1. BY 123 Content Review<br />Exam Three<br />
  2. 2. Question 1<br />A mother and father are phenotypically normal, but their child has an inherited metabolic disorder. What is the chance that their next child will have this disorder?<br />0<br />½<br />¾<br />¼<br />1<br />
  3. 3. Question 2<br />What does the law of segregation say? What does the law of independent assortment say? <br />
  4. 4. Question 3<br />If you have a single gene that affects more than one trait, this is an example of…<br />polygenic inheritance<br />epistasis<br />pleiotropy<br />nondisjunction<br />a and c<br />
  5. 5. Question 4<br />Distinguish between complete dominance, codominance, and incomplete dominance. What is the phenotypic ratio for each if I cross Tt x Tt? <br />
  6. 6. Question 5<br />A plant that is true-breeding for a dominant trait is crossed with a plant that is true breeding for a recessive trait. The offspring plant is then allowed to self-pollinate. What is the phenotypic ratio of this new cross?<br />1:2:1<br />3:1<br />9:3:3:1<br />1:1<br />None of the above<br />
  7. 7. Question 6<br />Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a defective allele that…<br />causes hemoglobin molecules to malfunction<br />encodes a dysfunctional enzyme that fails to break down brain lipids<br />encodes a neurotoxin<br />encodes an enzyme that breaks down muscle fibers<br />none of the above<br />
  8. 8. Question 7<br />A TTFF individual will produce ______ types of gametes, but a TtFf individual will produce ______ types of gametes.<br />one, four<br />four, one<br />two, one<br />three, two<br />two, three<br />
  9. 9. Question 8<br />Which of the following would be the first/fastest to allow us to get genetic information about the fetus?<br />chorionic villus sampling<br />amniocentesis<br />ultrasound<br />a or b<br />a and c<br />
  10. 10. Question 9<br />If my brother has thalassemia, but I don’t, and neither of our parents have thallassemia, what is the chance that I am a carrier of the disease?<br />¼<br />1/3<br />½<br />2/3<br />¾<br />
  11. 11. Question 10<br />We do not know the genotype of one parent. Assume white is recessive to red(red= R, white = r). If a test cross is done with the unknown parent resulting in half red offspring and half white offspring, what is the genotype of the unknown parent?<br />RR<br />Rr<br />rr<br />any of these are possible<br />a or c are possible<br />
  12. 12. Question 11<br />If a species shows incomplete dominance for a single trait, the genotype and phenotype will be<br />different<br />equal<br />indeterminant<br />none of the above<br />a and b<br />
  13. 13. Question 12<br />If two tall parents give birth to a child with achondroplasia, it is most likely the result of…<br />both parents passing a recessive gene<br />both parent passing a dominant gene<br />a new mutation<br />new expression of a previously dormant gene<br />none of the above<br />
  14. 14. Question 13<br />What is the chance of having an offspring that has blood type A if the parents are type AB and O.<br />½<br />¼<br />1/3<br />None<br />All will be A<br />
  15. 15. Question 14<br />If the couple in question 13 (parents have type AB and O blood) had a second offspring what is the chance that it will have blood type A?<br />½<br />¼<br />1/3<br />0<br />1<br />
  16. 16. Question 15<br />If 56 offspring are red-green, 456 are red-red, 44 are red-blue, and 444 are blue-blue; what is the recombination frequency?<br />15%<br />24%<br />20%<br />5%<br />10%<br />
  17. 17. Question 16<br />If the cheek cells from an individual with Klinefelter’s were viewed under a microscope, the person would appear to be<br />male<br />female<br />indeterminate<br />a or c<br />none of the above<br />
  18. 18. Question 17<br />The chromosomes in mitochondria are most like<br />the somatic chromosomes of the father<br />the somatic chromosomes of the mother<br />the chromosomes of a bacteria<br />a and c<br />b and c<br />
  19. 19. Question 18<br />If my phenotypic ratio is 9:7 or 9:3:4 following the cross of BbCc x BbCc, which of the following is most likely happening? <br />Codominance<br />Complete dominance<br />Epistasis<br />Polygenic inheritance <br />Incomplete dominance<br />
  20. 20. Question 19<br />If a father has an x-linked recessive disorder, but the mother does not have the disease and is not a carrier, what is the possibility that a son will have this disorder?<br />100%<br />25%<br />50%<br />0%<br />None of these<br />
  21. 21. Question 20<br />Describe the following conditions and then classify all the following (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked recessive, etc.): <br />Color blindness<br />Cystic fibrosis<br />Huntington’s disease<br />Polydactyly<br />Albinism <br />Duchenne muscular dystrophy<br />Thalassemia<br />Tay-Sachs disease <br />
  22. 22. Question 21<br />Cells that have more than two complete sets of chromosomes are called….<br />aneuploid<br />trisomy<br />polyploid<br />tetrasomy<br />none of these<br />
  23. 23. Question 22<br />If alleles are 5% recombinant, then they are _____ map units apart.<br />50<br />25<br />10<br />100<br />None of the above<br />
  24. 24. Question 23<br />T/F The most common phenotype is referred to as the dominant type.<br />
  25. 25. Question 24<br />In werewolves, pointy ears (P) are dominant over round ears (p). The gene is on the X chromosome. Werewolves use the same sex determining system as humans. A female werewolf has pointy ears even though her father has round ears. What percentage of her sons will have round ears if she marries a werewolf with round ears?<br />0%<br />25%<br />50%<br />75%<br />100%<br />
  26. 26. Question 25<br />Okazaki fragments are eventually joined by <br />DNA polymerase<br />primase<br />topoisomrase<br />helicase<br />None of the above<br />
  27. 27. Question 26<br />What is nuclease? <br />
  28. 28. Question 27<br />If there is 23 % adenine in a double helix of DNA, how much cytosine is there?<br />23%<br />46%<br />27%<br />54%<br />None of the above<br />
  29. 29. Question 28<br />Which of the following statements is incorrect?<br />double-stranded DNA is helical.<br />DNA contains phosphodiester linkages.<br />Double-stranded DNA has two complementary strands<br />Adenine and uracil are present in equal amounts in double-stranded DNA.<br />All are true.<br />
  30. 30. Question 29<br />Which of these is the correct sequence of enzymes used in the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA?<br />primase, helicase, polymerase, ligase<br />helicase, primase, ligase, polymerase<br />helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase<br />helicase, polymerase, primase, ligase<br />ligase, primase, polymerase, helicase<br />
  31. 31. Question 30<br />T/F The replication fork is also known as the origin of replication.<br />
  32. 32. Question 31<br />In RNA, ______ are removed so that transcription can occur.<br />introns<br />exons<br />errors<br />a and c<br />none of the above<br />
  33. 33. Question 32<br />The codons AAA, CCC, GGG, and UUU specify the amino acids lysine, praline, glycine, and phenylalanine, respectively. Which of the following DNA sequences would specify the peptide pro-gly-lys-phe if present in the template strand?<br />3’-CCCGGGAAATTT-5’<br />3’-CCCGGGAAAUUU-5’<br />5’-GGGCCCUUUAAA-3’<br />5’-GGGCCCTTTAAA-3’<br />None of these<br />
  34. 34. Question 33<br />When a single base pair is either inserted or deleted from DNA it results in a ______.<br />nonsense mutation<br />frame-shift mutation<br />inversion mutation<br />translocation mutation<br />missense mutation <br />
  35. 35. Question 34<br />How many amino acids would be present in the polypeptide created from the mRNA sequence AUGCCCAUUGCUUGAGGGAUGUAA.<br />4<br />5<br />6<br />7<br />8<br />
  36. 36. Question 35<br />The fact that GGU, GGC, GGA, and GGG all code for the same amino acid is a good example of <br />transcription<br />wobble<br />nonsense codons<br />a or c<br />all of these<br />
  37. 37. Question 36<br />Protein synthesis requires all of the following except ______.<br />ribosomes<br />mRNA<br />tRNA<br />amino acids<br />endoplasmic reticulum<br />
  38. 38. Question 37<br />The central dogma of genetics is<br />DNA to amino acids to RNA<br />DNA to transcription to RNA<br />Protein to RNA to DNA<br />DNA to RNA to Protein<br />None of the above<br />
  39. 39. Question 38<br />A group of 1200 nucleotides could code for _____ amino acids.<br />200<br />600<br />400<br />300<br />None of the above<br />
  40. 40. Question 39<br />What is the proper order of these events?<br />translation<br />RNA processing<br />transcription<br />modification of protein<br />1,2,3,4<br />3,2,1,4<br />4,2,3,1<br />2,3,4,1<br />1,2,4,3<br />
  41. 41. Question 40<br />T/F The poly-A tail binds to the small ribosomal subunit to allow the codons to be read from the proper starting point.<br />
  42. 42. Question 41<br />The sex determining system where the female is heterozygous and the male is homozygous is referred to as the _____ system.<br />ZW<br />XY<br />XO<br />Haplo-diploid<br />None of these<br />
  43. 43. Question 42<br />Vampires can have a widows peak (W) or a continuous hairline(w), and can have red (r) or white eyes (R). Widows peak and red eyes are the most common. Cross a vampire that is homozygous for both wild types with a vampire that is heterozygous for both traits. How many offspring will be continuous hairline white eyes?<br />None<br />All<br />1<br />8<br />12<br />
  44. 44. Question 43<br />Use the cross from number 42. How many offspring show traits for widows peak and white eyes?<br />None<br />All<br />1<br />8<br />12<br />
  45. 45. Question 44<br />If a plant this is heterozygous for flower position and stem length (AaTt) self-pollinates, and 800 seeds are planted, how many plants should be Tall with Axial flowers?<br />450<br />150<br />50<br />100<br />None of the above<br />
  46. 46. Question 45<br />A family of 15 people with genes for brown eyes only has 11 family members with brown eyes. What is the penetrance of brown eyes in this family?<br />27%<br />33%<br />92%<br />73%<br />12%<br />
  47. 47. Question 46<br />Describe RNA processing in as much detail as Dr. Cusic did in lecture. <br />
  48. 48. Question 47<br />If two parents are both carriers of an autosomalrecessive disease how likely is it that they would have a male offspring with the disease?<br />½<br />¼<br />1/3<br />2/3<br />None of the above<br />
  49. 49. Question 48<br />If the P generation crosses a true breeding brown haired (B) person with a true breeding blond(b), what will the genotypic ration of the F2 generation be?<br />3:1<br />1:2:1<br />9:3:3:1<br />A or c<br />None of these<br />
  50. 50. Question 49<br />DNA replication is a:<br />Dispersive process<br />Conservative process<br />Semi-conservative process<br />
  51. 51. Question 50<br />Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to <br />A promoter<br />An initiator <br />A transcriptor<br />A codon<br />None of the above<br />
  52. 52. Question 51<br />The promoter sequence in eukaryotes is (included) in which of the following: <br />TAATAA<br />TATAAA<br />TTGACA<br />GTTAAA<br />None of the above are correct<br />
  53. 53. Question 52<br />The direct result of transcription is <br />A duplicate DNA molecule<br />nRNA<br />A protein<br />mRNA<br />None of the above<br />
  54. 54. Question 53<br />The direct result of translation is<br />A duplicate DNA molecule<br />nRNA<br />A protein<br />mRNA<br />All of the above <br />
  55. 55. Question 54<br />In messenger RNA, the nucleotide series UAG specifies <br />Arginine<br />Serine<br />Start<br />Stop<br />Proline<br />
  56. 56. Question 55<br />Base-pair substitutions involving the third base of a codon are unlikely to result in an error in the polypeptide. This is because:<br />Substitutions are corrected before transcription begins. <br />Substitutions are restricted to introns.<br />The base-pairing rules are less strict for the third base of codons and anticodons. <br />A signal-recognition particle corrects coding errors.<br />Transcribed errors attract snRNPs, which then stimulate splicing and correction. <br />
  57. 57. Question 56<br />The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is<br />Complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon<br />Complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA<br />The part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid<br />Changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA<br />Catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme<br />
  58. 58. Question 57<br />If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trpoperon, then<br />The amino acid inactivates the repressor<br />The enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes<br />The repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid<br />The amino acid acts as a co-repressor<br />The amino acid turns on transcription of the operon<br />
  59. 59. Question 58<br />What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?<br />Continuous transcription of the operon’s genes<br />Reduced transcription of the operon’s genes<br />Buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon<br />Irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter<br />Overproduction of catabolite activator protein (CAP)<br />
  60. 60. Question 59<br />In E. coli, tryptophan switches off the trpoperon by<br />Inactivating the repressor protein<br />Inactivating the gene for the first enzyme in the pathway by feedback inhibition <br />Binding to the repressor and increasing the latter’s affinity for the operator<br />Binding to the operator<br />Binding to the promoter<br />
  61. 61. Question 60<br />Inducible enzymes<br />Are usually involved in anabolic pathways<br />Are produced when a small molecule inactivates the repressor protein<br />Are produced when an activator molecule enhances the attachment of RNA polymerase with the operator<br />Are regulated by inherently inactive repressor molecules<br />Are regulated almost entirely by feedback inhibition <br />
  62. 62. GOOD LUCK STUDYING!<br />

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