Kamal FMGE MCQ Book
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Kamal's Previous FMGE MCQ'S Book

Kamal's Previous FMGE MCQ'S Book

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  • DISCUSS EVERY MCI PROBLEM,NEW QUESTIONS,NEW RULES AMENDMENT,RESULT%,PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPER,REGISTRATION PROCESS,INTERNSHIP,YOUR DOUBT REGARGING FMGE(MCI).
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Kamal FMGE MCQ Book Document Transcript

  • 1. ft::i { I I ContenfsANATOMY Questions. 1-9 Answets ruith ExPlanations " " 10-49PHYSIOLOGY 50-60 Questions. Answers with ExPlanations " " 6L-95BIOCHEMISTRY 96 1.00 Questions. . 1,01" I lt) Answers with ErPlanattons ..PATHOLOGY "" 117 - 126 Questtotrs.. AnswerswithExplanations" """727 -175MICROBIOLOGY I/b :.- r6t Questions.. Answers with ExPlanations .. 183 - 21.3PARASITOLOGY 214 - 215 Questions... AnswerstoithExplanations " "";- """"2L6 - 22L PHARMACOLOGY "" - 233 222 Questions. AnswerswithExplanations """" """""":" "234 - 286 FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY 287 - 289 Questions... Ansuters with ExPlanations 290 - 301. PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 302 - 314 Questions.... ........ 31.5 - 367 Answers with Erplanations EA& NOSE AND THROAT (ENT) 368 369 Questions... 370 377 Answers utith Exqlanations " OPHTHALMOLOGY 378 - 387 Questians ". 3SS- 432 Answerc...
  • 2. Contents GENERAL MEDICINE .-.: Questions. ....,.. 433 _ 446 , AnstpersrcithExplanatiotts .. 447 _ S0gGENERAL SURGERY Questions. 570 _ 524 Atrsuters with Explanations .. ..........-S2S _ 605ORTHOPAEDICS Questions.. .......606 _ 670 Anszpers with Explanations .. ...... 677 - 634PAEDIATRICS Questions. ....... 635 - 637 Answers with Explanations .. ....... 63g _ 650OBSTETRICS euestions. .....:. 651 _ 656 AnswerswithExplanatiotts .. .....657 _ 679GYNAECOLOGY Questions. ..... 680 _ 6g2 Ansuters utith Explanations .. ...... 6g3 _ 696DERMATOLOGY Questions.... 697 - 699 Ansuters with Exptlanations ... 700 - 772ANAESTHESIA Questions.... /rJ - /t+ Answers with Explanations .. /tJ - /llPSYCHIATRY Questions.. 722 - 723 Answers rnith Erplanations ... " 724 - 732RADIODIAGNOSIS Questions.. 733 - 734 Anszuers with E*lanations .. 735 - 747RADIOTHERAPY Questions.. "....742 _ 742 Answers zuith Explanations .. 743 748SEPTEMBER 2O1O Questiorts... 749 - 763 Answ ers utith Explanations 764 - 796
  • 3. AN,ATOMY (Questions) EMBRYOLOCY 9. True diverticulum is: March 2010 1. Umbilical cord contains: Septenfuer 2AA5 a. Zenkers diverticr.rlum a. 2 arteries and 2 veins b. Meckels diverticr-rlum b. 1 artery and 2 .reins c. Duodenal diverticulum c. 1 artery and 1 vein d. Bladder diverticulum d. 2 arteries and I vein 2. Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from: March 2005 HISTOLOGY a. Ducfus arteriosus 10. Mucous membrane of vagina is lined by: b. Ducfus venoslls Septenfuer 2005 c. Ducfus utriculosaccularis a, Nonkeratinizecl Stratilied Squamous epiti-relirrm d. Ductr.rs reunions b. Kr..r.rtin i zcd Strirti fied bquamous epithetium3. Arch of aorta develops from: c. Columnar ceils SeTttemher 2006 a. Itight fr>r,rrth aortic arch arterv d. Cuboidal cpitheliutt b. Left thirci aortic arch artery 11. Gland of Brunrrers is found in: Seytttmber 2005 c. Left fourth aortic arch artery a. Jejunum d. Right third aortic arch arterv b. Duodenum B4. Lens is derived from: c. Iieum March 2007. Septenber2}11 a. Endoderm d. All b. Surface ectoderm 12. Not a layer of retina: September 2007 c. Mesoderm a. Outer limiting membrane d. None of the above b. Retinal pigment epithelium c. Bowmans membrane5. Fate of notochord is: Septentber 2008 d. Ganglion cell layer a. Annulus fibrosis 13. True about cardiac muscles are all except: b. Nucieus pulposus Septenfuer 2007, Septtemlter 20L0 c. Vertebral foramen a. Propertlof spontaneons and rhythmic contraction d. Spinous process b. Cardiac mnscle exhibits cross striations5. Trigone of urinary bladder develops from: March 2009 c. Cardiac r.uscle celis are linear and longitudinal. a. Mesoderm d. Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nen.e b. Ectoderm fibers c. Endoderm of urachus 14. Simple cuboidal epithelium is seen in: Septenrber 2006 d" None of the above a. Skin7. In the adult heart, floor of fossa ovalis represents: b. Trachea March 2009 c. Oesophagus a. Septum intermedium d. Thyroifl g|6p4 b. Septum primum 15. Hassals corpuscles are seen in: Septenber 2009 c. Septum spurium a. Thymus d. Septum secundum b. Spleen8. Which part of the ear has origin from all the three c. Bone marrow layers of germ layer: Mnrch 2070 d. Lymph node a. Auricle 16. Blood testes barrier is formed by the: ScTttember 2009 b. Tvmpanic membrane a. Levdig cells c" C)ssicles b. Sertoli cells d. Middle ear car.ity c. Cerm ceils d. A11 of the iibtnre
  • 4. Anatomy: .::1 ::4: i. i 1.: 17" Fenestrated , capillaries are found in all except : 25. Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia are all except:t,,tij,f:l::r:d:iri: r :L: :l;lii:i::i September 2009 Septenfuer 2007:r,.lnlii;.:.;..!.11 a. Renal glomeruli a. Cephalic vein ,l ,, b. Intestinal villi b. Thoracoacromial artery -:. c. Pancreas c. Lateral pectoral nerve d. Muscle d. Basilic vein 26. All of the following muscles of the pectoral girdle are 18. Goblet cells are not seen in: September 2009 .- ,l;-.: a. Colon innervated by branches from the brachial plexus: . i.r except: March 2008 b. Trachea a. Subclavius i c. Conjunctiva b. Serratus anterior d. Esophagus c. Rhomboid major SUPERIOR EXTREMITY d. Trapezius 19. Root value of the Radial nerve is: Septentbu 2005 27. Nerwe supply to hypothenar muscles is from : a. C5,C6 a. Ulnar nerve March 20A9 b. c5,c6,c7 b. Median nerve c. C5,C6,C7,C8 c. Radial nerve d. Musculocutaneous n*lrve d. c5,c6,c7,c9,T1, 28. Structure passing deep to .lexor retinaculum at wrist: 20. Which of the following is an artery of the forearm: a. Ulnar nerve Septentber 2009 September 2006 b. Median nerve a. Brachial artery c. Radial nerve o = F b. Axillary artery c. Uhar artery d. Ulnar artery 29. The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the d. Femoral artery z 21. Insertion of pectoralis major is at: September 2006 trunk: a. Costoclavicularligament Mnrch 2009 a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove of humerus b. Coracoclavicular ligament b. Medial lip of bicipital groove of humerus c. Coracoacromial ligament c. In the bicipital groove of humerus d. Coracohumeral ligament d. Clavicle 30. Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is: 22. Labourers nerve is another name for which nerve: a. Musculocutaneous nerve September 2009 b. Ulnar nerve March 2007 c. Radial nerve a. Median nerve d. Median nerve b. Iladial nerve c. Ulnar nerve THORAX d. Axillarv nerve 31. The order of neurovascular bundle in the intercostal space from above downwards is:- March 2005 23. Nerve roots involved in Erbs palsy: September 2009 a. VAN a. C5, C6 b. ANV b. c6,c7 c. AVN c. C7,C8,T1 d. VNA d. C5,C6,C7,C8,T1 32. Inhaled forgein body usually lodges in the: 24. Partial Claw hand is due to: September 2007 September 2007 a. Radial nerve injury a. Apex of right lung b. Ulnar nerve injury b. Lorver lobe of right lung c. Median nerve injury c. Apex of left lung d. Axillarv rrerve injurl d. Lower lobe of left lung
  • 5. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination33. Normal Fluid level in the pericardial cavity: 40. Constrictions in esophagus are seen at all the September 2005 leveis except: March 2007 a. 50 ml a. At ihe begining of esophagus b. 100 ml b. At the site of crossing of esopiragus by aortic arch c. l5u nu c. Where esophagus pierces the diaphragrn d. 200 ml d. At the point of crossing of thoracic duct 41. Commonest location of diaphragmatic (bochdalek)34. Right common carotid artery arises from: SePtertuer 2005 hernia in childrens is: March 2007 a. Right axillary artery a. Retrosternal b. Posterior and left b. Arch of aorta c. Brachioceplralic arterl c. Posterior and right d. Ct:ntral d. Left subclavian arterv 42. lVhich of the following does not drain into coronary35. Bifurcation of trachea is at which level: slnus: ,hrclt 2009 Septenfuet 2006 a. .Antclitr cartiiac vrirr a. Opposite tirer disc betr,r,een the T3-T4 rettebrae b. Small cardiac vein b. Opposite the disc betr.reen the T5-T6 r,ertebrae c. Middle cardiac vein c. Opposite the disc betueen the T6-T7 vertebrae d. Great cardiac vein d. Opposite the disc betrveen the T7-T8 rertebrae 43. True about Thoracic part ol syrnpathetic trunk:36. Branches of left coronary artery are all of the September 2007 following except: Septenrber 2006 a. The first five ganglia give preganglionic fibers a. Anterior interventricularbranch b. The sympathetic trunk l.ras 13 segmentally arranged .D := b. Left diagonal artery c. Left atrial artery ganglia c. It is the most medially placed structure in the .! :{ d. Posterior interventricularbranch mediastinum o37. True about arch of aorta are all of the following d. The first ganglion is often fused witir the inferior .3 except: March 2007 cervical ganglion to form the stellate ganglion. ,( a. Situated behind the lower half of the manubrium 44. Length of esophagus in adults is: Septentuer 2005 stemi a. 25 cm b. Right common carotid artery arises from the arch of h. l0 cm aorta c. 15 cnr c. It ends at the sternal end of the left second costal d. 20 cm cartilage 45. Base of the heart is formed mainly by: Septanber 2008 d. Begining and end of the arch lies at same levei a. Right.rtrium b. Left atrium 38. Structures passing through diaphragm through aortic c. l{ight vcntriclt hiatus are all except: March 2007 d. Left ventricle r, a. Aorta 46" In mid clavicular plane, lower border of lung lies at lt:: ,;i:it.,,i,;,., b. Azygous vein level of: SeTttenfucr 2008 c. Thoracic duct a. {th rib . d. Hemiazygous vein b. oth rib 39. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior c. 8th rib interventricular artery,then the arterial supply is d. l0th rib .. called: March 2007 47. Shape of tracheal cartilage: Se1ttentber 2008 a. llight dominance a. W shaped ,,: ".. b. Left dominance b. O shaped .,,.; ; c. Balanced dominanace c. C shaped :,i.,, d. None of the above d" Dshaped , ,l;"
  • 6. Anatomy 48. Arterial supply to SA node is by: March 2009 55. All of the following statements regarding the deep a. Left anterior descending coronarv ar.tery fascia of the thigh are true except: Mnrch 2008 b. Posterior inten entricular (descending) artery a. It splits in the gluteal region to lr-... . enclose gluteusrl c. Left coronary artery marimus musclej.:,::ii:,:,.:: ::1,:i, c1. Right coronary artery,..t- l,.i.-i.ll., l:!:*ll:i: ri;.:.ilr . b. Iliotibialtract forms a sl-reath for tensor fasciae laiae 49. Muscles involved in quiet expiation: Septentber 200g muscie.:;ii.,t,:;,iI a. Diaphragm c. medially the fascia is thickened to fonn itiotibial b. Intercostai muscres tract , c. Boih of the above d. It is also known as fascia lata d. None of the above 57. True regarding relationship of sac in femoral hernia 50. Azygous vein drains into: Septentber 2009 with the pubic tubercle : Septenfuer 2009 a. Right srrbcostal vein a. Above and lateral b. Superior vena ca.a b. Belorv and lateral c. Braciocephalic c. Abor,e and medial c1. Riglit ascending lumbar r.ein d. Belo.rv and medial 51. Cardiac dorninance is determined by coronary artery: Sc1ttunber 2009 ABDOMEN a. Suppl_ving circulation to the SA nocie 58. All are branches of Intemal Iliac artery except: b. Supplying circulation to the inferior portion of the 3 Marclt 2005 interrrentricuiar septum a. Ovarian artery c. Supplying circulation to the interairial septum b. Superior vesical artery d. Supplying circulation to the anterior portion of the c. Middle rectal artery o = F interventricular septum d. Inferior vesical artery 52. SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with: 59. Which of the following doesnt prevent prolapse z a. Mediastinal fibrosis Septentber 2009 of uterus: a. Perineal body Mnrch 2005 b. Lrnnphoma b. Pubocervical ligament c. Lung cancer c. Broad ligament d. TB mediastinitis d. Transverse cervical ligament 60. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from all of INFERIOR EXTREMITY 53. Inversion and eversion occurs at: the following except: September 2005 March 2005 a. Subtalor joints a. Urethra b. Ankle loir-rt b Anal canal belor,r. the pectinate line c. lnferior Tibiofibular joint c. Clans penis d. A11 of the above d. Perineum 61. Cerotas fascia is: Septembcr 2005 54. Vein used in bypass Surgery: September 2005 a. Cre.rt saphcnous vein a. Renal fascia b. Short saphcnous vein b. Fibrous capsule c. Femoral vein c. l,aycr of perirenal fat d. Brachial vein d. Layer of pararenal {at 62" Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the: 55. Muscles taking origin from ischial tuberosity are all except : Marclt 2005 Septentber 2005 a. AddLrctor longus a. Inlernal oblique aponeurosis b. Semimembranosus b. External oblique aponeurosis c. Semitendinosus c. Transverse abdominis aponeurosis d" Adductor magnus d. !-iterna] oblique muscle
  • 7. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i lvlOl Screening Examination53. Pouch of Douglas is between: Scptentutr 2006 71. Regarding kidney, all of the following statements are a. Rectum and Sacrum true except: September 2007 b. Uterus and Urinary bladder a. Tlrey lie at the vgltgl-rral level T12 to L3 b. Retroperitoneal organ c. Bladder and pubis syrnphysis c. Left kidney is situated lorver than the right d. Rectum and Uterus d. Left kidney is located siightliz more medial than the64.Left testicular vein drains into: September 2006 a. Inferior vena cava 72.True about fallopian tubes are all except : b. Left renal vein September 2007 c. Portal vein a. Lined by cuboidal epithelium ii:i d. Sr.rperior vena cava b isthmus is the narror,rer p<-rrt of the fube that links to the uterus65. Which of the foliowing is not supplied by Superior Tubal ostium is the point rrhere the tubal canal mesenteric artery: Marclt 2007 meets the peritrrneal cavity a. Jejunum Miillerian ducts develops in females into the b. Appendix Fallopian tubes c. Ascending colon 73. Short gastric arteries are branches of: Septeniltcr 2007 d. Descending colon a. Celiac artery *66. Blood supply of the uterus is by: March 2007 t . Splenic artery a. Ovarian artery c. Left gastroepiploic artery b. Uetrine artery dLeft gastroepiploic artery c. Both 74. Ovarian artery is a branch of: a. Renai artery September 2007 z d. None of the above b. Internal iliac artery c. Abdominal {67. Pudendal nerve is related to: a. Ischial spine Marclt 2007 part of the aorta d. External iliac arterl, o b. Sacral prornontory 75. Commonest position of appendix: September 2007, September 2010 = c. Iliac crest d. Ischial tuberosity a. Pelvic b. Retrocaecal68. Kidney is supported by all of the following except: c. Subcaecal March 2007 d. Promontoric a. Perirenal fat 76. Veins draining into portal vein are all except: b. Renal fascia September 2007 c. Pararenal fat a. Renalvein d. Fibrous capsule b. Splenic vein c. Left gastric vein69. Uterine artery is a branch of: March 2007 d. Superior mesenteric vein a. Abdominal aorta 77. All of the following structures forms the stomach bed b. External iliac artery except: March 2008 c. Femoral artery a. Hepatic flexure of colon d. Intemal iliac artery b. The left kidney 70. Superficial inguinal ring in the fernale transmits: c. The pancreas d. Transverse mesocolcin March 2007 78. Lymphatic drainage of ovary is through: March 2008 a. Broad ligament of uterus a. Irreaortic and para-aortic lymph nodes b. Round ligament of the uterus b. Superficial inguinal l,vrnph nodes c. Cardinal ligament c. Deep inguinal lymph nodes d. None of the above d. Internal iliac lymph nodes
  • 8. Anatomy 79. Source of arterial supply to testis: March 200g 87. Superior thyroid artery originates from: a. Internal pudendal artery September 2005 b. Deep external pudendal artery a. Internal carotid artery c. Superficial external pudendal artery b. External carotid arterv d. Testicular artery c. Facial artery 80. True about uterus are all except. September 2009 d. Maxillary artery a. Normaliy the uterus is retroverted 88. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all of the b. Angle of anteflexion is 125 degree following muscles except: Septenfuer 2005 c. Long axis of uterus corresponds to the axis of pelvic inlet a. Cricothyroid d. Posterior surface is related to the sigmoid colon b. Lateral cricoarytenoid 81. Spleen is supported by all of the following except: c. Posterior cricoarytenoid d. Thvroepiglotticus Septenrhcr 2008 a. Phrenicocolic iigament 89. True about pharyngeal diverticula are all except: Lr. Gastrospienic ligament September 2005 c. Lineorenal lieament a. Results due to neuromuscular incoordination d. Ligamentum teres b. Lies in the anterior rvali of pharynx 82. True about ureters are all except: March 2009 c. They are normal in pig a. Constricted at three places d. Food may get accumulated b. It is 25cm long 90. Number of parathyroid glands in human: c. Testicular vessels lie anteriorly to the ureters September 2005 d. It is lined by cuboidal epitheliumo=F 83. Not present at the transpyloric level ; March 200g b.3 a. Neck of pancreas c.2z b. c. Fundus of stomach Left and right colic flexure 9L. Nasolacrimal duct opens in: September 2005 d. L1 vertebra a. The mouth opposite upper 2nd molar 84. Structures lying posterior to spleen are all of the b. Middle meatus of nose following except-: September 2009 c. Superior meatus of nose a. 11th rib d. Inferior meatus of nose b. Left lung 92. Not a branch of external carotid artery: September 2006 c. The diaphragm a. InJerior thyroid artery d" The stomach b. Facial artery 85. All of the following veins lack valves except c. Superior thyroid artery September 2009 d. Maxillary artery Femoral vein 93. False about facial muscles: March 2007 .:l D" Portal vein a. Dilates and constrict facial orifices c. IVC b. Supplied by facial nerve d. Dural venous sinuses c. Develops from 3rd pharyngeal arch HEAD AND NECK d. They develop from mesoderm 86. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while 94. Motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is by: sneezing: Mnrch 2005, September 20L0 March 2007 a. Tensor veli palatini a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Levator veli palatini h Facial nerve c. None of the above c. Lingual nerve d. Both A and B u. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  • 9. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination95. Name of the parotid duct: March 20a7 L03. Branches of external carotid artery are all except: a. Stensons duct September 2007 b. Nasolacrimal du.ct a. {axillary artet:y c. Whartons duct b.Ascending pharyngeal artery d. None of the above c.Superior thyroid artery96. Parotid duct passes through all the following d.Ophthalmic artery 104. The facial nerve controls all of the following structures except: March 2007 functions except: March 2008 a. Buccopharyngealfascia a. Intensity of the sound reachirg the ear b. Buccinator b. Lacrimation c. Buccal fat pad c. Salivation cl. Masesster d. Srvallorvir-g97. Thinnest part of scelra is: Mcrch 20()7 105. All of tire following structures are within the a. At the entrance of optic nerve parotid gland except: lt4trclt 2008 b. Site of entrance of ciliary nerves a. Facial arterv c. Corneoscleraljunction b. facial nerve d. At the insertion of lecti muscles c. Extemal carotid arrterrr98. Cadaver like position of vocal cords is seen in: d. Rctronrandibul;rvein March 2407 106. Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic a. superior larymgeal nerve palsy Both secretomotor fibres to the submandibular salivary b. recurrent laqmgeal nerve palsy Both gland: March 2008 c. a. Vagus :> d. external laryngeai nerve palsv Both b. Trigeminal ,Z internai laryngeal nerve palsy Both99. Which of the following extraocular muscles does c. facial r> .{ not arise from annulus: September 2007 d. Glossopharvngeai 107. All of the following are contents of the posterior o a. Inferior rectus ,l= b" Medial rectus triangle of the neck except: a. Spinal part of accesory nerve March 2008 < c. Lateral rectus b. Trunks of brachial plexus d. Superior oblique c. Internal jugular vein100. Elevation of iaw is done by all except: d. Transverse cervical arterv SePtember 2007 108. Muscle responsible for intorsion of the eye: a. Temporalis SEttunher 2008 b. Masseter a.Superior oblique c. Lateral pterygoids b.Superior rechrs d. Medial pterygoids c.Both of the above 101. Structure not passing through the superior orbital d.None of the above fissure: Septenfuer 2007 109. Length of the cartilaginous part of external auditory canal: Seyttcmber 2048 a. Superior ophthalmic vein b. Trochlear nerve a. 15 mm c. Abducent nerve b. 20 mm d. Zygomatic nerve c. 25 mm 102. All of the folowing opens into middle meatus d. 30 mm 110. The nerve that may get injured during removal of except: Septenrber 2007 tlrird molar is : March 2009 a. Middle ethmoidal air sinuses a. lllrprgiossal nerve b. Maxillary sinus b. Facial ntrve c. losterior ethmoid sinuses c. Lingual nerve d. Frontal air sinus d. Glossopirartngeal nerve
  • 10. Anatomy ., 111. Parotid duct opens opposite to: March 2009 BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD a. Upper 1st molar 120. Arterial supplv to dura mater is from all of the h I Innpr ?nrl mnl41 following except: September 2005 c. Upper 2nd premolar a. Middie meningeal artery d. Upper 1st premolar b. Internal carotid arterv 112. Function of superior oblique muscle is: March 2009 a. IntortiorL adduction and depression c. Ascending pharyngeal artery b" Intortion, abduction and elevation d. Basilar artery c. Intortion, abduction and depression 121. Artery supplying major part of superolateral surface d. Extortiory abduction and depression of brain is: September 2005 113. Safety muscle of tongue is: ltIctch2009, Septmtba.2010 a. Middle cerebral artery a. Styloglossus b. Anterior cerebral arter.y b. Genioglossus c.Posterior cerebral artery c. Palatoglossus d.Vertebral artery cl. Ht.oglossus L22. ln adults, spinal cord ends at the lower end of: 114. Ser.rsory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through: Seylember 2005 Mnrch 2009 a. L2 a. Creat auricular nerre b. r-4 b. Buccai branches of facial nerve c. Li c. Lesser petrosal nerve d. L3 d. Auriculotemporalnerve 123. Hypoglossal nerve is: SEttcmber 2005 115. Vocal cord abductors is: March 2009,2010; a. 6th nerve September 2009 o = F a. b. Lateralcricoarytenoid Irosteriorcricoarytenoid b. c. 7th nerve 12th nerve c. Cricothyroid d. 9th nerve z d. Thyroarytenoid 124. Eye ball movements are controlled by all of the 116. The muscle which is not supplied by recurrenl following cranial nerves except: September 2005 Iaryngeal nerve is: September 2009 a.Optic nerve a. Thyroarytenoid b.Abducens nerve b. Posteriorcricoarytenoid c.Trochlear nerve c. Cricothl1616[ d.Oculornotor nerve d. Lateralcricoarytenoid 125. Largest cranial nerve is: September 2006 117. Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the a. Trochlear face: Marclt 2010 b. Trigeminal a. Auricular muscle c. Oculomotor b" Posterior belly of diagastric muscle d. Vagus c. Parotid gland 126. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus: March 2007 d. Submandibular gland 118. Muscle involved in congenital torticollis: It4arclt2010 a. Superior petrosal sinusit. a. Deltoid b, Sphenoparietalsinus,iit , b. Sternocleidomastoid c.Inferior ophthalmic vein c. Digastric d. Superficial middle cerebral veins$tii 127. Nuclei deep within the medial temporal lobes of thesi d. Mylohyoid 1.19. Tendon of which muscle passes through the brain: Septenfuer 2007:,{;, pyramid in middle ear: Msrclt 2010 a. Amygdalaji, a. Incus b. Raphae nucleusrii,l b. Stapedius c. Dentate nucleus c. Malleus d. Red nucleus.ir d. Tensor veli palatine.14,)
  • 11. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening ExaminationL28. Cross section of midbrain at the level of superior 134. Not involved in damage to cerebellum: March 2010 colliculus shows : September 2009 a. Posfure a. Red nucleus and trochlear nerve nucleus l-, un,,iil-.i,.- b. Rednucleus and abducent nenre nucleus c. Asthenia c. Red rrucleus and optic nerve nucleus d. Tone d. Red nucleus and occulomotor nerve nucleus JOINTS1?9. Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies: March 2009 135. Abduction of the thigh is limited by: a. Pectoralis major Septcmber 2009 b. pectoralis minor c. sternocleidomastoid a. Ischiofemoralligarnents d. deltoid b. Pubofemoralligaments130. Primary auditory area is: Muclt 2009 c. Iliofemoralligarlents r Inierior fpmnnr.rl ulrrrc d r Sacroiii.lc --b".- - lig.rnrtnt "--.-".. h (lrrirrt>l rnrler 136. Ligament resisting hyperextension of hip are all c. Superior temporal gyrus except: Septenrbcr 2009 C. Frontai cortex a. Ischiofemoralligament131. A lesion invoiving upper motor neuron of facial b. Pubofemoralligament nerve manifests as: March 2009 c. Iliofemoral ligament * a. Upper half of the face is affected, lorver half d. Sacroiliac ligament normal 137. Unlocking of knee is done by which muscle: b. Left half of the face c. Right half of the face a. Adductor magnus sePtembet 2oo9 z d. Upper half of the face normal, lorver haif affected b. Biceps femoris {132. Nucleus ambiguus is not associated with which c. Popliteus o cranial nerve: March 2010 d. Sartorius a.X MISCELLANEOUS = b" xi 138. Auricle of the ear is made of: March 2007 c. IX d. XII a. H1aline cartilage133. ln neonates, spinal cord ends at: March 2010 b. Fibrocartilage a. L1 c. Eiastic cartilage b. L2 d. None of the abor.e ^ T- L. LJ d. L4 -.:i.:t. l:a:...1..::j * ,l: ::.t.:. : r.t;:,.4 1..;.,,. t., :;;.;...iii . . :,: .: s i.r. I t:t:.:tt::: :.:,:: r.rr;:t::r:i, ttr:,i:,;,; ..ir ,- ,.r.i-.., r :;;tilill
  • 12. ASSESSIfENT GElMCr SCREENTN PHYSIOLOGY (euestions) HAEMATOLOCY 8. 1 gm hemoglobin binds with: September 2007 1. Normal pH of blood is: Septentber 20A7 a. 7.22m1C.2 a.7.30 b. 1.33 ml 02 b.7.20 c. 1.44 ml O, c.7.70 d. 1.55 ml 02 d. 7.40 9. Substance present in both serum and plasma: 2. Monocytes remains in the circulation for: March 2005 a. 1-3 days September 2007 b. 24 hours a. Fibrinogen c. 12 hours b. Factor II d. 6 hours c. Factor VII 3. Most common Hemoglobin in normal adult cl. Factor V is: 10. Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor: March 2005 a. FIbA September 2007 b. FIbF a. IX c. FIbS b. XII d. HbA2 c. VIII 4. Carbon di oxide is transported in plasma as: d.x September 2005 11. Universal recipients have blood group: March 200g a. Dissolved form b. Carbamino compounds b.B c. Bicarbonate c.O d. All of the above d. AB 5. Most useful method of estimating total iron content 1.2. Extrinsic system (blood coagulation) is triggered by of blood: March 2007 the release of: September 2008 a. Ferritin a. Prothrombin b. Transferrin b. Thromboplastin c. Erythropoietin c. Fibrinogen d. Lactoferrin d. Thrombin 6. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors of hepatic 13. Hagemann factor is involved in: March 2009 origin are all of the following except: March 2007 a. Extrinsic pathway a. II b. Intrinsic pathway b. VII c. Fibrinolysis c. VIII d. None d.x 14. Erythropoietin is secreted by: 7. In sickle cell March 2009 disease: September 2007 a. Interstitial cells of kidney a. Glutamtic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain b. Extraglomerular mesangial cells of haemoglobin is replaced by valine. b. Glutamtic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain c. Macula densa of haemoglobin is replaced by valine. d. Renal tubular epithelial cells c. Vaiine at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of 1.5, Plasma makes : March 2009 haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid a. 20% of Body Weight d. Valine at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of b. 15%ofBodyWeight haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid c. of Body Weight 1.0"/" d. 5% of Body Weight ti 74,) :t:,
  • 13. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination16. Heparin inhibits the active form of the following 25. Cardiac output depends on all of the following factors excePt: September 2a09 except: September 2005 a.V a. Cardiac rate b.x b. Bocly surface area c. XI c. Stroke volume d. XII d. Cardiac contractili[17. Autoregulation is seen in: Mnrch 2010 26. QRS cornplex is due to: Selttember 2008 a. kidney a. Ventricular repolarization b. Brain b. Atrial depolarization c. Muscles d. All of the above c. Conduction through AV node18. Factor required for ervthrocyte stability: llarch 20lA d. Ventricular depolarization 27. Vitanrin K causes carborylation of all of the a. Ank,vrin following clotting faclors except: S:ptentber 2006 b. Spet--trin a. Il c. NADPII d. Al1 of ti-re above b. VIIL9. Extrinsic system of coagulation is checked by: c. VIII a. aPTT Mnrch 2010 d. IX b. PT 28. Mean pulmonary artery pressure is: Septenfuer 2007 c. BT a. 10 mm Hg *. d. b. 15 mm Hg PTT c. 20 mm Hg T20. Reticulocytosis is not seen in: a. Chronic renal failure anemia SeptenLber 2005 d. 25 mm Hg I arterial pressure is calculated as: March 2009 b. Hemorrhage c. Hereditary spherorytosis 29. Mean a. Diastolic pressure +1i3 (Systolic pressure- diastolic a d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria pressure) o - r b. Systolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure- diastolic21. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of: pressure) o a. Spectrin September 2007 c. Diastolic + 1l3rd of systolic pressure o b. Pyruvate kinase d. Arithmetic mean of systolic and diastolic pressures c. Cytokeratin 30. Blood flow in the vessels supplying the d. Integrin subendocardial portion of left ventricle occurs22. Raised aPTT is seen in which of the following during: September 20A9 bleeding disorder: March 2009 a. Systole a. Hemophilia A b. Diastole b. Hemophilia B c. Throughout the cycle c. Von-Willebrand disease d. Diastole and mid half of systole d. Henoch - Schonlein purpura 31-.Coronary vasodilation is caused by: September 2009 a. AdenosineCIRCULATORY SYSTEM b. Noradrenergic stimulation23. CVP denotes pressure of: September 2005 c. Hypocarbia a. Left ventricle d. All of the above b. Left atrium 32. True statement regarding purkinje fibres: c. Right ventricle September 2009 d. Right atrium a. Are myelinated fibres24. The first heart sound is due to: September 2005 b. Have action potential about a tenth as long as those a. AV valves closure in the heart muscle b. Closing of aortic and pulmonary valves c. Have conduction velocify of four times than that of c. Opening of AV valves the heart muscle d. Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves d. All of the above
  • 14. Physiology I 33. Negative waves in jugular venous pulse: March 2010 41. True regarding glucose tolerance test are all except: a. A wave b. V wave September 2007 a. Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial state c. C wave;- d. X wave b. 1 gram of glucose/kg body weight is administered 34. ECG changes seen c. Glucose levels are checked after 2 hours in hypocalcemia: March 2010 a. ST segment depression d. Diagnosis of diabets mellitus can be established 42. Which one of the following statements describes b. Prolongation of ST segment c. Inversion of T wave diabetes mellitus: September 2007 d. Prolongation of PR segment a. Rise of blood sugar of 50 mg/100 ml in oral glucose 35. Left ventricular failure is said to be present if tolerance test pulmonary capillary wedge pressure exceeds: b. Fasting blood sugar value more than 200 mg/100m1 Septenfuer 2009 c. Post prandial rise of blood sugar more than a. 5mmHg 50 mg/100 ml b. 10 mm Hg d. AII of the above c. 15 mm I{g 43. Which of the following causes hypocalcemia: d. 20 mm Hg September 2008 ENDOCRINOLOCY a. Parathormone b. Thyroid hormones o 36. Anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following except: c. Calcitonin March 2005 d. 1, 2S-dihydroxycholecalciferol a. GH 44. The hormone which helps in milk secretion: b. TSH September 2008, September 2010 c. FSH a. Oxytocin d. GnRH b. Grorvth hormone 37. TSH is normal in: September 2006 c. FSH a. Hyperthyroid d. Prolactin b. Euthyroid 45. Features like hypogonadism, dwarfism, loss of hair, c. Hypothyroid pigmentation and ulcets of skin and decreased d. Graves immunity are associated with deficiencv of: 38. Which of the following is not related to the calcium September 2008 metabolism: March 2007 a. Iron a. Calcitonin b. Zinc b. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol c. Iodine c. Vitamin D d. Copper d. Thyroxine 46. Long term status of blood sugar is explained by: 39. At what time of the day GH levels are highest: Septenfuer 2008 September 2007 a. FIbA a. 2 hrs after sleep b. Serial measurement of FBS b. 2 hours before sleep c. Oral glucose tolerance test c" Evening d. HbAlc d. Early moming 47. Suprarenal medulla secretes which hormones: 40. Fasting blood sugar in normal individuals is: Septentber 2009 September 2007 a. Glucocorticosteroids a. 80-100 mg/100 ml b. Catecholamines b. 100 -120 mg/100 rnl c. Androgens c. I20 -140 mg/100 ml d. Mineralocorticoids d. 140-160 mg/100 ml
  • 15. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination48. Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which 56. Glomular filtration rate increases if: Septentber 2005 hormone deficiencY: September 2009 a. Increased plasma oncotic pressure a. CRI{ b. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure b. ACTH c. Increased renal blood flol,v c. Cortisol d. Increased hrbular hydrostatic pressure d. MSH 57. Substance used to measure renal perfusion:49. Procedure of glucose tolerance test is: September 2009 March 2007 a. Giucose load in fed state, measurement of blood a. Inulin glucose after 2 hours L DAU U. I AII. b. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement of blood c. Creatinine glucose after 2 hours d. Mannitoi c. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement oI 58. True regarding water absorption in tubules: urinary glucose after 2 hours Septentber 2007 d. Glucose load in fed state, measuren-rent of urinarv glucose after 2 hours a. N{ajoritv of facultative reabsorption occurs in50. Corticosteroids suppress: Septtnber 2009 prox.imai tubule a. CH b. Bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to b. ACTH sodium absorption c. FSH c. 25"/" of lvater is reabsorbed irrespective of r,rater balance * - d. LH51. Thyroxine levels are raised in: March 2010 d. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent .T a. Myxedema 59. Site of action of ADH is: March 2008 - b. Endemic goitre a. PCT i< ;,(n c. Idiopathic nontoxic colloid goitre b. Vasa recta d. Graves disease ,;o52. True about Chvosteks sign are all of the following c. Loop ofhenle d. Collecting ducts ;r -Q except: March 2010 60. What is glomerular filtration rate? Morch 2008 1o a. Denotes neuromuscular hyperexcitability b. Elicited over face a. 100 ml/min ,< b. 125 ml/min c. Raised calcium level d. Facial nerve is stimulated by tapping c. 150 ml/min d. 775 ml/minEXCRETORY SYSTEM 61. Active resorption of sodium ion occurs in:53. Normal glomerular capillary pressure: March 2005 March 2008 a. 15 a. Ascending loop of henle o. z3 b" Early distal tubule c. 35 c. Proximal tubule d. 45 d. All of the above54. Substance which is not absorbed in the loop of 62. PCT absorbs all except: September 2408 Henle: March 2005 a. K* a. Sodium b. Urea b. Amino acids c. Cl c. Glucose d. Na* d. Hydrogen ions55. Reabsorption of Water is maximum in: 63. Glucose is reabsotbed at: SEttember 2a08 September 2009 a. PCT a. PCT b. DCT b. DCT c. Collecting duct c. Collecting duct d. All of the above d. I.oop of henle
  • 16. Physiology 64. Maximum absorption of NaCl in proximal 72. Urobilinogen is formed in the: September 2006 convoluted tubule ociurs due to the effect of: a. I-iver March 2009 b. Kidney a. ADH c. Intestine b. Aldosterone d. Spieen c. Atrial natriuretic peptide 73. Chymotrypsinogen is activated into chymotrypsin by: d. Angiotensin II 65. ANP acts at the: March 2007 September 2009 a. Proximal tubule a. Trypsin :.{ b. Distal tubule b. Pepsin c. Collecting tubule c. Renin d. Henle loop cl. HCI 66. GFR decreases with the following: Sc1ttembcr 2009 74. Ion which promotes glucose absorption in the gut a. Hypoproteinemia rep;ion: Se1:tenfuo 2007 b. Hypotension a. Cl c. Hvpertension b. K. d. A1l of the above c. Na* 67. Urinary concentrating ability of kidney increases if d. Ca2* there is: September 2008 75. ADEK deficiency is seen in:!,(9.i a. Increase in renal blood flow a. Malabsorptionsyndrome September 2007 b. Increase in GFR b. Obstructive jaundiceOi c. Decrease in medullary hyperosmolarity c. Deficiency of pancreaticJt. d. Contraction in extracellular fluid volume lipaseo; d. All of the above Kupffer cells in the liver are:(r) :, GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT 76. March 2008>,I, 68. Faecal mass is a. mainly derived Undigested food from: March 2005 a. Endothelial celis b. Secretory cellsO- b. Digested food c. Phagocytic cells c. Intestinal secretions d. Excretory cells d. intestinal flora 77.True about active absorption of iron is: March 2009 69. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is: a. Absorbed in distal ileum September 2005 b. Absorbed in stomach a. Gastrin c.Not absorbed in duodenum and proximal lejunum b. Bile acid d.Decreases follouing gastrectomv c. Bile salt 78. Mechanism involved in the absorption of glucose d. Secretin frorn small intestine is which of the following: 70. Rapidly absorbed in the stomach is: September 2006 a. Protein March 2005 b. Carbohydrate a. Active co-transport with sodium c. Fat b. Passive diffusion d. None c. Facilitated diffusion 71. Which of the following is not produced by d. Active co-transport with potassium hepatocytes: September 2006 79. Causes of vitamin 812 deficiency is: September 2006 a. Gamma globulin a. Lack of intrinsic factor b. Albumin b. Diseases affecting terminal ileum c. Fibrinogen c. Fish tapeworm infestation d. Prothrombin d. All of the above
  • 17. Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCr screening Examination 80. Salivary amylase is activated by: March 20A7 89. Stretch reflex of urinary bladder is integrated at: a. Sodium Ion March 2007 b. Chiorine Ion a. Sacral portion of spinal cord c. Potassium Ion b. Lumbar portion of spinal cord d. Bicarbonate Ion c. Substantia gelatinosa NERVOUS SYSTEM d. Sympathetic plexus 81. Bipolar cells is seen in: March 2005 90. Function of neocerebellum is: SEtentber 2007 a. Sympathetic ganglion a. Maintaining posture and equilibriurn b. Retina b. Planning and programming of voiuntary c. Cochlear ganglion movements d. Parasympathetic ganglion c. Maintenance of muscle tone 82.All are carried through anterolateral system except: d. Propior:eption trIarclr 2005 a. Propricrceptittn 91. All of the following are concerned vvith spatial b. Ternperafure orientation: Septesltr, 2;t1,, c. Iain a. rcstibuiar receptors d. Crude touch b. Eyes 83. All or none law is obeyed by: Marclr 2005 c. Proprioceptors in joint capsule a. Post synaptic potential d. All of the above b. Non propagated potential 92. A cut /lesion above the pyramidal tract decussation c. Action potential results in: Septenfuer 20a7 T84. d. Spike potential Sensory fiber with least conduction velocify: a. Paralysis of the opposite half of the body T b. Contralateral loss of propioception Septentber 2005 c. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature a a. C- fiber b. Alpha fiber d. Contralateral loss of vibration and joint position o t- Which lies in the dorsal column of spinal cord: c. beta fiber 93. o85. d. Gamma fiber AII are primary colours except: September 2005 a. Fasciculus gracilis Selttenber 2007 o a. green b. Anterior spinothalmic tract b. Blue c. Dorsal spinocerebellartract c. Red d. rentral spinocerebellar tract d. White 94. Phantom limb is explained by: September 200786. True about colour blindness: September 2005 a. Webers law a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Law of projection b. Tritanopia is the commonest disorder c. Fechners law of degeneration c.Trichromats are unable to appreciate blue colour d. Pascals law d.Defect in 1 or more prime colours87. True about semicircular canals is: 95. Clasp knife rigitidy is also known as: September 2A07 , September 2005 a. Submerged in a fluid called endolymph a. Inverse stretch reflex b. Base of cupula is in close contact with afferent fibres b. Withdrawl reflex of cochlear division of the eight cranial nerve c. Lengthening reaction c. Arranged at right angles to each other d. Crossed extensor reflex d. Associated with hearing 96.NeurotransmitterdepletedinParkinson,sdisease:88. Blind spot of mariotte: March 20A7 Septentber 2007 , a. Fovea centralis a. Dopamine b. Optic disc b. Acetylcholine c. Macula lutea c. Clutarnate d. Ors serrata d. GABA
  • 18. Physiology 97. Function of floccunodular lobe of cerebellum is: 104. True regarding movements of the cilia in the innerJiil::a .. t*irri _l h4arch 2008 ear are all except: March 2A09;:;i:riitll i:.i,;;:ii;.ri: a. Co-ordination of movements a. It moves lr.hen head is rotated b. Equilibrium b. It moves rthen moving person suddenlv stops c. Chemoreception c. It moves r.vhen perilymph moves d. Planning of movements d. Its movement is guided by the inertia of 98. Limbic system is concerned with all except: endolymph March 2008 105. Electrical response, due to the effect of light on a. Higher function photosensitive compounds of rods and cones: b. Emotion March c. Memory 2009 d. a. Hyperpolarisationcrccur.s Planned motor activity b. Depolarisationoccurs 99. Alpha wave in EEG are seen in: March 2008 a. Mental w.ork c. Spike potential is generated b. Auake state d. None of the above c. Sleep 106. N{aximum number of sodium channels per square d. REM sleep micrometer, is prespnt in: March 2009 100. Features of occipital lobe of brain are all except: a. Cell body >: March 2008 b. Axon terminal O, a. Visuai cortex lies in relation to calcarine fissure c. Surface of myelin o: J:, b. Brodmanns area7 corresponds to visual cortex d. Nodes of Ranv ier c. Geniculocalcarine fibres from the medial half of 1.07. Sweating is mediated by:. March 2009, September 20L0 o.r the lateral geniculate terminate on the superior a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity cI).. >: d. lip of the calcarine fissure b. Noradrenergic mediated sympatheticactivity I.. Its the only area in the brain activated by r,isual c. Noradrenergicmediatedparasympatheticactivity L,, stimuli d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activity 10L. Dreaming is common in which stage of sleep: ;a. 108. Function of a muscle spindle is: Septenfuer 2009 Septenfuer 2008 a. Regulates withdrawl reflex a. REM b. Maintains muscle tone b. NREMl c. NREM 2 c. Feedback device to maintain muscle length d.NREM3 d.Ileceptor for inverse stretch reflex 109. Sensory organ for responding to texture is: 102. White colour vision/Perception of white light is due to: September 2008 September 2009 a. Stimulation of red cones more than blue or green a. Meissner corpuscles b. Stimulation of blue cones more than red or green b. Merkel cells c. Stimulation of green cones more than blue or red c. Ruffini corpuscles d. Stimulation of red, blue and green cones equally d. Pacician corpuscles 103. All are Neuroglial cells in the CNS except: 110. Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in: Septentuer 2008 SePtember 2009 a" Oligodendrocytes a. Lambert-Eaton st ndrome b. Microglia b. Parkinson disease c. Astrocytes c. Alzheimer disease d. Kunffer cells d. Myasthcnia gravis
  • 19. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination111. Alt of the following are cholinergic effects except: 119. Optic nerve is: September 2009 September 2009 a. 1st order neuron a. Taclrycardia b. 2nd order neuron b. Salivation c. 3rd order neuroon c. Miosis d. 4th order neuron d. Bronchoconstriction RESPIRATORY SYSTEM112. Properties of alpha waves are all of the following L20. Correct statement regarding high altitude: except: September 2009 Septernber 2006 a. It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area a. Po2 is less b. It has a frequenq of 8-12}12 b. Pco2 is more c. Frequency is decreased by low glucose level c. In the ait percentage of oxygen is iess d. Seen in REM sleep lii d. Decrease in number of RBCsi.l3. Melatonin is associated with all of the following 121. Less 02 saturation in blood is seen in: except: Mnrch 2010 SeTttenfucr 2006 a. Vomiting a. R-L shunt b. Pituitary giand secretion b. LV obstruction c. Sleep mechanism c. RV obstruction d. ]etlag d. L-V shunt 1i114. All of the following effects c,rn occur if vagus is Shift to right in Orygen dissociation curve is seen in n stimulated, except: March 2009 122. all except: March 2007 .rtf tir r.- a. Reduction in blood pressure b. lncrease in secretions of the intestine a. b. lncreased PaCO2 Decreased PaCO2 :< :aa c. Intestinalmusculatureconstriction c. d. Bronchialmusculature relaxation d. Increase in 2,3 DPG Decreased pH l6 :r115. Influx of which of the following ion is responsible 123. Which is responsible for respiratory drive: ,;o for IPSP: a. Potassium ion March 2005 SePtembcr 2()07 :o b. Chloride ion a. 02 i< b. co c. Calcium ion c. CO2 d. Sodium ion d. Bicarbonate ions1,1.6. Delta waves on EEG are recorded in: September 2007 124. Regarding lung volumes, which of the following is a. REM true: Marclt 2009 b. 01 NREM a. Functional residual capacity accounts for 75o/o of c. 02 NREM total lung capacity d. Deep sleep b. Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated between117. Temperature regulation is chiefly under the control breaths of: September 2007 c. Vital capacity increases in elderly a. Midbrain d. Residual volume is about 500 ml b. Pons 125. Bohr effect is described as: Septen*er 2009 c" Medulla a. Decrease in CO2 affinity of hemoglobin when the d. Hypothalamus pH of blood rises1.18. Vomiting centre is situated in the: Septenfuer 2008 b. Decrease in COt affinity of hemogiobin when the a. Hypothalamus pH of blood falls b. Midbarin c. Decrease in O, affinity of hemoglobin nhen the pH of blood rises c. Pons d. Decrease in 02 affinity of hemoglobin nhen the d. Medulla pH of blood falls
  • 20. Physiology 126" Vagal stimulation causes: September 2009 a. Increase in rate of respiration 134. Sperm becomes mobile in: March 200g h. Incrcase in depth of respiration a. Vas deferens c. Bronchodilation b. Prostatic urethra d. Decreased depth of respiration c. Iestis 1.27. Surfactant is produced by: March 2UA d. Epididymis a. Alveolarmacrophages 135. Asthenospermia means: September 2005 b. Lymphocytes in the alveoli a. Reduction in number of sperms c. Type I alveolar cells b" Reduction in motility of sperms d, Type II alveolar cells c. Absence of sperms REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM d. Absence of semen 128. Which of the following describes In vitro 136. Ovulation occurs: Sqttember 2005 Septentber 2005 a. 14 days after menstruation a. Method to judge the time of ovulation so that b. days prior to next menstruation 1,4 cortus can result in fertilization c. On 14th day of the cycle Use of hormones to prom()te fertilizafion in tubcs the ii. None of the above c. Removing mafure ova,fertilizing it u,ith sperrrr 137. Term period for embryonic period: Septenrber 20a6 and implanting back in uterus a. 0-14 days of gqstation b.>l d. Artificalinsemination 129. Ovulation is due to surge of: c. 74 days to 9 weeks of gestationOl a. FSH September 2006,2A10 d. 9 weeks to birthOiJ..r b. LH 22 weeks intrauterine to 7 days after L38. Impotency may be seen in: birth September 2007 c. Prolactin9;A. d. TSH a. Mumps orchitis b. Testosetronedeficiency 130. Milk ejection is facilitated by:),r a. Oxytocin March 2007 c. ProlactinomaIti b. d. All of the aboveo., c. Growth hormone FSH MISCELLANEOUS d. LH 139. Charecteristic of smooth muscle cells in intestine L31. Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of: March 2005 September 2007 a. Does not have actin and myosin a. Fertilization b. Cannot do sustained contraction b. Ovulafion c" It contracts when stretched in the absence of any c. Implantation extrinsic innervation d. Menstruation d. Does not require calcium for contraction 132. All of the following are indicators of ovulation 140. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult: except: March 2008 a. Increase in cervical mucus September 2005 b. Abdominal cramps a. 320-330 mOsmll c. LH surge b. 300-310 mOsmA d. Fall in body temperature c. 280-290 mOsm/L 133. Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopian d. 260-270 mOsm/L tube: September 2007 141. Hydrogen ion is eliminated by: September 2005 a. Fimbrial a. Kidney b. Isthmus b. Lungs c. Ampuila c. Liver d. Interstitial cl. Stomach
  • 21. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screerring Exarnination Which ion helps is resting membrane potential in 150. Nearly 20"/o of normal tensile strength of tissue at142. neurons: Scptenbu 2005 the site of wound is gained after: September 2008 a. Potassium a. 1 rneek o{ rvound healing b. Calcium b. 2 u,eeks of r,vound healing c. Chloride c. 3 weeks of nound healing d. Sodium d. 4 weeks of rvound healing143. Metabolic acidosis is seen in all except: 151. Major contribution to plasma osmolality is by SePtember 2005 which ion: Mrch 2009 a. Diabeticketaacidosis a. Sodium b. Emphysema b. Potassium c. Aspirin overdose c. Clucose d. Uremia d. Calcium144. Magnitude of action potential is mainly affected by: 152, A11 of the following changes are seen in chronic ScYtenfuer 2005 starvation except: Septtittber 2009 :r. Calcium ion a. A11 fat stores have been useo up b. Hvdrogen ion b. Seuere fat and muscle rvasting c. Sodium ion c. Brain uses ketoacids as fuel d. Potassium ion d. Le,el of serum proteins less than 2.8 g/di- :145. Type of exercise done to increase the muscle 153. Repolarization of a nerve ts due to: Septutrber 2t)09 : strength: Scptunber 2005 a. Hydrogen ions ,T .I a. Aerobic isotonic b. Potassium ions b. Isometric , r< c. Isotonic c. Sodium ions :a d. All of the above d. Calcium ions 154. Which interleukin is needed for differentiation of .o rl-146. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except: SePtentber 2007 eosinophils: a. IL1 Scptr:nrber 2009 o ,o a. Neuromuscularjunction b. IL,2 < b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous svstem c. IL4 c. Bronchial smooth muscle d. IL5 d.Brain 155. Bicarbonate exchange occurs in: Septembt:r 2009 L47. Normal limit for postprandial (after 2 hours) blood a. Kidney glucose level (in mg/dl-): March 2008 b. Lung a. 80-110 c. None of the above b. 110-140 d. Both of the above c. 1.40-770 156, Size of action potential is decreased as a result of; d. 170-200 Nlarch 2010 148. BMI of underweight individual: March 2008 a. Less than 18.5 a. Lower extracellular sodium b. 18.5-24.9 b. Raised extracellular calcium c. 25-29.9 c. Lorver extracellular calcium d. More than 30 d. Raised extraceliular sodium l::i il irl-:i:iirrl 1:r,.: i ,., . . 157" With glucose which of the following is transported: 149. Most abundant ion in intracellular fluid is: March 2010 , ..... SePtember 2008 ,t *i a. Hydrogen ions a. Protein b. Potassium ions b. Bicarbonate c. Calcium ions c. Potassium d. Sodium d. Sodium ions
  • 22. Physiology 158. During pregnancy/ deficiency of which vitamin in c. Post adolescent women causes neural tube defect in the newborn: d. Post senile Mnrch 2010 161. Main content of bilayer cell membrane a. Thiamine is: b. Pyridoxine March 2009 c. Folic acid a. Glycerol d. C1anocobalamin b. Cholesterol 159. What is the BMI for obese person: March 2010 c. Cholesterol ester a. Less than 19.5 d. Triacyl glycerol b. 18.5_24.9 162. Oily substance secreting gland c. 25-29.9 is: September 2009 d. More than 30 a. Sweat gland 160. A disease occurring before 65 yr b. Meibomian gland of age is termed as: c. Salivary gland a. Senile September 2007 d. Lacrimal gland b. Pre senile (, o J i.. o U) lt, r o.,:.1, . , l , :,. ,. ,
  • 23. SIELF ASSESSlvfgN"g ,I Gn/McI SCRFEwING BIOCHEMISTRY (euestions) ENZYMES 9. Tme regarding glutamine is: 1. Which of the following is an important marker for March 20a7 myocardial infarction: a. NH3 transporter September 2005 a. LDH b. Cannot cross the blood brain barrier b. CK-MB c. Ioxic substance in tlre body c. Troponins d. Stored in smooth muscle d. All of the above 2. Enzymes are usually: 10. Sotrrce of nitrogen in urea cycle is: Septenfuer 200g Septentbt 2()05 a. Glutamate and aspartate a. Lipid b. Nucleic acirls b. Glutamate and NH3 c. Carbohvdrates c. Arginine and aspartaite d. Protein d. Il{3 and aspartate 3. Other name of AST: St:ptf c117lg7tggg 11. C peptide is part of: Septenfuer 2007 a. SGOT a, Pro-insulin b. SGPT b. Insulin c. Alkalinephosphatase c. ACTH d. Acid phosphatase a cl. Gror.vth hormone AMINO ACIDS AND PROTEINS METABOLISM 12. Glutathione is: March 2009 4. Ammonia is detoxified in brain by: March 2005 a. Dipeptide a. Creatinine b. Oligopeptide b. Uric acid c. Glutamine c. Tripeptide d. Urea d. Pollpeptide 5. Thyroxine is synthesized from: March 2005 13. True regarding ubiquitin is: September 2009 a. Phenylalanine a. Product of purine metabolisrn b. Tryptophan b. Protein destructions c. Tyrosine c. Present in prokarvotes d. None of the above 6. In intermittent d. Protein synthesis porphyria, what is present in the urine: 14. Best indicator of protein quality is: March 2005 September 2005 a. Net protein utilization a. Biliverdin b. Digestibility coefficienr b" Uroporphlrin c. Biological value c. Porphobiiinogens d. Amino acid scoreh;s d. BilirubinFr, 15. Limiting amino acid in wheat are: Marclt8,.ft: 7. Essential amino acids are named so: Septenther 2005 2005F. a. Because they are produced in the body a. Lysine, arginine$i b. Because they are not produced in the body b. Threonine, methionineH c. They are not important for life c. Lysine, threonine$;Eg d. Every food stuff essentially c<lntains them d. Lysine, methioninep;Er 8. Niacin is synthesized from: Septenfuer 20a5 L6. Secretory proteins are synthesized in: Mnrch 2005F":5;: a. Phenylalanine a. CytoplasmF,.EiiC1i b. Tryptophan b. Endoplasmic reticulumtr c. Tyrosine c" Both of the aboveE& "d. Methionine d. None of the abovea;i):j..:l:..:i.,,,
  • 24. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination1.7. Pulses are deficient in: Septentber 2005,2010 26. What is the end product of anearobic glycolysis: 3. Lysine September 2009 b. Methionine a. Pyruvate c. Both b. Lactate d. None of the above c. Fats18. Tyrosine becomes essential in which of the following d" Cholesterol condition: September 2005 a. Wilsons disease 27. Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing b. Alkaptonuria conversion of aldose sugars to ketose sugars: c. Thyrosinosis March 2010 d. PhenylketonuriaL9. Mousy odour urine is present in: Septemher 2409 a. Oxidoreductase a. Phenvlketonnria lr. Phosnhol riose isonrerase b. Maple svrup urine disease c. Decarboxvlase c. Tyrosinemia d. Aldolase d. Homocystinuria 28. How many molecules of pyruvate are formed fromCARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM complete metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose:20. Hexose sugar is not present in: Septemher 2005 March 2005 a. Ribose a. 1 TD b. Glucose c. Fructose b.2 .o d. Galactose c.3 .c)21. Key glycolytic enzymes in glycolysis are all except: d.4 ,x March 2007 29. First substrate of Krebs cycle is: September 2005 ,m a. Phosphofructokinase a. Glycine ,= b. Hexokinase b. Lipoprotein a :{ c. Pyruvate kinase c. Pyruvate d. Glucose-l,6,diphosphatase d. HCI v22. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle 30. Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs rn involves: March 2007 which cycle: September 2008 a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase a. Glycolysis b. Fumarase c. Malatedehydrogenase b. Malate shuttle d. Succinate thiokinase c. Urea cycle23" Andersen disease is due to lack of: March 2007 d. Citric acid cycls a. Branching enzyme LIPIDS METABOLISM b. Debranching enzyme Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver 31. c. Acid maltase is found in: Mnrch 2005 d. Myophosphorylase 24. Insulin is required for glucose transport in all of the a. Gauchers disease following except: March 2009 b. Obstructive jaundice a. RBC c. Von gierkes disease b. Skeletal muscles d. Nieman pick disease c. Adipose tissue 32. Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the d. Heart muscles following: March 2005 25. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is: March 2009 a. Sunflower oil a. Lysosolic enzyme b. Coconut oil b. Cytosolic enzyme c. Soyabean c. Mitochondrialenzyme d. Safflorver oil d. A1l of the above
  • 25. Biochemistry 33. Ail of the following are essential fatty acids except: 41 Reducig agent used in lipogenesis is derived fronr September 2A0S a. Linolenic acid March 2009 b. Linoleic acid a. Pentose phosphate pathrvay c. Lysergic acid b. Glycoll,sis c. TCA cycle d. Arachidonic acid d. Cluconeogenesis 34. AII are bad cholesterol except: 42. Prostaglandins are derived from September 2005 : a. HDL a. Corticosteroids March 2009 b. LDL b. Oleic acid c. /LDL c. I_inoleic acid (-1. IDL c-i. Arachidonic acid , 35. Cholesterol is: 43. Ketone bodies are September 2005 synthesised in: Marclt 2009 a. t ocopherol a. Muscle O Lipoprotein b. lilsy ; c. Kidney - c. Steroid . d. Lipopolysacchricle d. Brain 1n & j 36. Apoprotein of cholesterol is: 44. Free fatty acids are transported byF , a. Apo .A1 September 2005 a. Ceruloplasmin : h4arch 2009o ii b. ApoA2 b. Pre-albumin c. Aibumin i c. Apo C1=IJJ? r ct. ApoE d. Transthyretin 45. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesiso- 37. Carrier of cholesterol: a. NADH is:o, a. VLDL March 2007 b. Acetyi-CoA March 2o1odl b. LDL c. Acyl-CoA c. HDL d. Acetate d. Chylomicrons 46. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis , 38. L-CAT activator lipoprotein is: is: March 2007 a. HMG -CoA reductase . a. ApoAl March 2010 b. HMG -CoA slmthetase , U. ApoC2 c. HMG CoA lyase ., .. ApoC3 d. Mevalonate synthetase d. ApoE 39 Deficiency NUCLEOTIDE METABOLISM of sphingomyerinease causes: March 2007 47. Final product of purine metabolism : a. Niemann-pick clisease is: b. Marfan,s syndrome Mqrch 2010, Septermber 2010 t c. Gaucher,s disease a. Uric acid b. Creatinine 1; d. Von-Gierke,s drsease c. Xanthine 4lu. lrue regarding familial hypercholesterolemia is: d. Phoshphates March 2007 48. Production of uric acid is by: a. Deficient VLDL receptors a. Protein metabolisrn September 2005 b. Deficient HDL receptors b. Lipid metabolism c. HMG CoA reductase deficiency c. Pyrimidinemetabolism d. Deficient LDL receptors d. Purine metabolism
  • 26. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening ExaminationMISCELLANEOUS March 200749. Chitin is a: Mnrch 2005 a. Polypeptide b. Fatty ester c. Polysacchride d. None50. Watsons DNA model is : March 2005 a. Right handed,parallel a. Hypoglycemia b. l,eft handed,anti parallel b. Hypercholcsterolemia c. Lefthanded,parallel c. Lipolyiss d. Right handed,anti parallel d. Ketoacidosis51. Northern blotting technique is used for the 58. The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its separation of: Mnrch 2005, Septtcnrber 2010 relation to: Mnrch 2009 a. DNA a. Fructose b. Protein b. Glycogen c. RNA c. Glyceraldehyde d. Glucose 1w d. Protein DNA interaction 59. Western blotting is done for identifying Marclt 2009 ;o52. Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA: a. Protein ..o September 2405 b. Lipids lr- .irfl a. Adenosine b. Guanine c. RNA d. DNA i= :.U, c. Uracil Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit: .:,{ d" Thvmine 60" NIarch 2010, September 2010 .v i<53. DNA has: September 2005 a. Hexokinase a. r(Dose sugar b. Glucokinase b. Deoxyribose sugar c. Glucose-6-phosphatase d. Enolase c. Both 61. Which of the following statement if false regarding d. None mitochondria: September 2009 ,:54. Type of collagen found in cartilage: March 2047 a. Guanine rich strand is referred to as the heavy.,, a. Type I strand ll ::. ,r.: i b. Type II b. Each DNA molecule consists of 15,000-17,000 base , ,,r, c. Type III pairs d. Type IV c. Single stranded straight DNA ,i r55. Chaperones are: March 2007 d. Transmitted by maternai nonmendelian inheritan* , - a. Mediators of the post-translational assembly of 62. Palindrome is associated with: Septcnfucr 2009 , .i i . :ii protein complexes a. Synthesis of DNA b. Antigen presenting cells b. Extrachromosomal molecule of DNA c. Purine metabolism mediators c. Sequence of DNA d. Small nuclear RNA d. None of the above
  • 27. Biochemistry c. Disulfide iinkage d. Covalentbond 66. Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation of prothrombin time is: March 2009 a. Heparin b. Oxalate c. Sodium citrate d. EDTA a. Prophase b. Metaphase 67. Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage of c. Telophase cell cycle: Septenfuer 2()09 d. Interphase a. G0 65. DNA double helix is rnaintained by: b. G1 Mnrch 20(t9 c. G2 a. Hydrogen bond b. Vanderrtaal forces d.sEFa=lUIC)o.dI"
  • 28. PATHOLOGY (Questions)CENERAL PATHOLOCY 9. Following are the examples of apoptosis except:1, Invasive carcinoma differs from carcinoma in situ by: Scptemher 2008 March 2005 a. Graft versus host disease a. Abnormal nuclear morphology b. Menstrual cycle b. Pleomorphism c. Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction c. Breached basement rnembrane d. Tumour necrosis d. Mitoses 10. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen in which of the2. All of the following responses are seen in acute following conditions: September 2008 inflammation except: March 2005 a. Tuberculosis a. Vasodilatation b. Hypertension b. Neutrophil migration c. Syphilis c. Granuloma formation d. Leprosv d. Increased vascular permeabilit-v 11. Stain used to diagnose amyloidosis: Scptember 20083. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of which type a. Methylene blue of cells: March 2005 b. Acid fast stain a. B cells c. Rose bengal b. T cells d. Congo red * c. Monocytes 12. Call-exner bodies are seen in: March 2009 d. Macrophages a. Theca cell tumour4. Apoptosis means: September 2005 b. Yolk sac tumour a. Regeneration of cells after injury c. Granulosa cell tumour b. Reperfusion injury of the cells d. Fibroma of ovary c. Programmed internal cell death 13. If calcium levels are normal, which type of d. Uncontrolled multiplication of cells calcification is seen: Septembcr 20095. Red infarct is seen in: March 2007 a. Metastatic a. Kidney b. Dystrophic b. Heart c. Dyspiastic c. Brain d. Metaplastic d. Smali intestine 14. Metastatic calcification is seen in: Septentuer 20095. Metastatic calcification does not occurs in; March 2007 a. Cysts a. Fundal glands of intestine b. Atheroma b. Renal tubules c. Normal tissues c. Lungs alveoli d. Infarcts d. Blood vessels 1"5. Myositis ossificans is differentiated from other7. Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized light reactive fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of: shows: September 2007 September 2009 a. Silverbirefringence a. Dysplastic bone b. Goidenbirefringence b. Dystrophic bone c. Blue birefringence c. Metapiastic bone d. Green birefringence d. Hypertrophic bone8. All of the following are tumor suppressor genes 15" Extracellular hyaline change is seen in: except: September 2007 September 2A09 a. NF1 a. Arteriosclerosis b. pRb b. Chronic glomerulonephritis c. SMAD1 c. Leiomyoma d. p53 d. Alcoholic hyaline
  • 29. Pathology L7. First change seen in acute inflammation is: 26. All of the following are true regarding G6FD September 2009 deficiency except: ;, a. Increased permeability a. A recessive Xlinked trait March b. Females are commonly affected c. Oxidatir,.e stress causes ltemolvsis d. Protective against plasmodium falciparum malaria 27.CD-II helps in assessment of which of the followino t:: March 2009 Itiarch ifi a. Warihin-Finkeldey cells a. Adult T-cell leukemia 2 rL, b. N4arked follicular hyperplasia b. Hodgkin,s disease l. . 4oih-eaten appearance, c. M-yc-osis fungoides : d. Ali of the above d. Larger granular lvmphocl,tic leukemia 19. Arnyloid is stained with: ScTtttttbt r 23. CEA 2009 is eievated in all of the follorving except: a. Lugols iodine b. h{ethyl violet Mnrclr a. Alcoholic cirrhosrs c. Cor.rgo red b. Ulcerative colitis d. Sucian black c. Carcinoma colon 20. Reactionary hemorrhage occur within: March 2010 d. Prostatic carcinoma .. a. 24 hours o ABDOMINAL PATHbIOCYo ,, i: c. 7-2 days 2-4 days 29. Hydatid cyst is commonly found in:oJ , d. 4-6 davs a. Lungs Septerfter 2005 b. Livero :ii CLINICAL PATHOLOCY c. KidneyI :: 21. Bence Jones protein is: March 2005 d. BrainF ., u Monoclonal heavy chains 30. Most common site of abscess formation due to D. Monoclonal light chains amoeba is:o- , .. Both of above Septenrber 2005 a. Lungs , d. None o{ the above b. Liver 22. Marker for carcinoma colon is: September 2005 c. Kidney a. AFII d. Brain ,, b. cA-125 I 31. All of the following are features of non-alcoholic c" CEA steatohepatitis except: , d. HCG September 2005 a. Hepatocyte ballooning . 23. AFP (alpha feta protein) is raised in: SeTttenrber 2005 b. Steatosis , a. Renal carcinoma c. Histological features are different from alcoholic b. Pancreaticcarcinoma steatohepatitis , c" Prosiatic carcinoma d. Mallory bodies . d. Hepatic carcinoma 32. Serum marker indicating active viral replication 24. CA-125 is marker for: in a. Breast cancer Septentuer 2007 hepatitis-B is: Septenfuer 20A6 a. HBsAg b. Ovarian cancer b. HBeAg c. Pancreatic cancer c. HBcAg d" Colon cancer d. HBVDNA 25. Tumor marker related to both colon carcinoma and 33. Which of the following is also known as australia pancreatic carcinoma: September 2008 antigen: Septenfucr 2006 a. CA-125 a. HBsAg b. cA-19-9 b. HBeAg c. CD-i5-3 c. HBcAg d. All of the above d. HBVDNA
  • 30. t Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination34. Hepatitis which spreads by feco-oral route is: 42. Amoebic liver abscess ruptures most commonly into September 2007 which cavity: September 2009 Hepatitis A 3. a. Peritoneal b. Hepatifis B b. Pleural c. HePatitis C c. Pericardial d. HePatitis D d. None of the above35. Mallory bodies are seen in all of the following except: 43. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in all of the following :fili September 2008 except: Septnfuer 2009 "", a. Hepatocelluiarcarcinoma a. Obstructive jaundice b. Non-alcoholichepatitis b. Placental hrmor c. Secondary biliary cirrhosis c. Prostatic tumor d. Alcohoiic hepatitis d. Skeletal tumor36. Massive splenomegaly is not seen in: September 2008 44. Follwing are the predisposing factors for hepatic a. Malaria encephalopathy except: Septtnrher 20A7 b. Chronic rnyelogenous leukemia a. Gi bleeding c. Syphilis b. Hypol;1lgP1;6 d. Sickle celi anemia c. Metaboiic acidosis37. True regarding infectivity period of hepatitis A: d. Alcohol Septnfuer 2009 45. Kupffer cells in liver are responsible for: a. 1-2 weeks before and 2 weeks after the onset of Scptcttfutr 2007 jaundice a. Lytic functions ,! b. 1-2 rveeks before and 1 week after the onset of b. Excretory functions jaundice c. Absorptive functions ,Pt - c. 2-3 rveeks before and 2 weeks after the onset o{ d. Phagocytic fr-rnctions !i f jaundice 46. Portal hypertension is said to be present if portal d. 2-3 weeks and 1 week after the onset of I ! before venous pressure is more than: .,re rnan: lvnrcn lulu jaundice a. 3-5 mm Hg I38. Presence of HBeAg in serum of a patient of hepatitis- b. 5-8 mm Hg :Gl B indicates: September 2009 c. 10-72mm Hg < a. Acute, non-infectious stage d. 15-20 nrm Hg b. Acute, infectious stage c. Chronic, non-infectious stage NERVOUS SYSTEM PATHOLOCY :I d. Chronic, infectious stage 47. All of the following are true regarding Guillain-Barre r39. Lardaceous spleen is a feature of: syndrome except: Mnrch 2008 March 2010 a. Thalassemia a. Peripheral nervous system is affected b. Amyloidosis b. Histologically there is inflammation of peripheral c. Sickle cell anemia nerve d. Malaria c. Descendingparalysis40. Which of the following is associated with primary d. Eievated CSF proteins hepatic malignancy: 48. Negri bodies are characteristic of: Septentber 2008 March 2010 a. Cadmium a. Tetanus b. Vinyl chloride b. Rabies c. Chromium compounds c. Polio d. Asbestos d. AIDS41. False about hydatid cyst is which of the following: CARDIOVASCU LAR SYSTEM PATHOLOCY September 2009 49. Rheumatic fever is commonly associated with Ideally should be managed by pre-operative affection of: September 2005 albendazole followed by surgery a. Tricuspid valve 20% saline is scolicidal b. Mitral valve c. Most commonly involves lung c. Aortic valve d. PAIR is employed for hepatic hydatid cysts d. Pulmonary valve
  • 31. Pathology 50 Lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment is seen in 58. Concentric heart muscles in: hypertrophy of heart is caused by: Marclr 2007 a. Atrophy September b. Hypertrophl, a. Hypertrophic cardiornyopathy c. Infarction b. Congestive heart lailure d. Hyperplasia c. Systemichypcrtension t 51. Heart failure cells are: Marclr 2007 d. Mitral regurgitation .:,li a. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells :: b. Pigmented hepatocytes ENDOCRINE SYSTEM PATHOLOCY c. Pigmented alveolar macrophages 59. All of the following are features of MEN l d. Pigmented cells in paitcreas syndrorng except: 52. Ail.of the. following are true regarding marantic September 2007 a. Pancreatic hunor endocarditis except: Ninrtlt 200g b. Pituitary tumor a. Vegetation may emi,.oiize b. Vegetations along the line of closure of leaf.lets c. Hvperparathyroidisrn c. Affects damageci valves d. lvledullary carcinoma of tf,t,xrid d. May be associated rvith hypercoaguiable 50. Pheochromocytoma is usually states associated with: , 53. Which of the following is not u .o*porrert , criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic of Jones Se1ttember 2007 fever: a. Pancreatic exocrine carcinoma ) : March 2008 b. Astrocvtoma O a. Pancarditisq b. Migrarory polyarrhritis c. Neurofibromatosis c. Erythema nodosum d. Neuroblastoma{ dV Un.All SYdenham chorea 61. Ectopic ACTH is commonly secreted by: of the followingt , fallot except: are true regarding tetralogy of " september 2()07Z ,arch 200g a. smalr cet carcinoma of the luncsi,, : a. Boot shaped heartt b. Pancreatic carcinoma b. Most common cyanotic . c. Clinicai consequencesheart disease depends on severity of c. Gall bladder malignancy subpulmonic sterrosis d. Meduliary carcinoma of thyroid l , d- Left ventricular hypertrophy 52. Best for diagnosing pheochromocytoma is: i 55. All of the following are true regarding Wegener,s gt"lYl"matosis except: a. Urinary catecholamines and .n",, , . a. Affects large size biood vessels September 2008 -"rifl"ti:"!*oot b. Serum catecholamines and their metabolites b. May affect lungs and kidneys c. CT scan c. N_ecrotizing granulomu ,r,ui.b* seen on mrcroscop). , d. PR3-ANCAs are present in upto 95% of cases d. Surgery 56. All of the following are features 63. All of the following are associated of atrial myxoma with excePt: September 2008 pheochromocytoma except: Nlarch 2010 a- Ciubbing a. Ventricular arrhythmias b. Hypertension b. Interstitialfibrosis c. Emboli c. Hypotension d. Fever d. Ectopic ACTH production 57. Biomarker to rise earliest in myocardial infarction is: 64. Hypocalcemia is seen with which o{ the following: March 2010 a. Troponin-I September 2008 a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Creatine kinase_MB b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Myoglobin c" Acute pancreatitis d. Troponin-T d. Addison disease
  • 32. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening ExaminationGASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT PATHOLOCY 73. Which of the following is true about celiac sprue:65. Longitudinal ulcers in the intestine are seen in: September 2009 September 2008 a. Associated with HLA-DII4 6. Tuberculosis b. Antiendornvsial antibodies are highly specific and b. Typhoid sensitive than other antibodies c. Amoebiasis c. Anti-gliadin antibodies are IgA/IgG d. Yersinia Characteristic of amebiasis is: d. No predisposition to malignancv65. March 2005 a. Skip lesion 74. Gardner syndrome is associated with all of the b. Longitudinal ulcer following except: March 2010 c. Flask shaped ulcer a. Intestinal polyps d. Ulcers rvith raised marp5ins b. Osteornas67. Most common type of malignancy of stomach is: c. Dcntal atrnormalities Septenrbcr 2007 d. Tnmors of the CNS a. Aclenocarcinoma 75. Which of the following is not tme regarding b. Squamous carcinorna hyperplastic tuberculosis: Mnrch 2005 c. Anaplasticcarcinoma d. Lymphoma a. Mass in right iliac fossa mav be the presenting68. True regarding morphological feature of peptic ulcer fe,rttrre : 1S: March 2008 b. Barium studies are helpful in diagrrosis ,Tl a. Usuaily multiple c. Ileo-caecal junction is common site of invoivement D b. More common in the stomach d. Should be managed by surgical resection of the i{ c. Round to oval, sharply punched out defect involved segment .I d. Size and location helps to differentiate between 76. Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the .o l- benign and malignant ulcer intestine: SeTttenfuer 2005 ro69. All of the following are true regarding Crohn disease except: Mnrch 2008 a. Ileum ,O ,< b. Jejunum a. Skip lesions b. Inflammation limited to mucosa c. Terrninal colon c. Recurrence common after surgery d. Transverse colon d. Fisfulae formation is seen 77"Most common location of gastrinoma is:70. Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in: September 2008 Se1stenfuer 2007 a. Tropical sprue a. Pancreas b. Ulcerative colitis b. Duodenum c. Crohn disease c. Jejunurn d. Ceeliac disease d. Gall bladder71. Which of the following antibody is highly specific 78. Intestinal angina symptom complex includes: for celiac disease: Seyttemher 2008 a. Anti-gliadin antibodies March 2009 b. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase a. Post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion c. Anti-endomysial antibody d. All of the above b. Post-prandial abdominal pain, r.leight loss, chronic mesenteric vessei occlusion72. Which of the following is associated with H.pylori: c. Pre-prandial abdominai pair; r,veight gain, acute March 2009 mesenteric vesscl occlusion a. Ulcerative colitis b. Crohn disease d" Pre-prandial abdominal pain, rveight gain, chronic c. Celiac sprue mesenteric vessel occlusion d. MALToma
  • 33. Pathotogy 87. All of the following are causes of aplastic anemia except: March 2A0B a. Heparitis b. Gold salts c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Fanconi anemia 88. True regarding philadelphia chromosome are all of the following except; March2g a. Present in 95% of CML patients : b. lt is the result of a reciprocai trar_rslttcation c. Both of the above c. Specific for CI{L : d. None of the above d. Desigriated as t(9;22)(q34;q1i) 81. Heinz bodies are seen in: Sr1ttcnilrt,r 89. Thalassemia is inherited as: a. G-6-PD dc-ficienc;, Septcntbcr 2(t0g b. Sickle cell disease a. Alttosomal domLnant c. Herediiary spherocytosis b. Autosomal r.r,cessivt, d. PNH c. Xlinked dominant 82. Persistentmarrow aplasia is caused by which d. Xlinked recessive hepatitis virus: 90. Auer rods are seenrjn: (9i a. HAV Seplentl,cr 2006 a. ALL Septenrlter 200g O.. b. HBV b. AML J: c. HCV c. CLL Ol d. J. None of the above d. CML Fti 83. t(9;22Xq34;q11) translocation is commonly associated 91. Trisomy 21 is associated with: Septemher 2008 <,j (L, with: a. AML September 2007 a. ALL b. AML b. ALL c. Both of the abor.e c. CML d. None of the above d" CLL 92. Iron deficiency anaemia is seen with all 84. In hemophilia, which of the following is raised: of the following except: Septenfuer 2008 Septentber 2007 a. Chronic blood loss a. BT b. b. Achlorlrydria CT c. PT c. Extensit.e surgical removal of the d rPT"F bowel i:.l. 85. All of the following d. Excess of meat in the diet ,ri are true regarding hemolytic 93. Gum hyperplasia is seen with: i$ ii.tif: |i,i,f anemla except: arrcuu4 €reePt: a" Raised haptoglobin levels March 20A8 a. AML March 2u09 ..-- b. Raised unconjugated bilirubin b. CML ..., I It:r;ii:i.i.} il, c. Reticulocytosis c. ALL?r.,.ii!:,$: i d. Hemosiderinuria indicates intravascular hemolvsis d. CLLi4,::;:::i: ,.., tU.AIl of the following are true regarding CLL excepi: 94. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are "I a. b. Most common type of leukemia in aclults Males are commonly affected March 2oog in: a. M2 numerous Septentber 2009 b. M3 c. ZAP,70 has prognostic importance c. M4 d" Affects T-cells d. M5
  • 34. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination95. Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of: 102. A patient with nephritic syndrome will not have Septenfuer 2009 September 2009 a. Hereditary spherocytosis. a. Hematuria b. Sickle cell anemia b. Mild to moderate proteinuria c. Hypertension c. Thalassemia d. Normal RBC d. Iron deficiency anemia 103. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of the96. All of the following are true regarding the findings following except: March 20L0of peripheral smear in vitamin 812 deficiency except: a. Hematuria March 2010 b. Edema a. Hypercellular marrow c. Hypertension b. Poikilocltosis d. Massive proteinuria L04. Beta-naphthyl amine dyes predisposes to: c. Hypersegmented neutrophils Septentber 20()5 d. Microcvtic red cells a. Urinary bladder Carcinoma97,DIC may be caused by: Septenfuer 2007 b. Renal carcinorna a. Proionged pregnancy c. Hepatic carcinoma b. Fat embolism d. Lung carcinorna c. Amniotic fluid embolism 105. Flea bitten kidney is seenin all of the following d. All of the above except: Septentuer 2007 :.7 a. Malignanthypertension ;l>EXCRETORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY b. 1i{ Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited: Henoch-Schonleinpurpura jlI98. c. DM ,io March 2005 d. Polyarteritisnodosa i:|- a. X-linked dominant b" X{inked recessive 105. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with: September 2009 io io c. Autosomal recessive a. Henoch-Schonleinpurpura ;.{ d. Autosomal dominant b. Hemolytic uremic s)ndrome99. All of the following are true regarding minimal c. Hypertension change glomerulonephritis except: March 2005 d. Diabetes Mellitus a" Poor response to steroids 107. Spider-leg sign on IVP is suggestive of: March 2010 a. Pyelonephritis b. Normal glomerulus b. Renal artery stenosis c. More common in childrens than adults c. Polycystic kidney disease d. Absence of podocytes d. Bilateralhydronephrosis100. Normal to increased kidney size is seen in all of the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY following except: September 2008 108. Exudative pleural effusion is seen in: March 2005 a. Diabeticnephropathy a. Pneumonia b. Polycystic kidney b" Nephrotic syndrome c. AIDS related nephropathy c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Chronicglomerulonephritis d. Cirrhosis101. Following circulatory shock, which of the following 109. Few RBCs, raisede neutrophils with some occurs: March 2009 hemorrhage in alveoli is seen in: Marc:h 2005 a. Acute tubular necrosis a. Cray hepatization b. Acute papillary necrosis b. Red hepatization c. Both of the above c. Viral pneumonia d. None of the above d. Resolving phase of lobar pneumonia l.
  • 35. Pathology 110. Community acquired pneumonia is most commonly 119. Which pair of organs caused by: Scptenber 2005 and hlarch 2005 is involved in Goodpastureg a. Staphylococcusaureus syndrome: Mnrclt 2070 b. Streptococcuspneumonrae a. Kidney and intestrne c. H.influenza b. Kidney and heart d. Klebsiella c. Kidney and ]ungs 111. Which is of the following is an obstructive lung d. Kidney ancl liver disease: 120. Horner,s syndrome septttnber 2005 is associated with: March a. Bronchiar asthma a^ Bronchiectasis 207A b. Chronic bronchitis b. Apical lung carcinoma c. Bronchoectasis c. Chronic bronchitis d. All of the abovt ,1. Bronchial asthrna 112. Disease causecl by cotton 121. Clubbing is cornmonly seen in is: Si:Ttterrilttr 2()05 all of ihe following a. Bl,sinosis except: b. Bag.rssosis March 2()fi Nttesoihelioma a. Fanner:,s lung ir. Tropical eositropirili.r d. Asthma c. Bronchiectasis r 113. F{eids index is increased ..1. Fibrosing ajveolitjs in: March 2007 . a. Bronchial asthma 722. Left pleural effusion is detected best in which (9 b. Bronchiectasrs position: c March o J ,, . d. Chronic bronchitis Pneumonia a. b. Supine Axial 2005 114. Curschmann,s spiral are seen in: o c. r F a. Bronchial asthma b. Bronchiectasis March 2007 Left lateral decubitus cl. Right lateral decubitus 123. Most common type of lung carcinoma in non c.Chronic bronchits smokers is: o- d.Emphysema March 2t)05 115. Which is not a part of a. Srnall cell carcinoma Kartageners syndrome: b Adenocarcinoma a. March 2007 c. Squamous cell carcinonra Sifus inversus b. d. Large cell carcinorna Chronic sinusitis 124. Plethoric lung c. Bronchiectasis fields are seen in the all of the d.Cardiomegalv following except: September 2009 116. Exudative pleural a. Ebstein anomaly effusion is seen in: a. Left ventricular failure March 2008 b. /SD b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Tota] anon-raious pulmonary venous connection c. Bacterial pneumonia d. ASDt.i d. Hepatic failure 125. All of the following are seen in legionnaire,s disease 117. Apical lung carcinoma commonly manifests except: as: SePtember 2009ffi a. Fever Septentber 2009 a. preural effusion b. lIental confusron b"Pericardialinvolvement c. Diarrhoea# c.l{omer,s syndrome d. Unilateralpneumonitis d"Tumour obstruction of the airway 126. Miliary shadow on chest X_ray is not seen in: 118. Bysinnosis is caused$i by: hlarclt 2010 March 2010fi a. Bagasse a. Pneumoconiosis b. Mold hay b. Sarcoidosis c. Cotton c. Tuberculosis d. Bird droppings d. COPDtrFi
  • 36. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examinationfi7. All of the following produces cavitating lesion in 135. Wilson disease is due to accumulation of: the chest radiograph except: March 20L0 September 2005 a. Caplans syndrome a. Copper b. Hematoma b. lron c. Squamous cell carcinoma lung c. Zinc d. Hamartoma d. Nickel 1"36, Common warts are caused by which virus:MISCELLANEOUS September 2006128. Ovarian fumours commonly arises from: Mnrch 2005 a. Surface epithelium a. Cytomegalovirus b. germ cell b. Hunran papilloma virus c. Stroma of the ovary c. Flepaiitis B virus d. None of the above d. Epstein-Barr virus129. lVhich is the following is not inherited as X-linked 137. All of tire follorving are true for lupus anticoagulant recesslve: N4nrclt 2005 syndrome except: St1ttg111b., 2t;1r, a. G-6-PD deficiencv a. Recurrent abortions b. Duchenne muscular dvstroplry b. Arteriai thrombosis c. C,vstic fibrosis c. flrrombtrcvtosis d. Hemophilia d. Cardiac valve vegetatio?rs130. True about NK cells are all of the following except: ! 138. Kaposi sarcoma is characterized by all of the Nlarch 2005 following except: Marclr 2008 { ..F a. Mediates type IV hypersensitivity a. Usually of the four types b. Kill viruses b. Skin lesion are sparse in African type o r c. They are iarge granular lymphocvtes d. Reieases small rytoplasmic granules of proteins c. Lymphadenopathy is an essential feature in the o called perforin and granzyme d. ciassical tvpe AlDS-associated is commoner in homosexual o131. MHC is important in pathogenesis of: March 2005 a. Idiopathic disease 139. All of the following are true for sarcoidosis except: b. Iatrogenic diseases Septentber 2008 c. Auto-immunediseases a. Kveim test is the most specific test for sarcoidosis d. Tumours b. Caseatingepithelioidgranulomas132. SLE is which type of hypersensitivity reaction: c. Most commonly involves lungs March 2005 d. Unknolvn etiology a. Type I hypersensitivity 140. Amyloid deposits in liver are initially seen in: b.Type II hypersensitivity March 2009 c.Type III hypersensitivity a. Space of disse d.Type IV hypersensitivity b. Hepatic parenchvma133. Organ which undergoes involution: Mttrch 2005 c. Intrahepatic ducts a. Parathyroid gland d. Portai tract rrrlruru brilru c. Pineal gland 141" All of the following are true for Sjogren syndrome d. Thymus except: September 2009134. HIV affects: Mnrch 2005,2008 a. Ma1, be associated with other autoimmune a. CD4 cells dise-ases b. CD8 cells b. Excesssivesalivation c. Natural killer cells c. immunologicallymediateddisease d. Helper cells d. Commonlv associated rvith rheumatoid arthritis
  • 37. Pathology 142. Multiple sinuses from infection o{ great toe is 145. All of the following are true regarding Cryptococcus mainly caused by: Stytentber 2AA7 neoformans except: Seyttenfuer 200g a. Tuberculosis a. Affects immuocompromised patients b. Actinomycetes b. Grown on sabouraud,s agar c. Trichosporum c. Capsular antigen can be cletected in the CSF d. Anticapsular antibody is protective d. Histoplasmosis 146. All of the following helps in the diagnosis of L43. Carcinoma, which has predilection for metastasis to leishmaniasis except: Septentber 200g hands and feet bones: a. Aldehyde test Mnrch 20C7 b. Blood smear a. Prostate c. Immobilisation test b. Bronchus d. Examination of the bone marrow c. Pelvis 147. Malignant transformation to melanoma is common d. Breast in: Marth 2C09 a. Dermal nevus 144. Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the follorvine b. ]unctional nevus c.>i(9r, except: a. Syringomyelia Septenber 2007 d. Congenital nevus Lentigo nevus 148. True regarding ubiquitin is:o,i b. Varicose veins a. Required for apoptosis September 2009JiiofEi: c. d. Leprosy Prolongedrecumbency b. It is found throughout the cell c. Found only in eukaryotesFi: d. All of the above<ro.: :tj :i ;:i i ]: r "ti :i :t
  • 38. ]# : MICROBIOLOGY (euestions)GENERAL MICROBIOLOCY 8. Sharp instrument should be disposed in:1. Best laboratorv test to diagnose HIV infection September 2005 March 2007 a. Blue bag a. ELISA b. Red bag b. Western blot c. Black beg c. Complement fixation test d. Yellow bag d. RIA 9. True about autoclaving is: March 20072. Best medium to grow anaerobic bacteria exclusively a. 115 degree C at for 20 min 1S: b. l2l degree C at for 15 min March 2008 a. Blood agar c. 118 degree C at for 15 min d. 124 degree C at for 15 min b. Robertsons cooked meat medium c. Thioglycollatemedium 10. Operation theatres are sterilized by: Mnrch 20CZ a. Ethylene oxiCe gas d. Sabouraud Dextrose agar b. Formaldehydefumigation3. Which of the following is an enrichment media: c. Washing r,vith soap water Septenfuer 2009 d. Carbolic acid sprpying a. Alkaline peptone water 11. Best way to sterilize all-glass syringes is: b. Moruours taurocholate Tellurite peptone water September 2007 c. Selenite F broth a. Boiling d. All of the above b" Autoclave4. Blood agar is an example of: March 2010 c. Hot air oven a. Enrichment media d. Formaldehyde b. Enriched media 12. Cold sterilization is done by: September 2007 c. Selective media a. Steam b. Inionizing radiation d. Transport media c" Infra red5" True about bacteriuria is: March 2007 d. uv a. Usually gram positive bacteria in urine 13. Incineration is done for which of the following: b. Bacterial culture is non specific September 2008 c. More than 1 lac colony forming units/ml of mid a. Liquid waste stream urine b. Anatomy waste d. Multiple bacterial species are taken into account c. Sharp r.rasteSTERILIZATION d. All of the above 14. Biological indicator for determining efficacy of6. Effective mode of sterilization is: September 2005 autoclaving is: Septenfuer 2009 a. Hot water a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Stearn under pressure b. Clostridium Perfringenes c. Steam at abmospheric pressure c. Bacillus stearothermophilus d. Dryheat d. Salmonella typhi7. Pasteurization of milk is determined by: 15. Autoclaving is done at what temperature for 15 September 20A5,2007 & 2009 minutes: March 20L0 a. Methylene blue reduction test a. 118 degree C b. Phosphatase test b. l21degreeC c. Turbidity test c" 126 degree C d" Resazurin test d. 134 degree C
  • 39. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination15. Endoscopes are best sterilized by: September 2aA7 24. True about Chediak Higashi syndrome is: March 2007 a. Boiling September 2009 b" Autoclave a. Neutrophilia c. Lysol solution 20"uo b. Impaired bacteriolysis d. Cidex solution c. Autosomal dominant17. Moist heat kills all of the following except: d. Associated with polyrythemia September 2009 25. Which Immunoglobulin is involved in anaphylaxis: a. Coxiella bumetti March 2007 b. Brucella a. IgA c. Salmonella b. IgE d. Mycobacteriurn C, IgG d. IglvlIMMUNIT} 26. All are type II hypersensitivily reaction except: Complement Fixation test is:18. September 2045 Septenber 2A07 a. WIDAL a. Steven johnsons s)ndrorne :il b. Coombs test b. Drug induced hemolytic anemia e ;{ c. Wassermann reaction c. Drug induced thrombocytopenia $ d. VDRL d. Hemolytic disease of newbom19. Wheal and flare reaction is: September 2005 27. Intravascular hernolysis is mediated by: a. Type I hypersensitivity September 2007 b. Type II hypersensitivity a. IgA c. Type III hypersensitivity b. IgD d. Type IV hypersensitivity c. IgE = - c)20. Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk: d. IgC v September 2005 28. Which one of the following is a major component in o a. IgA activation of the complement via altemative pathway: w b. c. IgE IgD a. C1 September 2007 o - l- d. IgM b. c2 o21. True about IgM is: September 2005 c. C3 d. c4 o a. Mediates Prausnitz-kusbrer reaction b. Primary response 29. True regarding agglutination reaction are all except: c. Transported across placenta September 2007 d. Secondary response a. It is less sensitive than precipitation reaction for22. Cells associated with humoral immunitv is: detecting antibodies. September 2005 b. Works on the same principle as that of precipitation a. NK cells reaction b. B cells c. It is the method used for cross matching and blood c. T cells grouping d. Null cells d. Agglutination occurs optimally when antigens and antibody react in equivalent proportions.23. Which of the following is type III hypersensitivity 30. Defect seen in Di George syndrome: September 2009 reaction: September 2006 a. Humoral immunity a. Prausnitz-kustner reaction b. Cell mediated immunity b. Contact dermatitis c. Thyrnic hyperplasia c. Arthus reaction d. Autoimmune hemolvtic anaemia d. Rh incompatibility
  • 40. Microbiology 31. Erythroblastosis foetalis is which type of BACTERIOLOCY hypersensitivity: Scptember 2007, 2009 38. Which of the following is Gram positive: March 2005 a. Type I a. Veillonella b. Type II b. Bacteroides c. Type III c. Fusobacterium d. Type IV d. Actinomyces 39. Urease test is done for: March 2005 32. Half life of IgG: Mnrch 201.0 a. H.pylori a. 5 days b. Proteus b. 6 days c. Corynebacterium c. 8 davs d. Salmonella d. 23 days 40. Staphylococcus aureus is a normal inhabitant of: 33. IgM have how many four-peptide subunits: March 2005 March 2010 a. Throat ; a.3 b. Nose .ti b. 4 c. Skin t .s d. GIT A ta o. u 41. Venkataraman-Ramakrishnan media is used for: March 2005 $ S+. Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is which type a. Sterptococcus pneumoniae> f of hypersensitivity reaction: March 20A7 b. Staphylococcus aureusI t a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction c. Vibrio choleraef :l !;1^ t:: b. Tvpe Il hypersensitivity reaction d. Clostridium tetaniF ,i c. Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction 42. Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by:(IlF d. Typ" IV hypersensitivity reaction t a. Sterptococcus pneumoniae March 2005= H 35.Hyperacute rejection occurs most commonly in whichv b. Staphylococcus aureus^ $ organ: r_i March 2007C c.9i 3 ::1"" D. I(rdney Vibrio cholerae d. Clostridium tetani 43. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:= ! c. Lung September 2005,2010 $ d. Heart a. Pneumocystiscarinii 36. Which of the following is true about anaphylaxis: b. Clostridiumdifficile $ * September 2007 c. Escherichia coli s $ a. It is mediated by allergen specific IgE d. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. lype-I hypersensitivity reaction 44. Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever is: September 2005 c. Cytokines like Il-4, ILs and IL6 along with a. VDRL histamine is released. b. Widal test d. All of the above c. Urine culture 37. Components of innate immunity that are active d. Crams staining against viral cells include: March 2009 45. Enteric fever is caused by: September 2005 a. Cytotoxic T cells a. Salmonella typhi b. B cell b. Salmonella paratyphi A c. NK cells c. Salmonella paratyphi B d" AII of the above d. All of the above
  • 41. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCi screenincr Examination 4f, Causative agent of sore throat is: September 2005 54. Chinese lefter arangement is seen in: March 2009 3. Staphylococcusaureus a. M.tuberculosis !. Sffeptococcus pyogenes b. Co4mebnacterium diphtheria g. H. Intluenzae c. Chlarnydia trachomatis d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. M. leprae 47. Culture medium for cultivation of mycobacterium is: 55. Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell September 2005 wall of: March 2009 a. Ludlams medium a. Virus b. Loefflers serum b. Gram positive bacteria s. Thayer-Martinmedium c. Gram negative bacteria d. LJ medium d. All of the above 56. Which of the following is seen in dark field 48. Type of light used in dark ground microscopy: nucroscoPy: Septentuer nOS t1j:"! Scptenrber 2005 a. Vibrio a Dark light b. Spirochaetes b. Reflected light c. Chlamydia c. Polarized light d. All of the above $ d. Transmitted light 57. Travellels diarrhea is caused due to: ,{49. Confirmatory test for tuberculosis is: September 2006 a. EIEC t;tl a. Grams staining b. EPEC b. AFB c. ETEC c. Guinea-piginoculation d. EHEC d. Tuberculin testing 58 Most common cause of gas gangrene is: September 200950. Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheria a. Clostridium histolyticum o = rs: March 2007 b. Clostridiumbifermentans v a. L| media b. Potassium tellurite media c. Clostridium fallax d. Clostridium perfringens o @ c. Loefflers serum slope d. McConkey 59. M. avium intracellulare is: a. Non photochromogens Septentber 2009 o r51. True about Borrelia recurrentis are all except: b. c. Scotochromogens o a. Causes epidemic relapsing fever March 2007 d. Photocfuomogens Rapid grolvers o b. It is transmitted by ixodes tick 60. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: Itlarch 20L0 c. No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis a. Mycobacterium chelone b. Mycobacterium kansasii exists c. Mycobacterium marinum d. It infeets the person via mucous membranes d. Mycobacterium ulcerans52. All are gram negative anaerobic exceph September 2ff7 61. Ghons focus reflecl September 2005 a. Streptococci a. Mitiary t rbe.c,rtotsis b. Bacteroides b" Primary complex c. Actinomyces c. Tuberculouslymphadenitis d. Clostridium welchii d. Post primary tuberculosis53. Mechanism of action of cholera toxin: 62" Organism responsible for catheter predisposed UTI is: September 2007, 2009 September 2005 a. Increase in c-AMP a. Pseudomonas b. Decrease in c-AMp b. E. coli c. Activates Na+ K+ ATpase c. Proteus d" Inhibit Na+K+ ATpase d. All of the above
  • 42. Microbiology 63. Pneumatocoele is most commonly caused by: 70. Swarming growth is shown by which gram positive September 2005,2010 bacilli: september a. Streptococcus pneumoniae a. Clostridium tetani b. Klebsiella b. Clostridium welchii c. Hemophilusinfluenzae c. Proteus d. Staphylococcus aureus d. All of the above 64. Mycobacterium leprae can be 71. Which olganism can penetrate intact comea: cultured in: September 20a6 September a. Testes of guinea pig a" Pneumococcus b. L] medium b. Gonococci c. Pseudomonas c. Footpad of mice d. Staphylococci d. Testes of albino rats 72. Diphtheria toxin,s mechanism of action is: 65. Bacteria most commonly involved in prosthetic september vallular heart disease within 2 months of surgery is: a. Inhibiting glucose synthesis b. Inhibiting protein synthesis March 2007 a. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Promotingacetylcholinerelease b. d. Altering cyclic GMp levels Enterococci 73. After initiation oI DOTS therapy for category_I, c. Streptococcusviridans sputum examination is done at ffust d. Hemophilus March2t a. 1 month of treatment b. 2 months of treatmento 66. Complications of cholera ale all of the following c. 4 months of treatmentoJ exceph a. Metabolic alkalosis September 2N7 d. 6 months of treatmento b. Metabolic acidosis 74. Which has an incubation period of less than a weelco c. Acute renal failure a. Cholera Marcho d. Hypovolemicshock b. Measlestr 67. Which of the following is commonlyresponsible for c. FilariaC) toxic shock s;mdrome in female patienb September d. Kala-azar 2Mg a. Streptococcus-group B VIROLOCY= b. Pseudomonas 75. EBV(ebstein barr virus) causes all except: c. H.influenzae sePtembu d. Staphylococcus aureus a. Glandular fever 68. Which of the following is true for staphylococcus b. Burkitfs lymphoma aur€us food poisoning: c. Pancreaticcarcinoma September 2Cf.8 a. Incubation period of over 20 hours d. Nasophar;mgeal carcinoma 76. Most serious complication of measles b. Immediate antibiotic therapy is required is: c. Heat labile enterotoxin is responsible a. Croup SePtember d. Common with dairy products b. Meningo-encephalitis 69. Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis is: c. Otitis media d. Pneumonia September 2009 Staphylococcus aureus Z. Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: Mnrch Streptococcus viridans a. Man Streptococcus intermedius b. Monkey Candida albicans c. Both d. None
  • 43. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examinationft. Nl of the following belong to arboviruses group 86. Which is a yeast like fungi: Septembu 2007 except: September 2009 a. Cryptococcus 3. Bunyavirus b. Candida !. ParamYxovirus c. Blastomyces c. Reovirus d. Histoplasma d. Alphavints79. Nl of the following is true regarding HIV virus except: 87. All of the following causes subcutaneous fungal March 2010 infections except: SEtember 2007 a. Belongs to the subgroup lentivirus a. Blastomycosis b. Double stranded DNA virus b. Sporotrichosis c. Characterised by the presence of reverse c. Maduramgcosis transcriptase enzyme d. Rhinosporodiosis d. Acts on Cf)4 cells E8. N{ost common fungus causing chronic meningitis is:80. SSPE (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) is Nlarclt 2009 associated with: Mnrch 2010 a. Blastomyces a. Tetanus b. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Meningitis c. Histoplasma c. Choiera d. Coccidioidomycosis d. Measles 89. Which of the following is not a fungal infection:81, Dengue hemorhagic fever is caused by: March 2aL0 a. Alphavirus a. Blastomycosis b. Flavivirus b. Cryptococcus c. Bunyavirus c. Actinomycosis d. Orbivirus d. Histoplasmosis Virus that spreads by both hematogenous and neural82" 90. Sclerotic bodies are seen in: September 2009 route is: September 2007 a. Sporotrichosis a. Rabies virus b. Histoplasmosis b. Polio virus c. Chromoblastomycosis c. EB virus d. Rhinosporodiosis d. Enterovirus 91. Amongst the following which is the rarest83. Gene that encodes the toxin for cholera is transmitted opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS patient: byt Septembu 2007 a. Protozoa September 2008 b. Bacteria a. Cryptococcosis c. Bacteriophage b. Candidiasis d. Fungus c. HistoplasmosisMYCOLOCY d. Aspergillosis84. All are dimorphic fungi except: March 2005 MISCELLANEOUS a. Blastomycoses 92. True about prions are all except: September 2009 b. Cryptococcus a. Associated with Cruetzfeldt-|acob disease c. Histoplasma b. Heat labile d. Paracoccidia c. Sensitive to proteases85. True about Cryptococcus neofor:rrans are all except: d. Infectious proteinaceous particles September 20aS 93. Southern blot test is for detection of: September 2005 a. Possess a prominent polysaccharide capsule a. Antibodies against viral proteins b. Abundant in pigeon droppings c. Dimorphic fungr b. DNA d Causes meningitis in the immunocompromised c. RNA d. Carbohydrate epitopes
  • 44. Microbiology 94. AII of the following are arthropod borne d.iseases c. Rolling excePl September 2007 d. Transmigration of cells a. Malaria b. Filariasis 96. Which of the following infection, if occurs in the first c. Dengue trimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenital d. Dracunculosis malformations: March 95. Integrins are associated with all of the following a. Rubella except: b. Toxoplasmosis Septembu 2009 a. Adhesion c. CMV b. Arrest d. All of the aboveooJIooEI=
  • 45. .i1r-1,: i g,-f,l.f,ASSESSIWEN" * GEIMCI SCKEf;NTNG. PARASITOLOGY (Questions)L. Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which 8. True about plasmodium falciparum is: part of sandfly: March 2005 Septentber a. Lvmphnode a. Preferentially infects old erythrocytes only b. GIT b. Schuffners dots is characteristic c. Spleen c. Crescentic macrogametocyte d. Bone marrow d. Large schizonts2. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: 9. Kala azar is transmitted by: Marclt NIarch 20A5,2r-tOg A Scptember 2007 a. Sand fly a. Cryptosporidiurn b. Tsetse f11 b. Babesia c. Flea cl. Hard tick c. Irr-reurnocYstis cl. Joaoplasma 10. Cyclops is a part of life cycle of: Stprerrroer a. Toxoplasmosis3. Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by: b. Echinococcus lv4arch 2005 c. Leishmaniasis+ a. Pigs d. Dracunculosis b. Rats 11. Nor.y-McNeal-Nicolle INNNI medium is used for: c. Sand fh September d. Ticks a. Giardia lamblia4. Q-fever is caused by: A4arch 2005 b. Leishmania dor-rovani a. Rochaemeiia quintana c. Echinococus b. Mvcoplasma bovis d. Toxoplasma gondii c. Coxiella bumetti 12" Most common parasitic infection in AIDS: d. lvlycoplasma hominis Septenther Megaloblastic anemia caused by: Mnrch 2005 a. Ancylostorna duodenale a. Taenia saginata b. Echinococcus granulosus b. Diphyllobotrum latum c. Strongyloides stercoralis c. Taenia solium d. Enterobius vermicularis 13. Non bile stained eggs is found in: d. Echinococcus granulosus a. Ancvlostomaduodenale5. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called: b. Trichuris trichura March 2005 c. Ascaris lumbricoides a. [.ung fluke d" All of the above b. Tapeworms 14. LD bodies are associated with: Septembe.r 2009 c. Intestinal flukes a. Larva migrans d. Liver flukes b. Kala azar7. Iron Deficiency anemia is eommonly caused by: c. Malaria SeTttentber 2005, Mnrch 2009 d" Loa loa Enterobius vermicularis 15. Black malarial pigment is seen in: Scptenrber 20N b. Taenia solium a. P.vivax c. Ancvlostoma duodenale b. P.falciparurn d. All of the above c" P.malariae o. l.ovlae
  • 46. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination15. [,licrofilaria is not seen in: September 2009 c. Chopras antimony test 6. LYmPnancs d.Imrnunofluorescent antibody test 6. Hydrocoele fluid 19. Interrnediate host for hydatid disease is: March 2010 g. ChYlcus urine a. Cort d. Blood b" ManlZ. Two nuclei at the tail tip is seen in: September 2009 c. Dog 3. Brugian malaYi d. Pig b. Wucheria bancrofti 20. Investigation for definitive identification of g. Onchocerca volvuius cryptosporodium: March 2010 d. Mansonella ozzardt a. ELISA1S. Highly specific and sensitive test for diagnosing kala- b. lmmunofluorescence test azari March 2070 c. Demonstration of oocyte in feces a. Complfll€nt fixation test rvith VKK antigcn d. Fluoroscent staining rvith auramine b. Napiers aldehyde test T n CN { o r o o
  • 47. - a i s H$sFf i:;n=,,, EJv? FFIIas sc*Er*r*ol 4 -.. ^ E/IvrcI ;,lC,r-fi" PHARN,IACO LO Gy (euestions) CENERAL PRINCIPLES 1. Which of the following 8. Steady state concentration of a drug is achieved in: is a pro_drug: Septentber 2005 a. Clonidine Septetnber )Qg7 b. Enalapril a. 2-3 half lives c. Streptomycin b. 3-4 half lives d. Morphine c. 4-5 half lives 2. Pharmocodynamics deals d. 5-6 half lives with: September 2005 9. Orphan drugs are: a. I4ode of excretion of a drug March b. Mechanism of action of a drng a. Commercially eas1, to obtain. 2010 c. Transport of drug across the b--iological b. Drugs to treat rare diseases u-"ually d. Latency of onset membranes c. Developed with an intention ol,monetary gain 3. Therapeutic index of a drug d. AII of ihe above signifies: Septonber 2005 10. Therapeutic a. Dose nhich produces maximum drug monitoring is required for effect all of the b. Safety margin following drugs except: Mnrch c. Efficacy a. Sulfonamides 2010 d. Maximum response that can be b. Metformin :. n First pass metabolism is maximum elicited by a drug c. Cycloserine :. with which route: d. Gentamycin September 2005 11. Depot progestins is a. Oral administered by which route b. Subcutaneous March 2A1a a. Subcutaneous route c. Rectal b. Intravenous route d. Sublingual c. Intramuscular route 5. Administration of which of the following drug d. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular requires monitoring: route March 2007 12. AII of the following drug act a. Lithium receptors except: on the dopaminergic b. Haloperidol c. Diazepam a. Domperidone d. Acetazolamide b. Dobutamine 6. Area under time and plasma concentration curve c. Fenoldopam signifies : September 2005 d. Metclopramide a. Potency 13. Which of the following is not b. Extent of absorption ofdrug rnetabolized by c. acetYlation: septenfuer 2oo| Efficacyi .5: a. Hydralazineig d. Plasma clearance of a dmgrffi b. Phenytoin 7. First order kinetics is: c. Isoniazid Se2ttentber 2005 a. Absorptior-r of the drug is independent d. Procainamide ffi of the serum concentration. b. Elimination of the drug is independent DRUCS ACTING ON CVS of the serum 14. Beta-blockers are used concentration. in all of the following except:ffi c. Elimination of the drug is proportionalrF to the serum NIarch 2005H concentration. a. Essential tremorsffi, d. Absorption of the drug is proportional b. AV blockffi to the serumF3 concentration. c. Angina pectoris* d. Migraine prophylaxrsilti*3","4r:i
  • 48. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination Chronotrophic means: March 20L015. In a patient with concomitant diabetes, anti- 22. a. Drugs affecting the contractility of heart hypertensive agent of choice is: September 2005 a. Calcium channel blocker b. Drugs affecting heart rate c. Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow b. Beta adrenergic blocker d. Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation. c. ACE inhibitor 23. Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a d. Plasrr.a kinins September 2006 predominant peripheral action:16. Which of the following is the shortest acting beta- blocker: September 2006 a. Verapamii a. Acebutolol b. Diltiazem b. Sotalol c. Nifidepine c. BisoProlol d. Depranil d. Esmolol 24. Recommended step in salicvlate toxicity is:17. Calcium channel blocker causing cerebral SePtentbl 2006 vasodilatation is: Scptember 2006 a. Chleating agents a. Nimodipine b. Atropine b. Felodipine c. Alkaline diuresis T .T c. Amlodipine d.Observation d. Nitrendipine 25. Drug of choice for acute lefiventricular failure: 18. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in: March 2007 SePtenrber 2006 7 a. Hypertension a. Rapiddigitalization = b. Myocardialinfarction b. I/V AminophYlline o c. Renal artery stenosis d. Left ventricular dysfunction c. I/V Morphine d. I/V Furosemide o r 19. Viagra like medicine is given in which condition: 26. Both arteriolar and venodilator drug is: o March 2007 SePtenfuer 2007 o a. Pulmonaryhypertension a. Hydralazine b. Essenfial hypertension b. Sodium nitroprusside c. Malignanthypertension c. Minoxidil d. Hypertension in pregnancy d. CaptoPril 27. Allof the following drug can be used in hypertensive 20. Which of the following is not a positive ionotropic crisis except- September 2007 agent: September 2007 a. Labetalol a. Dobutamine b. Pindolol b. Dopamine c. Nitroprusside c. Diltiazem d. Nifedipine d. Amrinone 28. Drug used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism is: 21. Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular SePtenfuer 2008 tachycardia is: March 20L0, September 20078 2010 a. Adrenaline a. Digoxin b" Propranolol b. Propranolol c. Noradrenaline c" Adenosine d. Dopamine d. Diltiazem
  • 49. Pharmacology 29. A patient with hypertension is also having aortic dissection. Anti-hypertensive 35. Drug of choice fot rt"t"*ingasthmaticpatientwith agent of choice is hypertension, SeptenLber 20Ag a. Timolol March a. Sodium nitroprusside b. Reserpine b. Propranoiol c. Pindolol c. Metoprolol d. Nifedipine d. Amlodipine 36. Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is: 30. Dopamine, in renal doses, in shock leads to: September lv4arch 2009 a. Short acting beta 2 agorusts a. Reduction in peripheral resistance b. Long actrng beta 2 agonists n. Lonstriction of renal vasculafut.e c. Oral theophylline c. Dilatation of renal vasculafure cl. Inhaied ipratropium d. Increase in cardiac oufput bromide 37. All of the following 3L. Supraventicular are true regarding sodium tachycardia can be managed cromoglycate except: best by: a. Given in acute bronchiar asthma Mo.rch 20i.a sePtembcr 2oo9 a Digitalis b. Inhibits degranulation of mast cells b o. Adenosine O c. It is not a bronchodiiatorJ (. ursop,Vrantide d. It is not absorbed orallyO i d. euinidine 38. Which of the following is tne most potent(;) : 92. Which of the following drug glucocorticoid: is commonly responsible March 2o1aS , for orthostatic- hypotension --r rvlLrrrru" a. Hydrocortisone March 2010E i a. Clonidine b. Prednisoloney! b. H,rdralazine c. Betamethasone c. Captoprils d.+i Triamcinolone d. prazosin 39. Leukotriene antagoniststi 33. Which a. Nicordanil is: Nfarch 2009 .+. of the following short-acting g blocker drug is used in selective beta- b Zileuton the managelrrent of arrythmia: c. Sodium chromoglycate March 2o1o cl. Montelukast $ I ". Carvedilol u ANTIDIABETIC DRUCS Esmolol c. Celiprolol 40 In the management of diabetes mellitus, Iactic d. Bisoprolol is commonly caused by acidosis which .f t}," i"ii"*i.g, DRUCS ACTINC ON March RESPTMTORY SYSTEM a. Tolbutamide 2005 34. Mechanism of action of corticosteroids in asthma is: b. Glipizide March 20a9 c" Pioglitazone Decreases mucosal edema d. Metformin inflammatory response bv suppressing 41. Which of the following is rapidly acting insulin: b. Mast cell stabilization c. Causes bronchodilatafion September 2007 a" Lente d. Leukotriene antagonist b. Insulin glargine c. Ultralente d" Insulin lispro
  • 50. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examindtion regarding mechanism of action of 49. Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular42.Truestatement sulfonylureas is: March 2008, Septembet 2010 blocking agenL SePtember 2007 a. Lrcreased peripheral utilization of glucose a. Pancuronium b. Reduce trePatic glucose outPut b. Doxacurium c. Act on SURI receptors on pancreatic beta cell c. Mivacurium membrane d. Vecuronium d. TranscriPtion of genes regulating glucose 50. Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is: metabolism SePtembet 20074i!.Which of the following drug does not cause a. Ethosuximide September 2008 hypoglYcemia: b. Carbamazepine a. Tolbutamide c. Phenytoin b. Glibenclamide d. Valproate c. Metformin 51. Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by: d. ChlorproPamide March 200944. An oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat obesity is: SePtember 2008 a. Antidepressants b. Anxiolytics a. Tolbutamide c. Antipsychotics irT b. Glipizide d. Antiepileptics $ fi- c. Gliclazide :1> 52. True regarding buProPion is: September 20A9 HN d. Metformin Type I diabetes mellitus is initially rnanaged by: *=45. March 2010 a. Dopamine reuPtake stimulator *> b. It is an antianxietY drug iio a. Metformin b. Sulfonylureas c. No precipitation of seizures fo ,$r c. Meglitinide d. Nicotinic recePtor antagonist i5o d. None of them 53. Antidote for Restyl/Alprazolam is: March 2410 *o45. All of the following are true regarding adverse effects a. Protamine sulPhate f,< of chlorpropamide except: March 2010 b. Flumazenil a: a. Sensitizes the kidney to ADH action c. EDTA i b" Less incidence of hypoglycemia d. BAL e c" More incidence of weight gain 54. Phenobarbitone and warfarin interaction results in: g d. Disulfiram like reaction may occur March 2005 :!. DRUCS ACTINC ON NERVOUS SYSTEM a. Increased absorption of warfarin 47. False statement regarding phenytoin is: March 2007 b. Increased metabolism of warfarin a. Is highly protein bound c. Displacement of warfarin from the binding site b. Half life decreases with decreasing dose d. Ali of the above c" Microsomal enzyme inducer 55. An anxiolytic benzodiazepine which is also d. Follows zero order kinetics at lower doses antidepressant : September 2007 48. True about Imipramine is: September 2007 a. Lorazepam a. Antiepileptic b. Oxazepam b. Antidepressant c. Alprazolam c. Anxiolytic d. Chlordiazepoxide d. Antipsychotic
  • 51. 56. Which of the following drug is contraindicated patient of myasthenia itna 63. Treatment for gravis: Zollinger-ellison sJmdrome September 200g is: a. Succinylcholine a. Cimetidine September b. Tubocurare b. Omeprazole c. Pyridostigmine c. Misoprostol d. Halothane d" aluminium hydroxide 57. Antidepressant drug that can cause neuroleptic 64" True about concen tration malignant syndrome and of Oral Rehydration tardive ayrtilJri" i* Solution is: a. sodium 7o mEq/iit March a. Amineptin March 2_a09 b. Carbamazepine b. potassium 20 mEq/iit c. Amoxapine c. Bicarbonate g0 mEq/lit d. Trazodone tl. Chtoride 30 nrEqitii 58. Which of the follow,ing drug is not given 65. Which of the follolr rnania: in acute September 2009 rripr e,rrug rh",.";;rlTffi:il: ffiponenr or a. Lithiumo b. Lamotrigine a. Lansoprazole MorchoJ c. d. Valproate Oianzapine b. Clarithromycin c. Meh.onidazoleo(J 59. Drug of choice f,or a" Methysergide acute migraine is: March 2010 d. Cimetidine 0e.fllti-Heticobacter pylori(. b. Sumatriptan drugs are all of the following: c. Ergotamine a. Crarithromycin March 2o1o d. Propranolol=8,,: b. Amoxicillin<:riL,. DRUCS ACTING ON CASTROINTESTINAL TRACT 60. Which of the following is not an antacid drug: c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline 67. Drug of choice March 2oo; for NSAID induced gastric a. Aruminium hydroxide ulcer is: , b. Magnesium sulphate a. Miprinone Septentber 2008 : c. Sodium bicarbonate b. Misoprostol d. Calcium carbonate c. Carboprost 61. Drug that does not interferes d. Mirtazapine with antacid: DRUCS ACTINC ON a. Tetracycii n ,rrch 2oo| HAEMATOPOIETIC SYSTEM 68. Warfarin acts by b. Norfloxacin inhibiting all of the following except: factors c. Azifhromycin a. Factor III March zoo, d. Ranifidine b. Factor VII 62. Which of the following is a prokinetic c. Factor IX drug with no dopamine antagonism: d. Factor X a Chlorpromolitr" """ March 20a5 69. Warfarin effect may be enhanced by: b. Metaciopramide a. phenobarbitone March 2005 c. Domperidone b. Ketoconazole d. lV{osapride c. Rifampicin d. Chronic alcoholism
  • 52. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening ExaminationfO. Which of the following drug inhibits aggregation of 77.Tnte about heparin are all of the following except: platelets: September 2005 September 2009 4. Ttanexaemic acid a. Powerful anticoagulant only in vivo b. EACA b. Protamine sulfate is the antidote s. Aprotinin c. Not given by intramuscular route d. Aspirin d. Acts by inhibiting factor IIa and Xa21. Anticoagulants are indicated in all of the following conditions excePt: September 2005 78. Which of the following is advocated in dicournarol a. Pulmonary embolism poisoning: March 2005 b. DVT a. Warfarin c. Pericarditis b. Heparin d. Myocardial in-farction c, LMWH72. Aspirin in very low doses inhibits the formation of d. Vitamin K Septenfuer 2006 DRUCS ACTINC ON EXCRETORY SYSTEM a. Cyclooxygenase L 79. Which of the following is a potassium sparing drug: b. Thromboxane .A2 c. Prostaglandin 12 * tePtenrber 2oo5 T a. Indapamide - d. None of the above73. Dose of Warfarin is managed by: March 2407 b. Frusemide c. Spironolactone v a. INR d. Mannitol = b. ESR c. MAC 80. All of the following are true regarding diuretics o d. PAH except: March 2008 o r a. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing drug74. Which of the following drug causes does not causes b. Manrritol is an osmotic diuretic o thrombocytopenia: a. Methotrexate March 2009 c. Thiazides act by inhibiting Sodium-potassium- o chloride cotransport b. Aspirin d. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme c. Ticlopidine 81. Which of the following diuretic causes maximum loss d. Heparin of potassium in urine: March 20L075. Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen a. Acetazolamide March 2009 b. Spironolactone a. Aspirin b. Tranexaemic acid c. Ethacrynic acid d. Furosemide c. Alteplase d. Streptokinase ANTIMICROEIAL DRUGS76. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits whieh 82. Pancreatitis may be seen with all of the following factor: Sept ember 2009 antiretroviral agent except: March 2005 a. Factor IIla a. Lamivudine b. Factor VIIIa b. Stavudine c. Factor Xa c. Zidovudine d. Factor XIIa d" Didanosine
  • 53. Pharmacology il 83. Drug of choice for lymphogranuloma venerum: 91. Drug which inhibit protein synthesis are all March 2C0S of the a. Teiracycline following except: b. Chloramphenicoj March a. Tetracycline c. Erythromycin b. Chloramphenicol d. Ampicillin 84. All of the following c. Erythromycin are Beta_lactamase inhibitors except: d. Penicillin March 2005 a" Clavulanic acid 92. Drug of choice for chylamydial trachomatis is: b. Aztreonam c. Sulbactam a. Penicilin Marcl d. Tazobactarn b. Erytirromycin 85. Which antitubercular drug combination patient who develops hepititis is safer in a c. Vancomycin wnite on aff: d. Azithromycin March 2005 a. Stre;rtomycin+Isoniazicl 93. Which of the following drug belongs to antifolate b. Streptomycin+Eth6m6u1r1!r c. Ethambutol+I56niuri6 grouPr Septentber 2af,?oi d. Ethambutol+Rilu-ot.t a. ErythromycinoiJi: 86. Antitubercular drug causing gout a. >treptomycin is: NIarch 2005 b. Doxycycline :: c. Pyrimethamineoiof b. Ethambutoi c. Rifampicin d. Gentamicin 94. All pencillins act by:<; d. Pyrazinamide a. Inhibiting protein synthesis SeTttember 2007(r=$ 87. What is the most serious side effect of streptomycin: September 2A0S b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis c. Antifolate<ii a. HepatotoxicityEf b. Ototoxicitl, d. Inhibitis DNA p;yrase iO- 1l c. Ocular to*i.ity 95. Drug used for prophylaxis of meningococcal d. Hematoiogicil disturbances meningitis: c^. september 2aat : 88. Gentamycin is not given a. Chroramphenicol 5 orally because: september 2005 b. Erythromycin a.Adverse effects on gastric mucosa . b.Interfercs with absorption of other c. Tetraryclin - drug,s d. c.. Rapidly destroyed by gastric acid o- Rifampicin ct. l,oor absorption 95. Drug used orally for treating scabies: March 2009 89. Drug of choice for plasmodium vivax is: a. levamisole Septentber 2006 b. Ivermectin a. Mefloquine c. Lindane b. Chloroquine d" Chloroquine c. Artesunate d. Quinine 97. Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria: 90" Drug which is never given by oral route: March 2007 March 2009 a. Erythromycin a. Gentamycin b. Ciprofloxacin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Streptomycin c. Tetracycline d. Albendazole d. Vancomycin
  • 54. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screenino Examinationqg. Which of the following is not an antiretroviral drug: 105. Which drug is effective against both pseudomonas March 2009 and proteus: September 2005 a. Lamivudine a. Cloxacillin b. Zidovudine b. Amoxycillin c. Ganciclovir c. Carbenicillin d. NeviraPine d. Ampicillin penicillin for L06. Drug that can be used against anaerobic99. Dose and duration of benzathine prophylaxis of rheumatic fever is: September 2009 streptococci: March 2007 a. 1.2 MU every 2 weeks a" Penicilin b. 1.2 MU every 4 weeks b Erythromycin c. 2.4MU every 2 weeks c. Vancomycin d. 2.4 MU every 4 weeks d. Clindamycin100. Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations of 107. Chromaphenicol is metabolized by: September 2007 tobramycin is : Septernber 2009 a. Oxidation b. Acetylation a. mg/ml 3 c. Glucoronideconjugation b. 8 mg/ml d.All of the above c. 10 mg/ml 108. Drug which is both phototoxic and photoallergic: T d. 13 mg/ml S eptenfuer 2007 rF +101. Drug used for chloroquine-resistant vivax malaria a. Amiodarone ". are all of the following except: a. Quinine September 2009 b. Procainamide n c. Sulfonamide b. Doxycycline d. Chloroquine = c. Primaquine 109. Beta-lactam ring is present in all of the following o d. Fluoroquinolones except: March 2008 o t-102. Drug of choice for herpes zoster is: March 2010 a. a. Aryclovir b. Sulbactam o b. Idoxuridine c. Imipenem Vancomycin o c. Ganciclovir d.Cephalexin d" Valaciclovir 1L0. A patient on antitubercular treatment lunder DOTS]103. Which antitubercular agent is associated with side shows sputum positivity at the end of intensive effects as respiratory syndrome,cutaneous phase under category I. Next step would be : ,:ii: .11, syndrome, Flu syndrome and abdominal syndrome: March 2009 March 201,0 a. Continue treatment of IP for one more month !:: a. Isoniazid b. Switch to category II treatment :a b. Rifampicin c. Restart category I treatment c. Pyrazinamide d. Start continuation phase under category I d. Ethambutol104. All of the following are true regarding penicillin 111. All of the following are true regarding vancomycin except: March 2005 except: September 2009 a. Probenecid decreases it duration of action a. Excreted unchanged mainly by glomerular b. All penicillin are active against gram positive filtration orgamsms b. Poorly distributed in the body fluids c. Splits into 6-amino penicillanic acid by amidase c. May cause red man syndrome d. Acts by inhibiting cell wall slmthesis d. Not absorbed oraliy
  • 55. Pharmacology 112. True statements regarding vancomycin uses of the following except: are all 119. Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during September 2009 Surgical prophylaxis in Pregnancy: : b. D*g of choice for MRSA pr"rrutu.,t u."u, a. prophyrtiouracil september pseudomembranous enterocolitis b. Carbimazole c. Effective in penicillin_resistant pneumococcal c. Iodide infection d. Radioactive iodine d. Methicillin_resistant Staphylococcus aureus 120. Antimalarial drug safe in pregnancy is: infection September 2006, March f13. Drug of choice for cerebral malaria is: a. Quinine a. March 2010 Chloroquine b. primaquine b. Quinine c. Artesunate c. primaquine d. Chloroquine d. Sulfadoxine 121. A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer. D ANTICANCER AND ANTI.INFTAMMATORY that is contraindicated is: rrlq rD| DRUGS>i 114. Hemorrhagic cystitis a. is caused by: September 2005 a. Omeprazole b. Marcho$ b. Methotrexate c. Ranitidineo$ c. Cyclophosphamide Melphalan d. MisoprostdiJ3l Famotidineo$ 115. d. Busulfan 122. Ergot derivatives are used in all of the followingOF Which of the following anticancer drug causes except :<$ peripheral neuropathy: September 2A09 a. Uterine contraction March a. Methotreaxate b. VasoconstrictivedisordersE=$ b. Vincristine c. Migraine c.ro. d. Cytarabine Etoposide 116. Anticancer drug causing nephrotoxicity: d. Dementia 123. Use of magnesium sulfate in pregnancy are associated with all of the following side_effects September 2009 except: a. Imitanib March2010, b. Irinotecan a. Muscular paralysis c. fosfestrol b. Bradycardia d. Cisplatin c. Cardiac arryhthmias 117. Busulfan may cause: d. Respiratorydepression September 2007 a. Cystitis 124. All of the followin tul;1to n"" b. pulmonary fibrosis saf er in o."rr,ur,.r " "" " "rtli ))ri r or o c. Loss ofhair a. Enalapril d. peripheralneuropathy b. Labetalol MEDICATIONS IN PREGNANCY c. Hydralazine 118. Anti-hypertensive & LACTATION d. Alpha-methytdopa i drug contraindicatej in pregnancy is: Septentber 2005,2010 March Hypertension: dytor i a. Hydralazine 2007 March2M9 b. Methyldopa a. sodium nitroprusside c. Enalapril b. Hydralazine d. Amlodopine c. ACE inhibitors d. Indapamide
  • 56. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination 134. Amongst thefollowing, extrapyramidal side effectil4ISCELLANEOUS is used in: March 20AS is commonest with which drug: Septenber 2006fb. Morphine a. HYPertension a. Thioradizine b. Cardiac arrythmias b. haloperidol c. Acute left ventricular failure c. Clozapine d. A-V block d. Ziprasidone 135. Danazol is: Septenfuer 2006l1T,Prolactin secretion is stimulated by: March 2005 a. Anabolic steroid a. TRH b. Androgens agonist b. ACTH c. Antiandrogens c. GnRH d. 5-alpha-reductaseinhibitor d. Dopamine 136. Hypercalcemia is decreased by all of the following128. GtI secetion is inhibited by: March 2045 except: Mnrch 2007 a. Bromocriptine a. Etidronate b. Hyperglycemia b. Calcitonin c. Vigorous exercise c. Lithium d. Deep sleeP d. Glucocorticoids129. True about hypnotic drugs is: Scptentber 2005 137. Thalidomide is useful in: March 2007 a. Slower onset and longer duration a. Treatment of leprosy b. Slower onset and shorter duration b. Treatment of type II l8pra reaction c. Quicker onset and longer duration c. Treatment of type I lepra reaction d. Quicker onset and shorter duration d. Treatment of neuritic leprosy130. Oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated in: 138. Co-administartion of which of the following drug SePtember 2005 with Zidovudine is not preferred: March 2007 a. Premenstrualtension a. Indomethacin b. Endometriosis b. Aspirin c. Hepatadenoma c. Trimethoprim d" Pelvic inJlammatory disease d. All of the above 139. Adrenaline is added to Lignocaine injection for:131. Mechanism of action of allopurinol: September 2005 March 2007 a. Inhibits the slmthesis of uric acid b. Inhibits tubular resorption of uric acid a. Less bleeding at the site c. Antinflammatoryaction b. Higher doses can be given d. Increases phagocytosis of urate crystals c. Prolonged duration of action d. All of the above132. Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock: 140. Which of the following does not cause SePt ember 2005 September 2007 hyperprolactinemia: a. Adrenaline a. Levodopa b" Steroids b. Bromocriptine c. Antibiotics c. Chlordiazepoxide d. Antihistamine d. Pituitary tumour133. Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizen 141. Withdrawl syndrome is associated uith all of the SePtember 2005 following except: September 2007 a. Montelukast a. Alcohol b. Sodiumchromoglycate b. Methadone c. Cetrizine c. Morphine d. Theophylline d. All of the above
  • 57. Pharmacology 142. Which of following drug inhibits xanthine oxidase: 149. Which of the following is a dihydrofolate reductase September 20A7 inhibitor: a. Probenicid March 2009 b. a. Arcohol Quiniarcine c. Allopurinol b. methotrexate d. Sulfinpyrazone c. Cimetidine d. Erythromych 143. All of the following drugs causes hemolysis in G-6 150. Which of the {ollowing is true regarding PD deficiency except: S_HT : a. Primaquine September 2001 derivatives: March 200g b. Nitrofurantin a. Cisapride is selective 5_HT4 antagonist c. Su,lfonamide b. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 agonist d. Erythromycin c. Cyproheptadine is 5_HT2A asonist 144. Which of the d. Sumatriptan action is agonlsticatty, 5_HT. lBnD following lipid lowering drug acts by receptor mediated inhibitingHMG-CoAreductase: March200g,2010 151.. Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is: a. Resins March 2a09 b. Statins a. Pyrazinamide(^9 c. Fibric acid deravatives b. Chloroquine boJ d" Bile acid sequestrants c. Ethambutol d. Tetracycileo(J 145. Drug of choice for a. Thiocayanates thyroid storm is: March 2008 152. Alpha agonist has all of the following actions except: b. Perchlorates September 2009 c. Propylthiouracil a. HypotensionE= d. Radioactive iodine b. Hypertension 146. Muscle relaxant safe in renal c. General anesthesia failure patient is:E d. Nasal decongestanto- a. Pancuronium September 200g 153. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in b. glaucoma: Piperacuronium September 20A9 c. Curare a. Adrenaline d. Atracurium b. Timolol 147. Which of the following drug c. Atropine causes gynecomastia: a. Cimetidine d. Pilocarpine Septentber 2008, 2010 b. Ranitidine 154. True statements regarding octreotide are all of the c. Omeprazole following except: Septentber 2009 d. Famotidine a. Syntheticoctapeptide 148. Following a bee-sting, a boy develops angioedema b. Used in variceal bleeding and dyspnea. Treatment of choice in such c.Contraindicated in acromegaly a case would be: d.Useful in secretory diarrhea March 2009 L55. Sibutramine is used for: a. I,M adrenaline September 2009 b. I/V adrenaline a" Hemorrhage c. I/V corticosteroid b. Nasal decongestant d. Antihistamine c. l)iabetes d. Obesity
  • 58. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI screening Examination tSO. Which of the following is used for medical 161. Disulfiram like reaction is commonlv caused bv adrenalectomY: September 2009 which of the following: March 2005 a. Metyrapone a. Penicillin b. ketoconazole b. metronidazole 6. Aminoglutethimide c. Tetrarycline d. All of the above d"erythromycin lS7. All of the following are true regarding sumatriptan 162. Sterile pyuria may occur due to: March 2007 excePt: September 2009 a. Lignocaine a. 99"k oralbioavailability b. Paracetamol b. Contraindicated in coronary artery disease c. Phenytoin c. Constricts cranial vessels d. Cocaine r: l: :: 163. Thalidomide is useful in: Artn!.hrnn7 d. Selective s-HT 1B/1D receptor agonist :: a. Treatment of leprosy158. Zonal hepatic necrosis is associated with: b. of type lI lepra reaction Treatment March 20L0 c. Treatment of type I lepra reaction a. Diclofenac soclium d. Treatment of neuritic leprosy b. Acetaminophen 164. True statements regarding halothane are all of the j,Tl c. lndomethacin following except: March 2007 ,-F :- d. Piroxicam a. Unsuitable for pediatric population ;;>159. True regarding ondansetron are all of the following b. Potentiates competitiveneuromuscularblockers iiu except: March 201.0 c. Hepatitis may occur ii= a. Antiemetic of choice for chemotherapy induced d. Contraindicated in patients with $> vomiting arrythmia Cardiac ilo b. 165. Half life of albumin is: $;o 5-HT3 receptor antagonist a. SEtember 2009 $|- c. Significant drug interactions 5 days *.O d. May have 5-HT4 antagonism b. 10 days 1io c.160. Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the d. 20 days 40 days r< formation of: March 2010 it 165. Which of the following is false about salmeterol: a. Formic acid * b. Formaldehyde March 2010 a. Regular use may worsen asthma ii c. d. Lactic acid Pyruvic acid b. First long acting selective beta-2 agonist f c. Effective for acute asthmatic attacks ii d. More beta-2 selective agonist than salbutamol
  • 59. r- ;si: .F ASSESSIUENT , EIMCI SCREENIN FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY (Questions)NJURIES 9. Inquest for custodial death is held by: September 20051. Lesion with intact skin but tearing of subcutaneous a. Doctor tissue rs: March 2005 b. Magistrate a. Scalds c. Sub-inspector f. Laceration d. District attorney c. Contusion d. Abrasion MEDICOLECAL ASPECT OF DEATH2" Not a grievous iniury: September 2005 10. Most informative test in parental identification: a. N{ultiple scars of face Marclt 2005 b. Fracture of femur a. HLA c. Emasculation d. Contusion of breast b. Parental likeness3. Abrasion collar is seen in: Sryten*cr 2006 c. Deveiopmentaldefects a. Abrasions over neck d. DNA finger printing b. Bullet injury 11. Post mortem stiffening is called : Marth 2005 c. Punctured wounds a. Putrefaction d. Lacerated wounds b. Rigor mortis4. Rupture of the skin and subcutaneous tissue is called: c. Livor mortis SePtember 2010 d. Mummificafion a. Incised wound b. Abrasions 1,2. True about hydrocution are all except; September 2006 c. Lacerated u.ound a. Electrocution in water d. Contusion b. Death results from cardiac arrestLAW AND FORENSIC MEDICINE c. Results from falling in the water with feet first5. Police inquest is required in all except September 2007 d. Emotionally tense individuals are prone for this a. Sucide b. Accidental death 13. Test used to detect blood group of blood stain: c. Dowry death March 2007 d. Murder a. Benzidine test6. A child can not be considered responsible for a crime b. Takayama test before the age of : September 2007 a. 5 years c" Luminol test b. 7 years d. Absorption elution test c. 10 years 14. DNA can be taken as sample from all of the following d. 12 years except : Septenfttr 20077. Inquest of Dowry death is done by: September 2009 a. Hair roots a. Police b. Semen b. Magistrate c. CSF c. Coroner d. Medical examiner d. Buccal mucosa8. In India, for exhumation maximum permissible time 15. Total number of deciduous teeth in al4yr old child: SePtember 2007 period is : . March 20L0 a. 5 years a.0 b" 10 years b.5 c. 20 years c. L0 d. No limit d. 20
  • 60. Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 16. Regarding medical termination of pregnany, all of the 22. Fracture of hyoid bone is indicative of following are true except_: September 2007 : Ma a. Professional secrecy has to be maintained a. Throttling b. trVoman has the right to abort his b. Suffocation fetus without c. Choking consent of husband c. In an emergency-,termination of pregnanry d. Hanging can be 23. In simple hanging,the knot comes done by a single doctor to rest at the: Termination of pregnancy up to September 20 rveeks can be a. Occiput :i Oo": medical practirioner withour consutting b. Chin Jil .Ot specialist c. Angie of mandible - ttt tt.After death, Livor mortis is caused because cl. Below the cheek X tt, of: 24. Arborescent J March 200g burns are seen in: St:ptenber 2(fig O . a. Ir4uscle of the body began to relax a. Flame burns g b. N{uscle of the body began to stiffen b. Lightning stroke c. Discolourarron c. Ifeat stroke as a result of capillo-venous X 11. Electrocution distension in the dependent partstr of the body 25. True statement regarding postmortemO ,. d. Putrefaction of the body tissues wounds is:fi tS. Brain death is said to occur if there is: March 200g sisns .a Firmlyof spurting of arrerial btoocl on ,iffi"o*{ I a. Absent spinal reflexes b. coagulated blood in the ltounds and tissuesIIJ i, b. Cortical death following widespread brain present injuryZl; c c. Alrc^-^^ ^rr--: Absence of brainstem reflexes c. Edges of the rt ound cloes not gape= I d. Core temperature of the body is betorv 35 degree C d. Increased activity of enzymesPA. 26. CSF test is required in:li.f . -- tS. First permanent teeth to erupt r rr4.r/Erurcrr€nr reerntr I, is: is: September 200g March 201A a. First premolar a. Morphirre poisoning b. Second premolar b. Organophosphorous poisoningo= c. First moiar c. Alcohol poisoning6,* d. Arsenic poisoning d Second moiar2i 27. Pugilistic attitude in fireburns is due to: h4arch 2010E!J rr zO. Rigor rrrurrrD occurs due to: , __. ^u6v^ mortis uccurs que to: September 200g a. Coagulation of blood in the vascularE i; a Muscle of the L- r ,began a. irr,.-l^ ^r,L^ body b. Splitting of sofr parts char-rnelsX!, h .-^^:rr^ -.^ - to relaxE " b. Capjllo-venous distension in the most dependent c. Tight clothing body parts d. Coagulation of protein of the muscles c. Muscle of the body began to stiffen 28. For autopsy, vitreous is preserved in: September 200g d. Mummificalion of the body tissues a. Phenol 21. Causes of death b. Sulphuric acid in drowning are aII except: c. Fluoride March 2009 d. Xylol a. Vagal hyperactivity b. Asphyxia 29. Corpus delicti means: March 2A0g a. Inquest of death c. Ventricuiarfibrillation b. Postmortem findings d. Laryngospasm c, Death by asphyxia d. Essence of crirne
  • 61. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination-^ r;16 coronary is due to: Msrclt 2009 37. If the hemoglobin is saturated with carbon v*-Ju. mcnoxide, the hypoxia involved will be: Marcir 2007 3. Strangulation . r -,^tr .ir a. Hypoxic hyPoxia b. A>vrL;l ^" r^*.-{i:n q"t"erroct b. StagnanthyPoxia c. Ldru(L c. Alaemic lrYPoxia d. Myocardial infarction d. Histotoxic hyPoxia 38. Most cornmon feature of alcohol withdrawl is:SEXUAL OFFENCES March 200731.Female can give consent for sex if she is above: Mnrch 2005 a. Violent attitude b. Hypertension a. 12 1ears c. Tretnors b. 16 vears d. I{yperventilatiorr c. 19 rears 39. Antidote for copper poisoning is: Ivlatcli 2()09 d. 21 Years a. D-peniciliamine82. Female Patient with loss of interest in sex is known as: b. Potassiurn ferrocvanide SePtentber 2006 c. BAL d. Desferrioxamine a. Vaginismus ,10. Not used for treating acute iron poisoning : b. Impotencv c. SterilitY -. A,Iarclt 2009 a. Desferrioxamine d. frigiditY b. BALTOXICOLOGY c. Magnesium hYdroxide33. Pin point pupils are seen in all of the following d. Hemodialysis conditions excePt: September 2405 41. Antidote for organophosphates poisoning are all except: Septenfuer 2009 a. Organophosphrous Poisoning a. Physostigmine b. Opiod poisoning b. Activated charcoal c. Cerebello pontine hemarroge c. Pralidoxime d. Datura poisoning d. Atropine34. Hairs are preserved in which poisoning: March 2007 42. Fomepizole as a antidote is used in the poisoning of: a. Arsenic SePtember 2009 b. Manganese a" OrganophosPhrous c. Phosphorous b" Methyl alcohol d. Alcohol c. Aiuminium PhosPhide 35. All of the following are features of Datura poisoning d. Copper except: March 2007 43. Pin point pupils ate seen in: March 2010 a. Dryness of mouth a. Opium Poisoning b. Delirium b. Acute alcohol Poisoning c. Dilated pupil c. Barhiturate Poisoning d. Bradycardia d. Epileptic coma 44. Patient presented with anemia, blue line in gums, 35. Best method for methanol poisoning treatment: constipation, abdominal colic and basophilic March 2007 stippling. Poisoning maY be due to: March 2009 a. Ethanol a" Arsenic b. Calcium gluconate b. Mercury c" Desferroxamine c. Copper d. BAL d. Lead
  • 62. F ASSESSMEN1;- E/IT{CI SCREENIN 1gg..r 1. A new drug does nort prevents occurring but reduce; - *osq>t from -_ a disease rrorr eath due to that disease. of .^ r^rr Whieh nr rhe following Inl"n is true: March 2005 ; il:]ijl:::," the ilcidcrrce _o prevalence L rr wlll w. ,. decrease the itncidence dru p,"uur"luJl and prevalence , . c. rrre-,or^_-.^ is increased _Prevalence d. Incidence is increased 2. Test which detects true negative is said to have: a. Relative risk March 2005 b. Quarantine b. Odd,s ratio c. Detecting sourc(,ol infection (r. ,aCcrnatjon c. Sensitivihy 10. Associated with d. Specificity surveillance are all except: of the forlor.ring , seen in a country a. Sentinej search Selttetnber ,?;,j:T;::1l ""_ bur broughr b. Randomisation 20102 a. Endemic March 2005 t reqarding trends b. Epidemic of hearrh status or, c. Zoonotic i:tfiililon d. Providing timelv d. Exotic disasters . wamings of public heal&r 4. Surveillance is: 11. Prevalence is a: a Monitoring of activir March 2005 a. Rate September 2007 ry of rrLqrf,rt workers -- health wurKers h .^-s__ b. Continuous monil b. Ratio :ormg of occurrence c. proportion ,iqrri.,,*^- distribution of a disease and d. percentage :. :4:nit:ring of trends of d. Related to ihe vtute rnce a disease tt"16;"t"rding cohorts study are of the organism au of rhe foilowing rr-+:^-. ! A Patient is - made to wrrlk early a. Most reliable , for: for: after Surgery. This is of showing an association "eptember2007 t"tw"enl s,ls};T- , a. Treating the padent March 2005 o. Reducing disability c. specific protection : :,Tt T j:,1$::lfi lHpl;;3sequenl ;. :*, q. s rano can be calculated disease EXposure rates can d. Rehabilitation -_ be calculated 13. Prevention of devel<6. rping risk factors in Which of the following is secondary level under: CAD comes prevention: of a. primary prevention September 2007 March 2005 o. Secondary prevention i l:ol"]"ctic drug adminisrartion b. Admiting disabted c. rrrmordja.l prevention c. Vaccination .hild; r;;d schoots q. I ertiary prevention. d" C"r,ui.al pap smear 14. Relative risk is associated_ Sensitivity checking a. Cohort sfudies with: September 20077. of a screening test indicates: b" sectional sfudies _Cross c. Envoimmental sfudies a. False positive September 2006 o. Lase control studies b. False negative 15" First noticed case c. True negative of a disease is known a. Reference case as: March 200g d. True positive b. Secondary case c. Tertiary case d. Index case
  • 63. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination g.Hefi Immunity is a feature of all of the following VACCINES diseases excePt: SEtentuer 2008 24. Which of the following vaccine should not be kept in 6. Diphtheria freezer: March 2005 b. Polio a. DPT c. Tetanus b. Measles d. Measles c. OPV d. AII of the above lT.Relative risk can be calculated by: September 2008 a. Incidence of disease amongst exposed/incidence of 25. Oral cholera vaccine is effective for: September 2005 disease amongst non-exposed a. 6 months b. Incidence of disease amongst non- b. 12 months exposed/incidence of disease amongst exposed c. 2 years Incidence of disease amongst exposed/total d. 3 years c. population of that area 26. Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as per which ,,.7 d. Incidence of discase amongst non-erposed/total schedule: a. 0,1,6 days SeTttenfuer 2045 F population of that area , ITI detect: b. 0,1,6 rveeks 18. Sentinel surveillance is used to ltlarch 2409 a. New cases c. 0,l,6months ,m d. 0,1,6 years :,2 b. Missed cases c. Old cases 27. BCG should tre given: September 2005 ,{it: d. Reference cases a. Immediately after birth * t<*: 19. Specificity of a diagnostic test denotes: September 2009 b. At the age of 1 month im -a:lri1; a. True negative c. Atthe ageof 6months d. At the age of 1 year i> *z b. False positive c. False negative 28. Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at:. September 2005 a. Medial part of thigh t(] d. True positive b. Deltoid muscle 9s, 20. Cohort study is associated with: March 2010 c. Anterior Abdomen :,o a. Prevalence d. Lateral part of thigh io b. Odds ratio c. Relative risk 29. BCG vaccine is diluted with: September 2405 iF l|. a. Normal saline d. Exposure rates b. Distilled water 21. Ability of a screening test to diagnose true positive {= c. Dextrose 3.m refers tol March 2010 d. Colloids TU 5- a. Relative risk b. Sensitivity 30. For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human rabies immunoglobulin is: September 2407 ;o F- c. Specificity a. 10IU/kg ?z d. Attdbutable risk b. 20IU,4<g ira ,; 22. True regarding case control study are all of the c. 30IU/kg following except: March 20L0 d. 40IU/kg a. Possibilty of bias 31. How many doses of MMR are given: September 2007 b. Odds ratio can be derived a. 1 c. Relativelyinexpensive b.2 d. Attributable risk can be known c.3 23. Correct statement regarding longitudinal studies is: o.4 March 2010 32. MMR vaccine is a type of: September 2009 .,; a" Short duration study a. Killed vaccine b. lnferior to cross-sectional studies b. Toxoid c. Observation is taken only once c. Live attenuated vaccine d. Helps in identifying risk factors of a disease d. Immunoglobulin
  • 64. Preventive and Social Medicine 33. Post exposure vaccination for measles should be done 41. As per WHO, anemia is considered to exist in SeTttember 2009 pregnancy/ 1day ofexposure if the hemoglobin level is below: 2 day of exposure March 20A7. 3 day of exposure 7 day of exposure i: il^r;::; c. 12 grr,To COMMUNICABLE AND d. 13 gm% 42. Disease spread by hard NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES tick is: Septenber a. Rocky mountain spotted fever 34. Virus causing rabies b. in man is: Mnrch 2005 Epidemic typhus a. Wilcl virus c. Murine typhus b. Street virus d. Scrr-rb typhus IJJ z c. Fixed virus d. All of the above 43. Which of the mosquitoes: following is spread by aedes (J 35. Quarantine period for yellow fever is: a. Loa L.oa Seplentbcr 2007 o IIJ a. 1 dav Septembcr 2005 b. Malaria b. 2 days c. Dengue c. 6 days d. Japanese encephalitis = J, d. t0 days 44. Causative agent f& oriental sore is: {. 36. Plaque is transmitted by: a. Onchocerca volvulus Septentuer 2A076, a. Flea September 2005 b. Leishmania donovanro, b. Soft tick c. Leishmania tropicaa; c. Mites d.Brugya malayio: d. Hard tick 45. Larvae of which of the following lies parallel toz, 37. True regarding elimination of neonatal tetanus in surface of water: teptember 2oo7<.. village: september 2006 a" Anophele,IIJ. a. Rate more than 1/1000 live births b. Culex>: b. Attended deliveries less than 50% c. AedesF,, c. Attended deliveries d. SandflyziIIJ i d. more than 50% Rate less than 0.1/1000 live births 46. After the appearance of rash, prophylactic isolation of 38. Chandler,s measles case is necessary for>{lI|; a. Round worm index is associated with: September 2006 a minimum of: September 2007E, b. Hook worm a. 2dayso- c. Pin worm b. 5 days d. Tape worm c" 7 days 39. Vector for dengue fever is: d. 9 days September 2006 a. Culex 47. All of the following diseases are reported to WHO b. Aedes except: SePtentber 2007 c. Male Anopheles a" Plague d. Female Anopheles b. Yellow fever 40. Natural reservoir of Chikungunya virus in India is: c. Polio March 2007 d. Cholera a. Monkey 48. Scrub typhus is spread by: b. Guinea pig a. Ticks September 2007 c. Aedes b. Fleas d. Dog c. Trombiculid mite d. Louse
  • 65. Self ,Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination49. Immunoglobulin is used for all of the following 56. Which of the following is not a complication of diseases excePt: March 2008 mumps: Nlnrch 20A9 a. Measles a. Orchitis tl b. Rabies b. Oophoritis ,tl c. Typhoid c. Encephalitis d. Chickenpox d. HepatitisS0. Culex mosquito spreads all of the following disease 57. Case notification under intemational health excePt: March 2048 regulations is done for which of the following: a. Viral arthritis September 2009 b. West Nile fever a. hepatitis B fii.i:l i iir rli c. Yellort fever b. HIV d. Bancroftian filariasis ;.U l,v c. Yeiiollfer.er51. Measles is infective for: It4nrdt 2409 d. Ali of the above ,ffi a. One da,v before and 4 davs after rash 58. Inflrrenza shows which type of trend: Stlttctrrber 2009 ,,( i,111 b. Four clays before and five days after rash a. Secular :z c. Entire incubation period b. Cyclicai i l{ d. Only during scabs falling Which of the following is best for ante-mortem c. Seasonal i<52. d. None of the above iirTl diagnosis of rabies: March 2009 59. Dengue is transmitted by; Marclt2010 *> a. Antirabies antibodies in blood a. Anopheles tz b. Immunofluorescence of comeal impressions b. Culex IE] c. Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy c. Mansonia ta FO d. Isolation of virus from saliva Which of the following is not a part of management d. Aedes fo al53. in grade III dog bite infected with rabies: March 2009 60. Which of the following disease has an incubation week: i> - period of less than 1 March 2010 al]- a. Vaccination b. Stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage a. Measles {= b. Cholera {m c. Wash with soap and water c. Mumps *g d. Administration of antirabies serum and vaccination54. A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after d. Pertussis i0 ;iz 61. Which of the following diseases is under consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may international surveillance: March 20L0 tltl be.. March 2009 *; a. Influenza a. Clostridiumperfringenes b. Bacillus cereus b. Malaria c. Salmonella typhi c. Polio d. Staphylococcus d. All of the above 55.Infectivity period of chickenpox is: 62. False statement regarding japanese encephalitis is: March 2009 a. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash March 2010 b. 4 days before and L day after appearance of rash a. lt is caused by flavivirus c. Only when scab falls b. Transmitted by aedes mosquito d. Entire incubation period c. Not endemic in India d. Man is dead-end host
  • 66. Preventive and Social Medicine 63. KFD is transmitted by: March 2010 71. Maternal mortality rate is calculated a. Tick as death of a woman upto a period of: b. Sandfli a. Immediately after delir.ery Septemher 20Cs c. Mosquito b. 42 days after delivery ii iiiii d. Mite c. 7 da7,s after delivery 64. Tru_e statement regarding poliomyeliti s is: March 2010 d. 21 days after delivery a. Poliovirus is resistant to pasteurization 72.Total fertility rate is defined b. For every clinical case, there may be as: September 2005 subclinical cases in adults. 1000 a. Number of childrens born to woman over her c. Commonly spreads by faeco_oral rorrte lifetime d. Most outbreaks of polio are due to type_3 poliovirus b. Number of girl children bom to woman over her u 65. Hypertension is associated with all of the lifetime z except: a. Excess salt following March 2010 c. Nurnber of bov children bom to r{roman over lifetime her o) b. Excess exercise d. Number of girl children born to married o tg c. Phaeochromocytoma reproductive age group. woman in c1. Obesity E 66. WHO notifiable disease are all of the following 73. Eligible couple is defined as: September 2005Ji a. Married couple vrtth husband inn reproductive except: age<. a. Cholera March 2010 groupot b. Plague b. Married couple rvith wife in reproductiveoioi: c. Tetanus d. Yellow fever group c. Married couple irrespective of the age group ageoi DEMOCRAPHY AND PREVENTIVE d. None of the abovez.i HEALTH 74. Denominator for maternal mortality rate is:<: 67. To achieve a be: NRR of 1, Couple protection rate should a. 100,000 pregnancies September 2005,2010lUi a. More than 30% March 2005 b. 100,000 live births>; b. More than4}"/o c. 100,000 birthsFi c- More than 50% d. 100,000 populationZ: d. More than 60% 75. Sullivan index denotes:IJJ i 68. Eligible couple September 2006>;IIJ; is defined as: a. Married couple with husband age 20_40 March 2005 a. Life expectancy at birth b. Life expectanry excluding disabilty free perioduio-1 b. Married couple with wife uge tS_+S c-. Married couple irrespective of the c" Contraceptive failure rate age group d. Hookworm density in stool d. Just married 76. Infant Mortality Rate for is: 69. PQLI includes all of the following except Japan March 2007 March 2005 d.L a. Per capita income b. Literacy rate c. Life expectanry at 1 year c.4 d. Infant Mortality o.5 70" Denominator for calculating infant mortality 77. According to 2001. census the male:female rate is: ratio [sex September 2005 ratiol in India was: September 2007 a. 1000 popularion a. 890 b. 1000 births b. 933 c. 1000 live births c. 957 d. 1000 pregnancies d. 978
  • 67. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination76. g,ccording to 2001 census, what was the growth rate 85. Denominatot for calculating perinatal mortality rate of India: September 2007 is: September 2009 a. 1.03% a. 1000 births b. 1,.33% b" i000 live births c. 1.63% c. 1000 still births d. r.%% d. 1000 population79. lndia is at which stage of Demographic cycle: 86. Percentage of children of under 4 years of age in SEtember 2008, March 2009 India is: September 2009 a. High stationary a. 1,0"/o b. Early stationary b. 15% c. Late expanding c. 20% d, Low stationary d. 25o/"80. t{uman Development Index includes all of the 87. According to WHO guidelines, number of check- following except: March 2a09, September 2009 ups/antenatal visits for a woman having nonnal a. Infant mortality uncomplicated pregnancy is: Septenrber 2009 b. Income c. literacy rate a.8 d. Life expectancy at birth b. 1081. Which of the following better correlates with c. 14 O- lf) Sullivans index: March 2009 a. InJant mortality rate 88. True statement regardingat risk babt: b. Life expectancy at the age ofone September 2009 c. Per capita income a. Birth weight less than 2J5kg d. Numbers of years lived without disability b. Weight less than 70% of the expected weight82. Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate c. Birth order more than 3 following a person with a primary disease is: d. Ist degree maL:rutrition March 2009 89. All of the following are components of the a. All the contacts who are exposed to the affected Kuppuswamys scale except: March2070 person a. Education b. AII the people in his home b. Maternal mortality c. All the people in his family c. Occupation d. All the people in his city d. Family income83. Child-Women ratio is the number of child per: 90. Infant Mortality Rate of India as per 2007 census is: March 2049 March 2010 a. women 1000 a. 34 b. 1000 married women b. 44 c. 1000 women in reproductive age c. 54 d. 1000 married women in reproductive age d. 5484 The number of girls a woman would bear if she 91. As per census 2001, most populous state during 199L- Passes through her reproductive age with the same 2001 was: March 2005 fertility rate gives: March 2009 a. Tripura a. Total fertility rate b. Rajasthan b. Fertility rate c. Gross reproductive rate c. Uttar pradesh d. Net reprocluctive rate d. Orissa
  • 68. Preventive and Social Medicine NUTRITION 92. The 99. Differences between human milk upper line in growth chart denotes and cow what all of the following percentile of WHO reference standard: except: ,-:::rf; Marclr 2005 a. 50ft percentile a. Cow milk has comparatively more fat b. 60th percentile b. Con, milk has comparatively more protein c. 70th percentile c. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium d. 80th percentile d. Cow milk is iron deficient 93. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended bv WHO 100. Meals supplied in mid day meals programme upto: should provide: March 2005 September 2Mj a. 3 months a. 1/2 calories and U2 proteins b. 4 months b. 1/2 calories and 1/3 proterns UJ; . u;";;; c. l/3 calories and ll2 proteins Z: d. 9 monrhs d. 1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins 9 ,n. Dietary fibresJ are rich in: arE rrLrr rn: It4arch 2005 101. Pellagra is due to deficiency of: September 2006.200g 6 , " c.,;; a. Riboflavin E b. proreogl-vcan e . c. pectin b. thiamine c. Niacin starchd.<,, nU.In India, percentage d. pyridoxinei- 1 of energy from fats should be 102. Fish Iiver oil is the richest source of: less than: September 20066 " a. ru March 2005,2010 a. Vitamin Kai b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin Dzi c. 30 d. Vitamin A<i d. 40 103. Number of caloriesllJ { 96.Daily required dose in 100 grams of breast milk is: of iron i an adult man is: in>i March 2005 September 20072i :11--.a i1g D u.d mg a. b. c. 45 Kcal 65 Kcal>i c. 0.9mg 85 KcalUI d. 1.0 mg d. 105 Kcal 104. Amount of proteins in human milk (in gms): September 2a0S September 2007 a" 3 months a" 1.1 b. 6 months b. 2.2 c. 9 months ^ L. aa J.J d. 12 months d. 4.4 98. Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy 105. Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to is: children every: September 2005 Septetnber 2007 a. BOAA a" 3 months b. Sanguinarine b. 6 months c. Pyrrolizidine c. 12 months d" Ergots d" lB months
  • 69. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination10f. WHO defines BMI of the malnourished as: 113. When milk is taken before meal which of the March 2oo8 following elements absorption is decreased: a. Berow kgm2 March 2009 g a. b. Below 18.5 kglm2 Calciurn c. Below 19kglm2 b. Iron d. below 19.5 kglm2 c. Phosphorous107. Folic acid requirement during lactation is: d. Magnesium September 2A08 1"14. Best indicator for monitoring the effectiveness of a. 100 microgram/day iodine deficiency controi programme is: b. 150 microgramlday September 2C09 c. 200 microgram/day a. Neonatalirypotiryroidism d. 250 microgramlday b. Hypothyroidism in male population Tt , c. Hypothyroidism in female populatior.r N .108. Recommended initial dose of Vitamin " A" fot cl. Size of goitror-rs lesion Il! prophylaxis in a 9 month old child is: September 2008 115. How many gram of protein is given in mid day meal a. 4,00,000I.U f; scheme: March 2410 ;,f b. 5.00.000I.u a. 4-8 gram t.{ c. 1,00.000 LU d. 2.00.000I.u. b. 8-12 gram c. 72-L6 gram l1 xm109. A patient of total parenteral nutrition develops d. r6-20gtam t> delayed wound healing loss of taste, deficient 115. Extra calories required during pregnancy state is: y,Z immunity and diarrhoea. Most probably it could be ,orrP 2g1g{Et due to deficiency of: September 2008 a. 100 kcal/day lra a. Selenium b. 200 kcal/day to t:O b. Copper c. 300 kcal/day c. Zinc d. 400 kcal/day iF d. Iron 117. Deficiency of zinc causes all of the folloning except: lr1.10. Calories required by one year old child is: a. Growth retardation NIarch 2010 i= im a. 92kcallkglday September 2A08 b. SexuaI infantilism lu :lr.- b" kcafkg/day 102 c. Alopecia d. Immunologicaldisturbances {o c.ll2kcallkglday 118. Vitamin K is required for- March 2005 irZ d.l,22kcallkglday 1m a. Chelation :a.111. 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency: March 20A9 b. Transamination a. Conjunctivalxerosis c. Carboxylation b. Bitots spots d. none ofthe above c. Night blindness 119, Under National Programme for Prevention of d. Corneal ulcer Nutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of 6-1L2. Vitamin not present in breast milk: March 2009 1.1 months is given a single dose of vitamin A is: a. Vitamin A March 2005 b" Vitamin B a. 50,000 IU c. Vitamin C b. 1.00.000IU d. VitaminD c. 1,50,000 IU d. 2,00.000 ru .... :--* -
  • 70. Preventive and Social Medicine 120. Which of the following vitamin may have an anti d. 4.5 gramsilitre infective action: StVtember 2005 127. Depth of water seal in I{CA sanitary latrine of India a. VitaminK March 20A7 b. Vitamin D a. 10 mm c. VitaminA b. 20 mm d. Vitamin E c. 30 mm 121. All of the following are antioxidant except: d. 40 mm September 2005 128. Amount of free residual chlorine in a. Vitamin A drinking water: September 2007, March 2010 b. Vitamin B a. 0.1 mg,{- c. Vitamin C b.UJ 0.5 mg/Lz d. /itamin E c. 1.0 mg,4-q 122. Thiamine deficiency may be seen in all of the following except: d. 1.5 mg/Lo a. Homocystinemia March 2009 129. Amount of chlorine needed to kill cyclops inIJJ b. Chronic alcoholism drinking water is: Selttenrber 2007 c. a. 3 ppm=J Heart failure patients on diureiics b. 4pp* d. Starvation 123. Which of the following is false regarding c. 5 pp-C) d. 6pp*oU acrodermatitis enteropathica: a. Low serum zinc levels L30. Guideline value for drinking water is:o b. Triad of diarrhea, dementia and dermatitis September 2007z c. d. Autosomal recessive condition None of the above a. b. 1 coliforms per 100ml 10 coliforms per 1000 mlIIJ 124. Wernickes encephalopathy results due to deficiency c. Zero coliforms per 100 ml of: March 2a10, September 2010 d. 100 coliforms in 10,000 mlF a" Thiamine 131. Which of the following is false regarding respirablezuJ b. Niacin dust; March2010 c. Pantothenic acid a. May lead to pneumoconiosisul d" Cyanocobalamin b. Smaller than 5 microns is respirableto- ENVIRONMENT AND SANITATION c. d. Silicosis is the most common dust disease Soluble dust remains in the lungs for a long time 125. In ORS, the effect of glucose on sodium absorption 132. Recommended flouride concentration in water to ls: September 2005 prevent caries is: a. Increase in sodium absorption March 20L0 b. Decrease in sodium absorption a.0 c. Variable effect on sodium absorption b. 0.5 ppm d. No effect on sodium absorption c. lppm 126. Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS is: d. 1.5 ppm 133. Nitrates in drinking water indicates: September 2005 september 2006 a. 1.5 gramslliire - a" Remote faecal pollution b" 2.5 grams/litre b. Recent faecal pollution c" 3.5 grams/litre c. Unpolluted water d. Water fit for drinking
  • 71. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examinationf4. The acceptable noise level that can be tolerated 141. All were the goals for National health policy 2002 wiihout any damage to hearing is: Mnrch 2009 except: Septemher 2009 ;.,1;:;i,aa a. 85 dB a. F-,lirninate lymphatic filariasis b1, 2015 :r]ri.it::.:.5 , . j.i b. 90 dB b. Eliminate Kala-azar by 2010 .: ::.: .,--.:-: c. Eliminate HIV by 2015 ,, .i: c. 95 dB d. Eliminate leprosy by 2005 d. 100 dB L42. Rural population under one primary health centreNATIONAL POLICIES AND HEALTH CARE in plain areas in India is: SEtember 2049135. Who should be trained in a community for house to a. 10,000 , house surveys: March 2005 b. 20,000 .ii a. Multipurpose worker b. Volunteer c. 30,000 d. rT c. d. Flealth educator Health guide 1,20,000 143. True about Minimum development goals is: fi m136. Community health centre covers a population of: SeptenLter 2009 < ,m March 2005, Stptenfuer 2009 a. fotal of 15 goals harre to be acl-rieved :.2 a. b. 10,000-30,000 30.000-60.000 b. c. Targets to be achieved by 2015 Policy of Indian govemirent i< ;l c. 60,000-80,000 d. Concerned only rvith the provision of primary im d. 80,000-1,20,000 health care r>137. National rural health mission is staded by prime 144. All of the following are present in a subcentre i.z minister in: a. 2003 September 2007 except: September 2009 ig :ut b. c. 2004 2005 a. b. Multipurpose worker male Multipurpose worker female io ,Q d. 2006 c. Medical officer :F138. A primary health care center should provide all d. Volunteer worker ;r except: a. September 2007 L45. A health guide works at: September 2009 t= Treatment of common diseases a" Each village level im b. c. Specialisedsurgeries Immunization b. Sub centre level i9 d. Family planning services c. d. PHC level CHC ievel te i:Z139. Which of the following is posted at a subcentre: 146. Which of the following is incorrect about ASHA: am March 2008 a. Voluntary worker September 2009 lt. iiri*1:. b. Anganwadi workers a. 1 ASHA worker per 1000 popuiation c. Trained dai b. Resident of local community d. Health guide c" She must be educated till 4th class140. Which of the following committee proposed the d. 25-45 years of age concept of primary health centre in India: 147. Death needs to be registered within: September 2009 March 2008 a. 4 days a. Mukerji committee b. 7 d,ays b. Bhore committee c. Kartar singh committee c. 10 days d. Mudaliar committee d. 14 days
  • 72. Preventive and Social Medicine 148. Which of the following is not a part of duties of 154. Weight of 9 students of a class is as follows _ 22,24, anganwadi worker: March 2070 76,72,76,78,80,73 and.72. What is the mode: a. Immunization March ":. . b. Health check-ups a. 72 c. Conductingdeliveries b. 74 d. Supplementarynutrition c. 76 149. Number of beds in a CHC is: d. 78 March 2010 155. Standard deviation is defined as: a. 20 March b. 30 a. Value of middle observation when data c. 40 arranged in ascending order. d. 50 b. Arithmetic meanuJ c. Dispersion of values about the meanz 150. Kartar singh committee recommendations are related to: ct. Most frequently occtrrring value() a. No private practice March 2()10 156. Significant value of "p, is: Nlarch 201AollJ , b. Measrrres to improve effectiveness of National a. b. 0.01 0.02 Malaria Eradication programme c. Framework of health services at peripheral level c. 0.04 i=Jr d. Concept of primary health care d. 0.05{i 151. Which of the following is a duty of multipurpose 157. All of the following are measures of dispersiono; worker male: Except:o:U): a. March 2010 He will visit schools at regular intervai in the a. Mean Deviation September PHC b. Modeo: !. b. Organizes staff meetings c. Range2,, d.(i c. Regularly visit to every house in his area d. Attends patients in the OpD Standard deviation 158. Percentage of a data can be depictedrJi 152. As per RCH, which of the following on a:)i is the first a. September 20ffiF; referral unit: September 2009 b. Pie chartzt; a. Subcentre Bar diagramUJr b. Primary health centre c. Histogram)i c. Community health centre d. GraphUJ:E,: d. Medical college hospital 159. A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with :O-i BIOSTATISTICS the help of- Sept 2009 ;j a. Bar diagram 153" Considering the table given below, odds ratio can b. Pie chart be calculated as: September 2008 c. Histogram d. Pictogram MISCELLANEOUS 160" Most important factor which decides the results of a randomized controlled trial is: March 2005 a. AB/CD a. Inclusion of all age groups b. ACEO b. 50% treated with placebo and 50% witll drugs c. AD/BC c. 100% follorv up d, BDiAC d. Effectiverandomization
  • 73. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screenino Examination Socially acquired behavior is known as: 169. To facilitate the screening of visual-acuity, WHO161. March 2005, Septentber 2010 defines blindness as counting fingers at a distance of: S4ttembcr 2006A Septeruber 20L0 a. Culture a. 1 metre b. Socialization b. 3 rnetres c. Internalization c. 6 metres d. Custom d. 9 metres162. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a37 yr 170. Human anatomical waste is put in: March 2007 well educated, normal woman is: March 2005 a. Yellow a. Diaphragm b. Red b. IUCD c. Blue c. N{ala-D d. Biack d. Mala-N Df)T is: TL63. Best protection from STD and Syphilis is bv: 171. True regarding a Svntlielicinstcticiclc Sclttttrt|ttr 21t07 n m Mnrch 2005 b. Natural insecticide a. IUCD c. Organophosphateirrsecticide m b. Condom d. No incidence of resistance .2 c. OCP i= 172,ln a faclory, sickness absenteeism predicts: d. Tubectomy .:< Septetnber 2007164. Comparing cost of 2 sfudies and choosing the one a. Relationship between employee and employer im which is economically superior to others is done by: March 2005 b. Working environment i> a:z c. a. b. Cost accounting Cost benefit d. Managerial control State of health of workers is itcn c. d. System analysis Netnork analysis 173.Kata thermometer is used to measure: September 2A07 a. Air pressure ;o |O b. Degree of hotness in air165. Condoms are more preferred because: a. Reduced failure rates September 2005 c. Air cooling power i>l- b. d. Air density r: c. Easily available Reduced side efffects 174.Trse regarding malathion are all of the following i= d. Easy to use except: March 2008 im is: a. Used as a spray lEl156. Natural method of contraception a. Rhythm method September 2005 b. Can be used as an altemative to DDT i6 b. Coitus interruptus c. Most toxic of all members of the group i= c. d. Belongs to organophosphorous insecticides ..lrl Breast feeding 175. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for how d. A1l of the above many days in a year: March &. Septcmber 2008167. First step in investigating an epidemic is: a. 71 days Septenfuer 2005 b. 81 days a. Confirmation of the diagnosis c. 91 days b. Isolation d. 101 days c. Mass immunization 176.Target forwater supply in rural areas of India is: d. Verification of the diagnosis Septentber 2008168. Triage in casuality is done for: September 2006 a. 30 litres per capita per day a. Prevention of such casualities b. Treating patients b. 40 litres per capita per dav c. Case segregation c. 50 litres per capita per day d. Predicting after effects of casuality d. 60 litres per capita per day
  • 74. Preventive and Social Medicine 777 Agroup of experts discussing a topic in front of the audience without any specific d. HIV drug trial order. This mode of 185. When someone communication is known as: iltegally harms property., body St1rtt,,,Lr, ,OOt or someone,s reputation, it is a. Panel discussion known as: b. Group discussion a. Assault Septentber c. Team presentation b. Civil Injury d. Symposium c. Hurt 1.78. Benefits of cost benefit analysis of a programme are d. Wound measured in terms of: 186. WHO guidelines for Septenfuer 200g minimal sperm count is: a" Number of lives saved rii b. lr4onetary gains a. SeTttentber 2007 c. Compariscn of alternati_res million/ml 10 UJ d. b. z Sequence of actrons 179. As per the school health committee 20 miltion/ml c. 50 million/ml E recommendation, medical examination d. 60 million/ml of school o IIJ children should be done every: a 1 Year March 2009 187. Essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them b. 2vear is called: = c. 3 year September 200g J d. 4year a. Essential heaiTh care S, 180. Which of the following can be eliminated by double b. Primary health care Oi blinding: c. Community health careo: a. Berkensonian bias March 2009 d. Social rnedicinev),:, b. Recall bias 188. Anti tobacco day is:ol c. Interviewer,s bias d. Selection bias a. lMay September 2009Zt b. 15 May(, 181. In disaster situation, how many colour codes are c. 25MayltJ; used for triage: d. september 2oog 31May>.: a. 1 189. Process by which an individual b.2 gradually acquiresFizlUI: L.J d. None of the above culture and becomes a member known as: of a social group is teptenrber 20a9)r 182. Ratio of doors and windows to the floor for a a. Intemalisatio.,lIJ. classroom should be at least: b. Acculturationt,[] a. b. 20% September 2009 c. Socialization 25% d. Custom c. 30% 190. The critical path method d. 35% in health planning and 183. Bhopal gas tragedy of management is: India is an example of March2010 a. Shortest time taken to complete the project March2010 b. Longest path taken to complete the Multiple exposure epidemic -" b. Propagated epidemic c. Mid-point for reviewing the proiect iroyect c. Point source epidemic d. None of the above d. Slow epidemic 191. Which phase of clinical trial involves 184. Which of the following is normal human not included in phase I Volunteers: March clinical trial of medicine: 2010 a. Healthy volunteers March 2007 a. phase 0 b. Patient with end stage disease b. Phase I c. Epilepsy patients L. rnase ll d. Phase III
  • 75. **o.*,ffiXffi*** EAR, NOSE AND THROAT (ENT) EAR (euestiorJ 1. Hyperacusis is seen in all of the following 8. Unilateral conductive hearing loss in a patient with except: history of head injury. On examinatlo.r, ty*pur.i. March 2007 membrane is normal and mobile.The a. Exposr-rre to loud sounds cause for deafness could be: b. Otosclerosis a. Collection of fluid in the middle ear septenber 20ag c. Menieres disease b. Otosclerosis d. Severe head injury c. Dislocation of the incudostapediai joint 2. Menieres disease is characterized d. ASOM by the triad of 9. Most comtnon cause of chronic ear MLtrclt 2()08 infection in India is: a. Lleafness, nvstagmus, tremors Septentlter 2a09 b. Deafness, vertigo, nysragmus a. Svphilitic otitis media c. Deafiress, tinnitus, t ertigo b. TB otitis media d. Deafness, tremors, tinnifus c. CSOM 3 The first clinical presentation d. Fungal otitis merdia of acoustic neuroma is 10. Referred pain in the ear is commonly from: feature of: Septenfuer 200g a. Brainstem involvement Septentber 200g a. Maxillary carcinom; b. Cerebellar involvement b. Nasopharyng"ul c. Faciai nerve! involvement c. Carcinoma tongue "uJ.i.,o*u d. Cochleovestibular symptoms d. Malignant otitis externa 4. Most common cause of conductive 11. Tuning fork frequency used for deafness in testing is: children less than 12yrs: March 2009 Septentber 2009 a. CSOM a. 572H2 b. Otosclerosis b. 1048 Hz c. furous otitis media c^ 248H2 d. Atresia of auditory canals on both d. All of the above sides 5. Negative Rhinne,s test for 256 Hztuning fork 12. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which indicates a minimum air_bone part of the semi circular canals: gap of Marclt 2009 Scptenfuer 2009,2A10 a. 1OdB a. Lateral b. 15dB b" Posterior c. 20dB c" Anterior d. AII of the above d. 25dB 13. AII of the following are true about glomus_jugulare 6. Cauliflower ear seen in: March 2009 tumor except: March)010, Septerfuer 2010siFll a. Hematoma of the auricle a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodes.* b. Carcinoma of the auricle b. Pulsatile tinnifus and conductiro d"uf.,er, c. Fungal infection of the auricle ,"".,€ c. Most commoniv affects male#,€sj d. Congenital cleformity d. Paraganglioma,s 7. Causative organism for malignant otitis externa is: NOSEffii.2.7VE Septentber 2009 14. CSF rhinorrhoea is due to the fracture Hemophilus of which of theae. a" following March 2aogtrr b. Staphyiococcus a. Nasal bones{iF]:; c. Streptococcus b. Cribriform plaiet1: u- Pseudomonas c. Temporal tronet:-. d. Maxiliary bonez::aa.:a:,,,.::
  • 76. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination is done for: March 2009 19. One of the most important complication of li$i6.Youn8s :l"t:ltii rnrruns tracheostomy is: SePf ember 2008 i;;l; a. AiroPhtc a. Surgical emPhYsema b. Vasomotor rhinitis b. Hemorrhage c. Antrachonal PoIYP Allergic rhinitis c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy d. polyp: d. Displacement of tube Treatment of choice for antrochoanal 20. Stridor in an infant is most commonly due to:16. SePtenfuer 2009 March 20L0 a. IntranasalPolYPectomY a. Diphtheria b. Caldwell-Luc oPeration b. Acute ePiglottitis c. EndoscoPic sinus surgery d. Intranasal ethmoidectomY c. Foreign bodY asPiration following is associated with olfactory d. Laryngomalacia17. Which of the :m nerve dysfunction: Mnrch 2010 MISCELLANEOUS a. Dorvn syndrome b. Tumer s)ndrome 21. Paralysis of palsy: which muscle lead to hyperacusis in Bells Septcmber 2008 ? .,2 c. Parkinst tn disease a. Tensor veli Palatini d. Marfan sYndrome b. Levator Palatini 10 c. Stapedius ;CNlHROAT d. Stemocleidomastoid :.m18.All of the following are true regarding tracheostomy fube excePt: September 2008 22. florners syndrome is caused by: March 2009 i> i:Z a. Double lumen tube a. Facial injurY b. Made of titanium silver alloY b. Nasopha4mgeal carcinoma with metastasis i(] c. Cuffed tube prevents aspiration of pharyngeal c. Menieres disease i+ i- secretions d. All of the above d. Ideally should be changed every 3d day ?n :o :> l{ :;. :rn tz l-l i :::i|: t
  • 77. s6,!f AssEsslvrErv"g irurcEzMcr SCRE.rNTNG OPHTHALMOLO Gy (euestions) OPHTHALMOLOGY ANATOMY -1. 9. The normal pH of tears is: Maximum cones arc secn in: March 2005 a. 6.0 a. Limbus D. b.5 b. Fovea centralis c.7.0 c. Macula lutea d. Blind spot 10. Power of normal eye is: September2. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by: March 2005 a. +6D a. Third cranial nerve b. +10D b. Fourth cranial nerve c. +16D c. Fifth cranial nerve d. +60 D d. Sixth cranial nerve3. Axial length of eye ball is: Mnrclt 2005 OPHTHALMOLOCY PROCEDURES a. 16 mm 11. In direct ophthalmoscopy, image is magnified by: b. 20 mm March2ffiS c. 24 mm a. 5 times d. 28 mm b. 10 times4. 1mm change in the axial length of the eyeball c. i 5 times prodtrces a change in refractive index by: March 2a0S d. 20 times a. 1D 12. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy except : b. 2D March c. 3D a. Image is erect d. 4D b. Magnification is more than indirect5. Blind spot of Mariotte is also known as: March 2007 ophthalmoscopy a. Optic disc c. Wide area of fundus with least magnification ca"Ui b. Ora serrata seen in hypermetropics . c. Macula d. It has a large field of view. ,j d. Fovea6. Depth of anterior chamber of the eye: March 2007 13. Isochromatic charts are used fon March 2Mg,:. a. Contrast sensitivity : j a. 2-3 mm b. Testing colour vision b. 3-4 mm c. Visual fields charting c. 4-5 mm d. Visual acuity testing d. 5-6 mm 14. True regarding retinoscopy are all of the following7. If the length of eyeball increases by I mm. The net except: September21N; effect will be: September 2007 a. Helps in estimating the condition of the refraction "l a. Myopia of 6D b. Usually performed at 1 m distance l b. Hypermetropia of 6D c. Consists of a plane and a concave mirror c. Myopia of 3D d. Hyperopes display an,,against,, movement , d. Hypermetropia of 3D 15. Which of the following is the most reliable8. Eye structure with maximum refractive power: provocative test for angle closure glaucoma: .: March 20a7 SePtember 20il5 Anterior surface of lens a. Water drinking test b. Posterior surface of lens b. Mydriatic-miotic test r c. Anterior surface of cornea c. Homatropine mydriatic test A Posterior surface of cornea d. Dark room test
  • 78. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination15. Initial manoeuver done in congenital dacryocystitis: 22. All of the following drugs are associated with corneal Saptember 2007 deposition except: September 2009 a. Probing a. Chloroquine b. Massaging b. Amiodarone c. Ointments c. Quinacrine d. Antimony d. Observation CONJUNCTIVAOPHTHALMOLOGY PHARMACOLOGY 23. Herberts pit is seen in: September 200617. Which of the following is not an antiglaucoma drug: a. Vernal conjunctivitis September 2006 b. Atopic conjunctivitis a. Brimonidine c. Gonococcal conjunctir,itis b. Prednisolone d. Chlamydial conjunctivitis 24. Xerosis is seen in: Septentbcr 2006 c. Dorzolamide a. Vitamin A dcficiency cl. Timolol b. Vitamin B deficiency18. The drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis in c. Vitamin C deficiency HIV patients: Marclt 2007 d. Vitamin D deficiency a. Aryclovir 25. Arlts line is seen in: Marclr 2007 o ,Tl b. Ganciclovir a. Ophthalmia neonarorum b. Trachoma + !- c. Ribavarin d. Vidarabine c. Angular conjunctivitis ,,I !{19. Which of the following drug can be used topically in d. Vernal catarrh ;> 26. Conjunctival xerosis is seen in all of the following .l- eye: September 2007 except: March 2008 ;= a. b. Erythromycin Ganciclovir a. b. Steven-Johnson syndrome Keratoconjunctivitis sicca o :l- c. Clindamycin c. d. Vitamin A deficiency Sarcoidosis io rO d. Tetracyclines20. 1% atropine is givenin uveitis to: March 2010 27. Xerophthalmia can be caused by: March 2010 .< a. Steven-Johnsons).ndrome a. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of anterior b. Vitamin A deficiency slmecnlae c. Suifa drugs b. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior d. All of the above synechiae 28. Which of the following virus does not cause c. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posterior conjunctivitis: March 2010 slmechiae a. CMV d. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior b. Adenovirus synechiae c. Herpes simplex virus d. Picornavirus21. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except: 29. Trachoma can cause all of the following except: September 2006 March 2005 a. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma a. Loss of vision b" Malignant Glaucoma b. Clouding of the cornea c. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma c. Trichiasis d" Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma d. Enopthalmos
  • 79. Ophthalmotogy 30. Epithelial lining of conjunctiva is: It4arch 2009 38. Normal endothelial cell density a. Squamouskeratinized fper mm squarej in b. Pseudo-stratified cornea to maintain transparency is: Septenilter 2gg7r,,,i c. Cuboidai a. -100 d. Stratified non-keratinized b. 400 CORNEA c. 500 31. Diagnostic test for corneal ulcer: March 2005 cl. 600 a. rnethlzlgns blgg 39" Refractive index of cornea is: Septentber b. Sodium fluorescein dye 2|0(t7 7.28 c. Alcian l,.lue d. Rose Bengal 1.38 32. Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: hla,-ctt 20()5 1.48 a. Fuirgal keratitis 1.58 b. Congeniial svphilis 40. True about corneal opacity are all except: c. I)irlyctc.nular keratitis d" Trachorna a. Anttrior siaplll,ie*o has iris tissr_rc 33. Dendritic ulcer is seen in: nithin tire scar tissue Mnrclt 2005, 2()07 a. Fung;-rl keratitis b. Healing of a perforated cornealC,oJ, b. Clilamydial keratitis c. Herpes zoster keratitis formation of aclhe?ent leucoma c. A strictly ktcalized dense leucorna interfereso 34. d. Herpes simplex keratitis True about keratoconus are all of the following except: than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area. mcre d. Some opacities may persists despite destructionJ,= Septenfuer 2005 of a. Can be seen in Dortn,s syndrome Bowmans membranetF b. It manifests just after birih c. Munson sign is characteristic 41. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve:- d. Corneal transplantation is needed in severc. cases. September 20A8 :,!.,.o- 35. Corneal lesion seen in Hutchinson triad Trochlearo with congenital syphilis is: associated Septentber 2006 Trigeminai a. Disciform keratitis c Abducens b. Interstitial keratitis d Facial c. Phylectenular keratitis 42. Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except: d. Mooren ulcer 36. True about Fuchs endothelial dystrophy Mnrch 2aA9 are all except: Septenfuer 2006 Penetrati ng kera toplastl a. Cornmonly seen in the elderly female b b. Svmmetrical and unilateral condition c. c. Comea guttatae is characteristic d. Iratient tl,picallv complains of seeing ADebridement of the edges of the uicer halos in the morning 43. Acute corneal hydrops is seen in: Selttentber 200g 37" True about Moorens ulcer: Mnrch 2007 Cornael dystrophy a. Painless condition Anterior staphyloma b. Affects cornea Interstitial keartitis c. Sudden loss of vision d. Bilateral in majoritv of cases Keratoconus
  • 80. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination 51. Most serious complication seen in other eye after44. Nerve involved in exposure keratopathy: traumatic iniurY to one eYe: SePtenfuer 2009 Marclt 2005, SePtember 2008 a. Third cranial nerve a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage b. Fifth cranial nerve b. Corneal edema c. Seventh cranial nerve c. Sympathetic oPhthalmia d. Ninth cranial nerve d. Sudden loss of vision 52. Posterior staphyloma is seen in: September 200545. Cornea gets its nourishment mainly from: SePtentber 2009 a. MyoPia b. HypermetroPia a. AtmosPhere c. Astigtratrsm b. Aqueous humour d. PresbYoPia c. Vitrcous humotrr 53. Follorving anatomical changes predisposes to angle d. Corneal vessels Nlnrdt 2A()7 closure glaucoma excePt: 46. In Lone syndrome, all of the following are seen except: Sclttenrber 2407 a. Smali cornea a. Undescended testes in males b. Flat cornea b. Cataract c. Anterior chamber shallower O c. H;Pertonia d. Short axial length of eYebal , 3 d. Low IQ 54. Structure commonly involved in sympathetic , 47. Initial treatment for perforated corneal ulcer is: ophthalmia: Mnrch 2007 j March 2009 a. Cornea = ,> a. Conjuctival flaP grafting b. Lens i:l- b. Tissue adhesive glue c. Contact lens c. Optic nerve i= io d. Iris and ciliary bodY d. Local anesthetics drops instillation Which of the following is painless condition: Which of the following is not true regarding fungal 55. F 48. $nttmbt -" - Y r" " "- 2007 corneal ulcen March 2009 uveities O a. Anterior diffuse i< a. ConvexhypoPyon uveities b. Commonly perforates b. Anterior nodular c. Hyphate margins c. Posterior uveitis l d. Satellite lesions are seen d" IridocYclitis i 56. In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow of UVEAL TRACT AND CLAUCOMA due to the involvement of: aqueous humour mainly 49. Anterior uveitis is most commonly associated with: Seulenfuer 2007 March 2005 a. Canal of schlemm a. HLA DR4 b. HLA D27 c. HLA 84 b. Trabecular meshwork c. Iris tu d. Scleral venous Plexus d. HLA B 27 57. True about open angle glaucoma ale all except: 50. Definitive managenment in primary angle closure March 2008 glaucoma: Marclt 2005 a. Trabeculectomy a. Open anterior chamber angle b. Surgical iridectomY b. Frequcnt change in presbyopic correction c. Laser iridotomy c RaPid visi.-,n loss cl. Pilocarpine d. Cornrnonest form of glaucoma ,,,..ji
  • 81. Ophthalmology 58. True about angle recession glaucoma are all except: 65. Anterior uveitis is commonly associated with: September 2009 Septe-mber 20Ag a. ,tiosis is commonly seen a. Psoriasis b. iears of the iris sphincter and ciliary body b. Reactive arthritis c. Angle recession more than 1g0 degree c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Secondary open angle glaucoma d. All of the above 59. Which of the following is seen in iridodialysis: September 2009 LENS : a. Biocular diplopia 66. Which of the following subfypes of cataract is the ]i b. Degenerative condition most common cause of visual morbidity: Nlarch 2005 c. Iris is torn ar,t,ay from its ciliary attachment a. Senile d. Normal pupil b. Congenital 60. Prostaglandin used in the management of glaucoma: c. Traumatic cl. Drug toxicity Septeniber 2009 a. Bimatoprost 0.03% 67. Ideal site for intraocular lens implantation is: b. Travoprost0.004% March 2005, September 2006 & 2009 c. Latanoprost 0.005% a. Subcomeal(,, d. Ali of the above b. Capsular bag o,J 61. HLA testing aids in the diagnosis of which ocular c. Anterior to the pupiloi : affection: March 2010 d. Anterior chamberl:J.: a. Conjunctivitis b. Uveitis 68. Rosette shaped cataract a. Senile cataract in March 2005,2N7 |<: c. Retinitis b. Diabetic cataractE,r d. Viteous c. Traumatic cataractF.i 62. Neovascularhemorrhage is d. After cataractt:O-,. a. glaucoma CRVO caused by: March 201-0 69. What is the magnitude of magnification whenoj ,1 b. CRAO c. Diabetes mellitus refractive correction of aphakia is done with contact lens: September 2006 d. All of the above a. 1.-2"h 63. Very high intraocular pressure, vertically oval mid_ b. 8% dilated pupil and shallow anterior chamber is seen in: c. 20-30% d. More than 50% March 2A10 a. Primary open angle glaucoma 70. Most common cause of blindness in India is: b. Acute primary angle closure glaucoma September 2006 c. Malignant glaucoma a. Glaucoma d. Pupillary block glaucoma b. Cataract 64. Hundred day glaucoma is associated with: c. Trachoma d. Vitamin A deficiency September 2006 a. Neovascular glaucoma 71. Sunflower cataract is seen in: March, Septenrber 2007 b. CRAO a. Trauma c. CRVO b. Diabetes d. Steroid-related glaucoma c. Chalcosis d. HIV
  • 82. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination lentis is seen in all of the following except: 80. Correct statement regarding Coats disease:T2.Ectopia March 2007 March 2007 a. Marfans syndrome a. Unilateral |. Homocystinuria b. Presents in fourth to fifth deacde c. Weil-Marchesanislmdrome c. Sudden loss of vision d. Down s1ndrome d. Hereditary in nafure73. Most common cause of cataract is: March 2007 81. Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy: a. Trauma September 2005,2010 March 2007 b. DM a. Hard exudate c. Age related b. Soft exudate d. HereditarY c. Ambylopia t!74, Which of the following is most irnportant factor for d. Microaneurysm refractive en:ors: Mnrch 2007 in: LLnrclt 2007 82. Roths spot are seen a. Lens a. SABE b. Vitreous hemorrhage b. Trauma c. Aqueous humour c. Hypertension d. Axial eyeball length d. Trachoma75. In extra-capsular cataract surgery [ECCE], which part 83. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in: March 2007 ro of the lens is excised: September 2008 a. HIV ]T a. Anterior capsule b. Diabetes Mellitus i- b. Posterior capsule 1{ c. Nucleus c. Hypertension ;I d. ltrhole lens d. All of the above i> Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of l-76. Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008 84. ti a. Hypertension retinal detachment: March 2008 ;= b. Adult diabetes a. Feeling of curtain obscuring their field of vision :o f c. Trauma b. Fioaters :,: d. fuvenile diabetes c. Photopsia io77. Intumescent cataract is associated with which fype of d. Fall in visual acuity ;o glaucoma: September 2009 85. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in: Septemher 2008 ,:< a. Phacolytic glaucoma a. CRVO t b. Phacomorphinc glaucoma b. Diabetic retinoPat c. Phacotopic glaucoma c. Hypertensive retinoPathY i d. Pseudophakic glaucoma d. Ocular ischemic syndrome .:: 78. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of: 86. Most common eye pathology in toxoplasma infection ri March 2009 is: Marclt 2009 a. Fructose a. Corneal ulcer b. Galactose b. Retinochoroiditis c. Glucose c. Uveitis d. Sorbitol d. Cataract RETINA 87. Chodoretinitis is commonly caused by all of the Following excePt: March 2009 79. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in: March 2005 a. Myopia a. CryPtococcosis b. DM retinopathy b. Onchocerciasis c. Trauma c. Cytomegalovims infection d. Vitreous loss after Surgery d. Toxoplasmosis
  • 83. Ophthalmology 88. True regarding photoretinitis are all of the following 95. Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is seen except: Marclt 2009 in: c-.-a-. , Septentlser a. No effective treatment a. Retinitispigmentosa b. Caused by ultravio)et rays b. Trauma c. Caused by infrared rays c. Retinoblastoma d. Complete recovery is possible d" Neuroblastoma 89. Retinal tear is associated with which degeneration: 96. Most common malignant eyelid tumour is: March 201A September 2@ a. Equatorial drusen a. Melanoma b. Reticular pigmeniary degeneration b. Retinoblastoma c. Paving stone degeneration c. Neuroblasroma d. Lattice retjnal degeneration d. Basal cell carcinoma 90. All of the following are seen in retinitis pigmentosa 97. All of the following childhood tumours cause except: Septetrher 2009 proptosis except: Septentber 200g a. Prominent retinal vessels a. Iletinoblastoma b. Ring scotoma b. Metastatic neuroblastoma c. Rhabdomyoru..oriuo c. Pigmentation around the retinal veinsoJ 91. d. Pale disc Vision loss in HIV is commonly due to infection with: 98. d. Leukemia White pupillary reflex is seen in:o March 2005 a. Retrolental fibroplasia b. Complete retinal detachment a. Herpes virusJ= b. Toxocara c. Retinoblastoma c. Toxoplasma d. All of the aboveIF d. Cytomegalovirus MISCELLANEOUSI- 92. The superficial retinal hemorrhage is seen in which 99. Which of the following is the most common cause ofo- layer of retina: vitreous hemorrhage in young individuals:o a. Inner plexifonn layer Mnrch 2070 It4a r ch, S ep t en tb er 2ffi5 b. Nerve fibre layer a. Trauma c. Inner nuclear layer b. H1pertension d. Outer nuclear layer c. Eales disease 93. Photoretinitis is due to: March 2010 d. Diabetes a. Visible rays 100. Scleritis is most commonly associated with: b. Infrared rays March 2ffi5 , c. Ultraviolet rays a. Diabetes d. All of tire above b. Osteoarthritis OPHTHAL ONCOLOCY c. Rheumatoidarthritis d. Hvpertension 94. Lisch nodules are seen in: March 2009 101" tight reflex is carried through: March 2005 a. Retinoblastoma b. a. Cranial nene Vl Neurofibromatosis c. Retiniitis pigmentosa b. Cranial nerve VII c. Cranial nerve V d. Neuroblastoma d. Cranial nerve II
  • 84. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination€1iii. 1L0. Oculocardiac reflex is seen in which surgery: :; used to manage fiLlaser "U"t:",::Tl September March 2005, 2009 Mnrch 2007 1.,,", u. Excimer laser, a. Cataract surgery .,. b. Argon green laser b. Strabismus surgery ,:.:,i:. c. Diode laser c. Ventricular Septemberal Defect surgery ,;.:r, d. Nd:YAG laser September 2005 d. Valvular surgery Lens used to treat astigmatism: 103. 111. Type of squint seen with 6th cranial nerve palsy: a. Concave lens March 2007 ,, b. it. c. SPhericallens Convex lens a. Crossed diPloPia d. Cylindrical lens b. Uncrossed diPloPia 104. All of the following are seen in Hornels syndrome c. ertical diPloPia Septembcr 2005, March 2007 excePt: d. No diPloPia a. Enophthalmos 112. |et-black spots in the retina are seen in: b. Hypelhvdrosis ScPtember 2008 c. Miosis d. a. Retinoblastoma Ptosis 105. Constriction of pupils is seen in: Septenfuer 2005 b. DiabeticretinoPathY o a. OnlY light reflex c. Retinitis Pigmentosa + .-o b. light reflex and accommodation reflex :,- d. HYPertensiveretinoPathY r{ c. AtroPine medication L13. -SAFE strategy for control of trachoma; S-stands f I d. AII of the above 106. Laser used in LASIK for correcting myopia: for: SePtember2|?> Septenrber 2005, March 2007 I 2009 a. safety i= a. Excimer b. Solutions iO b. Xenon c. Surgery ir c. d. Nd:Yag None of the above d. Side-effects io 114. Early ocular sign of herpes zoster: March 2009 i,Q) 107. True statement regarding myopia: September 2006 :4! a. Parallel rays comes to focus posterior to the retina a. Punctate keratitis ,:. b. Parallel rays comes to focus anterior to the retina b. follicularkeratitis c. An abnormal shortness of the axial iength of the c. dendritic ulcer eye d. vesicles on eYelids d. Newborns eYe is mYoPic 115. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in the lesion of: 108. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual Marclt 2009 indicates: March 2007, Septenrber 2009 a. Lateral geniculate bodY a. Eales disease b. Glaucoma b. OPtic nerve c. Chorioretinitis c. OPtic chiasma d. Coats disease d. OPtic tract 109. For preventing Retinopathy of Prematurity, 116" Synchisis scintillans means: concentration of oxYgen should be: March 2007 a. Vitreous detachment a. 20-30% b" Liquefaction of vitreous b. 30-40% c. Adhesion of iris c. 50-60% d. Vitreous hemorrhage d. 60-70%
  • 85. Ophthalmology 117. Which of the following is not a cause of 124.True regarding amaurosis fugax are all except: .:, l-rypermetropia: Septenrber 2009 M^nrch2g1g:, a. Short axial length of the e1eball a. transient and recurrent episodes of -,isual ktss ,.,. b. Flat cornea b. Binocular lesion c. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens c. Emblous from the carotid artery is the commonest d. Anterior dislocation of the lens cause t. According to WHO, blindness is defined d.Ocular examination may be normal as: 125. Amongst the following causes of blindness, one September 2009,2010 which is less common in India: March2A16"1, a. Visual acuity of less than 1/60 a. Trachorna b. Visual acuity of less than 3/60 b. Diabeticretinopathy c. Visual acrrity cf less than 6/60 c. Onchocerciasis d. /isrial acuity of less than 6/18 d. Refractive errors 119. The terrn ankyloblepharon means: Scpterrtl,cr 2009 126. A pupil responds to accomodation but light reflex is a. Smaller appearing palpebral fissure absent. It is known as: March2()05 b. Inconrplete closure of palpebral aperture 4/hen a. Adies pupil eyes are shut b. Hutchinson pupilo c. Adhcsions of the margins of the two lids c. Argyll RobertsonlupiloJ d. Eversion o{ the lid margin d.None of the above 127. Muscle to be affected commonly in thyroido 120. Keratoconus is seen a. Patau syndrome in: March 2010 ophthalmopathy is: a. Superior recfusJ= b. Down syndrome b. Inferior rectus c. Turner syndrome c. Superior obliqueI d. ,Veber syndrome d. Inferior obliqueFT 121. To check power of IOL, which formula is commonly 20j,0 128. Hypervitaminosis following except: A manifests as all of the 2MIL used: March Scptenrbero a. Hoffer formula a. b. Alopecia Anorexia b. Holladay formula c. SRK formula c. Pseudofumor cerebri d. None of the above d. Peripheral neuritis 129. Best for correcting 15 degree esotropia in a 5 year .;: L22.^kue about paralytic squint is: March 2010 old child is: September 2N711 a. Uniocular diplopia a. Refraction testing under atropine followed by full;j; b. Binocular diplopia correctlon c. The person cannot use the two eyes together b" Surgical correction d. Diminished visual acuity c. Occlusive patches 123. Hemorrhage in vitreous humour is caused by all of d. Ocular exercises the following except: March 2010 130. Afferent pathway for pupillary light reflex is: a. Diabetes meliitus SePtembet 2N7 b. CRVO a. Oplic nene c. Glaucoma b. Oculomotor nerve c. Trigeminal nerve d. Trauma d. Ciliary nerve
  • 86. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination Angiod streaks are seen in which of the following: c. Removal of the eyeball along with extraocular131. March 2009 muscles a. Tendinous xanthoma d. Ilemoval of the eyebail along with extraocular muscles and part of skuli b. Pseudoxanthomaelasticum c. Xanthelesma 136. Peribulbar injection is given in: Septentber 2009 d. Eruptive xanthoma a. Anterior chamberf2. Which of the following is not seen in papilledema: b. Subtenon space March 2009 c. Periorbital space a. Marked venous engorgement d. Subperiorbitalspace b. Elevation of optic disc 137. Common cause of sudden blindness in a young c. Cotton wool sPots diabetic female is: September 2009,201.0 d. Prominent oPtic disc margins a. Glaucoma133. Blue Sclera is associated with: Mnrch 2009 b. Vitreous defects a. OsteogenesisimPerfecta c. PaPilledema b. Marfans s1ndrome d. Cataract c. AlkaPtonuria 138. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets ail 3 d.All of the above except: SEtember 2009134. Which of the following is a cause of sudden a. Cataract blindness in a quiet eye with a normal media and b. Trachoma funcius: September 2009 c. Epidemicconjunctivitis a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis d. Onchocerciasis b. Vitreous hemorrhage L39.Which of the following orbital structure is involved c. Iridocyclitis in blow out fracture of the skull: March 2010 d. All of the above a. Lateral wall 135. The term enucleation means: September 2009 b. Medial wall a. Removal of eyebail contents c. Roof b. Removal of eyeball along with a portion of optic d. Fioor nerve
  • 87. SELF ASSESSIVIENTC ,,1.:.,?" .a. . ,li*ia .t; i*rrt** :zffil Ew.oiirrrc E/Mcr scREEN rNG rfnrwNffi GENERAL MEDICINE (Questions)HEMATOLOCY 9. Which of the followine is not a side effect of blood1 In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are true transfusion: Septenfuer 2009 except: Mnrclr 2005 a. Hypokalemia a. Bone marrow hyperplasia b. Hypomagnesernia b Reticulocytosis c. Hypocalcemia c. Increased unconjugated bilirubin d. Iron overload d. Increased hapioglobulin CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM Most common form of shock is: March 2005 10. Most irnportant factor determining rnyocardial Oz a. Hypovolemic shock consumptron: March 2005 b. Cardiogenic shock a. Mvocardial fibre tension c. Neurcgenic shock b. Cardiac outprit d. Sep;icemic shock c. Blood v,)lume i)ialysis is not effective in: hlarclt 2045 C. Heart rate a. SalicrLatepoisoning 11. Which of the following is not a cause of Cor b. Digoxin poisoning pulmonale: March 20A5 c. Barbjturate poisoning a. lntermittent pulmonary embolism d. Methanol poisoning b. Kyphoscoliosis +4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is associated c. COPD with: March 2005 d. Mitral stenosis a. Diabetes lvlellitus 1.2. Dresslels syndrome is due to: March 2005 b. Vitamin 812 deficiency a. Cor pulmonale c. Hemolytic uremic syndrome b. Mitral stenosis d. All of the above c. Myocardial infarctioni. In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows: d. Pulmcronary embolism March 2405 13. A -wave in fVP indicates: Marclt 2005 a, Increased FIbF and normal FIbA2 a. Atrial relaxation b. Normal HbF and normal HbA2 b. Atrial contraction c. Normal HbF and decreased FIbA2 c. Bulging of tricuspid valve into right atrium d. Decreased FIbF and normal FIbA2 d. Ventricular contraction6. Not a feature of hereditary Spherocytosis: March 2007 14. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in : a. Autosomal dominant lvlarch 2005 b. lncreased RBC surfaee area a. Normal individuals c. Increased MCHC b. Left bundle branch block d. Normal or decreased 4CV c. ASD7. Causes of megaloblastic anaemia are all except: d. VSD March 2007 15. Most important in aetiology of coronary artery disease a. Hemodiaiysis ls: Mnrclt 2005 b. Amlodipine a. VLDL c. Fish tapeworm infestation b. LDL d. Blindloop syndrome c. HDL8. First investigation to be done in a patient with d. All of the above thrombocytopenia: September 2008 16.1AA"/o Oxygen is not effective in; Nldrch 2005 a. Platelet count a. Pulmonary edema b. Bleeding time b. MI c. Prothrombin time c. Tetralogy of fallot d. aPTT d. COPD
  • 88. General Medicine of a 6 year old 25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all except .J rz. True regarding secondary prophylaxis , .rl:tl:. child with carditis is: Mnrch 2005 September lQQ5 a. Aortic stenosis b. Duration of prophylaxis is till tA y"ears b. Chronic cor pulmonale c. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onset . c. Chronic kidney disease . ,. d. Duration of prophllaxis is till 25 years of age:rj:i::; -:! : r:,!i*;: d. Essential hypertension.;;ii li1i,. 18. Severity L mitral stenosis is determined by: ro revcrrrY of . .j,rii,-:1. March 2005 26. Malignant hypertension can lead to all of the ,^:t : : a. lntensity of Sl heart sound following except: MarchZMi b. Diastolic murmur duration a. Hypertensive retinopathy c. Opening snap b. Respiratory failure d. Intensity of diastolic murmur c. Renal failure elevation is seen in: 19. ST segment Septtentber 2005 d. Flemolvtic blood picture a. Prinzmetals angina 27.ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include: b. Acute pericarditis March 2AA7 c. Acute MI LlJ d. All of the above a. Absence of P rvaves 7 z}.Continuous murmur is found in which arterial h lrreqrlrritv nf R-f{ intCryal 3 disease: SePtcmber 2005 c. Tall P t,aves O 7i a. Atherosclerosis d. None of the above ]|i b. Dissecting aortic aneurysm 28. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration c. Arteriovenous Frsruia after myocardial infarction: March lt:j1 = d. Thromboangitis obliterans rl,-l = J a. First week ..:.lt zt.Swan Ganz Cuih"te. is used to measure: ;.:i b. Second week tv a. Mean arterial pressure c. Third week iii d. Fourthlveek b. Cardiac output iii c. Blood volume 29. Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the = fi d. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure murmur of: lY4arch 2M7 - 2z.Which of the following is seen in a patient with a. Mitral regurgitation ,; tricuspidlncompetence: Septenfuer 2005 b. Pulmonary regurgitation .r a. Hepatic pulsafion c. Tricuspid stenosis ri b" A wave in ]VP d. Mitral stenosis :, .. Mid diastolic murmur l. 30. Largeawaves in |VP represents: March2007 d. Normal cardiac output a.- Complete heart block ,,, 23" Pulsus bisferiens occurs in: September 2005 . a. HOCM b. 1t degree A-V blocki : bAR c. Sinus bradycardiai .i . t.. c. ASandAR d. Tachycardiai .- d. All of the above 3l-. Acute anginal attack can be terminated by:g, ,,. 24. Most common feature of essential hypertension:i ;; , SePtentber 2ffi7 September 2005 l a. Nitroglycerin.,,.;1: f l1,.ii:,,.1i a. Visual disturbances ;11 . "^. :" b. Digoxin::i:l:, ::, ;tri:.; .l b. Headache c. Palpitations c. L,ignocaine riil d. Dizziness d. Verapamil .t;i:, riii
  • 89. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination32. Carotid sinus massage will terminate: 39. A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest pain. On auscultation, she had multiple non-ejection March 2005, September 2007 clicks. Investigation of choice would be: a. Atrial fiutter. September 2008 b. Atrial fibirillation a. Serum markers c. Supraventiculararrythmia b. Chest X-ray d. Suprventicular tachycardia c. Electrocardiography33. Which of the following is the most common d. Echocardiography arrhythmia: September 2007 40. False regarding Austin-Flint murmur is: March 2009 a. Systolic murmur a. Inappropriate sinr.rs tachycardia b. Severe aortic regurgitation b. Junctional Preniafure complexes c. Origtrates at anterior mitral valve leaflet c. Atrial fibrillation d. N4av be confused Murmur of mitral stenosis "vith d. Atrial flutter 41. A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations.34. Pacemaker is indicated in which of the folloning On examination there was a non eiection click. Next investigation is: Marclt 2009 condition: September 2407 ^ A--:^^---L-, d, nr 15rv6r ayr rJv i; a. Acute myocardial infarction nith first degree AV b. io ir: Chest X-ray block c. Electrocardiography b. Acute myocardial infarction with fascicular block d. Echocardiography #m c. Sick sinus syndrome 42. Austin flint murmur is a: Septenher 2009 &z $m d. All of the above a. Pansystolic murmur b. Midsystolic murmur in35. Indication for aortic stenting is: March 2008 c. Middiatolic murmur {> a. Acute aortic occlusion d. Confinuous murmur $r b. Aortic dissection 43. Dyspncrea at rest is which a. I grade: Septenfuer 2009 I= c. Rheumatic aortitis $m d. Tetralogy of fallot b.2 *El :-36. One of the main disadvantage of stenting is: c.3 d.4 io March 2008 44. Murmur heard in aortic regurgitation is: &z a. Elastic recoil Seotenfuer 2009 *m b. Late stent thrombosis a. Continuous murmur c. Restenosis b. Austin flint murmur d. Less efficacy in bifurcation lesions c. Crescendo-decrescendo d. Graham Steeles Murmur37" Preferred biochemical markers in patients presenting 45. Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by: with myocardial infarction September 2008 Swtember 2009 a. Myoglobin a. Chest X-ray b. Cardiac specific Troponins b. Echocardiography c. CK-MB c. ECG d. All of the above d. Angiography 45. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension includes all 38.Split first heart sound is heard in Septenrber 2008 a. Mitral stenosis except: March 2014 b. Left bundle branch block a. High salt and fluid intake c. Complete right bundle branch block b. Physical countermaneuvers d. Pulmonary hypertension c. Dopamine d. Fludricortisone
  • 90. General Medicine-it 47. A patient presented with shock with pump failure. 54. True statement regarding oliguria: March;;r...-.:: Ideal management would be: Septenfucr 2006 a. Urine formation less than 50 mli24 hours::ir,rtl:: ::l:::l: a. Intra-aortic ballooning b. Urine formation less than 250 mL/24 hours b. Intracardiac adrenaline c. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hours c. Rapiddigitalization d. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours d. Dopamile 55. Hemodialysis related complications are all of the .:i 48. Most common valvular lesion after myocardial following except: September 2ffitji infarction is: September 2008 a. Altered cardiovasculardynamics a. MR b. Anaphylactoid reaction b. AR c. Hypertension c. AS d. Muscie cramps ,J Scnicrr,hrr;rl dofect 56. Most common cause of death in a patient rvith chronic 49" A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in renal failure on clailysis: Mnrclt2tV shock.The reason is: Septenfucr 20UE a. Uraemia a. Right ventricular infarction b. InfectionlTJ b. Tr{itral rtgurgitation c. Cardiovascular disease i. c. Infarction causing septal defect d. respirator), failure *I=o :: d. ,,:: 50. AU Decreased eiection fraction from left ventricle of the following can lead to sudden death except: 57. Renal artery stenosis is not associated with: March2Wul :i ^ September 2008 a. Marfans s)ndrome : :l a. Massive MI b. atherosclerosis=J . b. Atrial flutter c. polyarteritisnodosa c. Ventricular fibrillation d. takayasu arteritist ,: d. Massive pulmonary emboli 58. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for:UJz t?UJ 51. Pulsus alternans is seen a. MS with MR in: March 2009 a. Antiphospholipid syndrome Scptenber 20[E ; b. Goodpastures syndromeo ii u. AS with AR t c. Left ventricular failure c. Renal amyloidosis , d. Digitalis poisoning d. Diabetic nephropathy .! EXCRETORY SYSTEM 59. To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive ai test is: March 2010 !i 52. Syndrome characterized.by proteinuria, hematuria j a. Regular blood sugar estimation i and hypertension: March 2007 ,t a. Nephrotic svndrome b. Blood urea nitrogen .n c. Microalbuminuria ,,r.i b. Acute nephritis - d. Serum creatinine test c. D ^- ^t cell carcinoma Renal -^ll ,.,-r.it;i: CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT - d. Nephroclacinosis Neplrroclacinosis 60. Best marker to assess prognosis after Surgery for colon "ti ss.Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by all of theliiiali{ r^u^--ihd except: carcinoma: March2A05 :i following 6v.6n+. h,toreh )oo) March 2008. - l: a. CA19-9jjffi!il::::::..i1 a. T^-_: ^jL_ of llithium - ToxicitY ^a jrl b" cA-125:ll!:i :r ::i :: : b Amvloidosis U. c. Alpha fetoprotein c. Hvpocalcemia d. CEA . .: d. Hypokalemra
  • 91. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination61, Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by all of the 68. Enzyrne specificaily raised in chronic alcoholics: following except: March 2005 Setttember 20A9 a. Reduction in creatinine clearance a. Camma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) b. Managed effectively by renal vasodilating agents. b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) c. Proteinuria less than 500 mg/d d. Normal intrinsic kidney c. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) d. Ratio of AST: ALTf2. Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in: a. 1 -2 rveek March 2005 59. Hepatosplenomegaly is not seen in: March 2010 b. 2 -3week a. lvlalaria c. 3-4 week b. Lymphorna d. 4-5rveek c. Sickle cell disease63.45 year cld rnan complaining of vomiting Vomitus d. Kala azar consist of food mass taken few days back,foul INFECTIOUS DISEASES smelling breath and occasional dysphagia to solid 70. Spirochaetes can be identified by : food. Diagnosis is: March 2005 NInrch 2005 a. Achalasia cardia b. Diabetic gastroparesis a. Levaditi stain c. Scieroderma b. Fontana stain 3 .O d. Zenkers diverticulum c. Gram stain :rfl64. True about hepatitis E are all except: d. Dark field microscopy ,4 ,t, q t September 2005,2010 71. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV:-4^^+:^.. Inlectron ,^. .,7t a. Transmitted by faeco-oral route nl"d2005 D b. Majority of patients develops chronic infection a. seizures c. Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single b. Dementia i- .: S stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus. c. Focal neurologic uecrrs deficits d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in d. stroke ig pregnancy 72.Post exposure prophylaxis [PEP] for HIV should be65. All of the following are features of Obstructive ,i6 jaundice except: given for a minimum period of: March 2005 :.f Seyttember 2007 a. Normal alkaline phosphatase a. 4 r,veeks b" Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases level b. 6 weeks ifn c. Clay colour stools c" 8 weeks j d. Pruritis d. 10 weeks ;f6. All are the features of carcinoid syndrome except: 73. Bacteria causing vomiting and diarrhea within 6 hours Septenfuer 2007 of food intake is: March 2005 a. Aheezing a. Clostridium perfringens ; b. Diarrhea b. Salmoneila spp. c. Acute appendicitis c. Vibrio cholerae d. Flushing d. Staphylococci aureus57. An young man is brought to casualty with history of 74. Not a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis: hematemesis.There is mild splenomegaly on Marclt 2005 examination. Cause of bleeding is: March 2009 a. Gastritis a. Lupus vulgaris b. Oesophageal varices b. Scrofuloderma c. Tumour c. Exanthematouslesion d, Leukaemia d. Ervthema migrans
  • 92. General Medicine 81. Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent mother to child HIV transmission: March2A0i a. SlrePtococcus a. Didanosine -,...- ,t..,,, .l- b. H.influenzae b. Nevirapine r1 ,.,". c. Pneumocystii c. Acyclovirr:. 1 ::l-:,.,: ;- i : , . d. Nelfinavir:;1;;i;$:;-l;: d. All of the above 82. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if 76. Chest X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated withi: :,..ia.,.i prophylaxis is given: March 2ffi7 lt ., HIV are all except: September 2005 a. 1"/o : rrl:; a. Disseminatedhrberculosis |.::l]i b. 2% b. Lupus vulgaris c. 3n/" c. Pleural effusion d. 1% d. Hilar lymphadenopathy 83. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if no TT.Drugused to treat Cryptococcal meningitis is: prophylaxis is given: March20()I March 2007 a. 25% [U r, Z,) a. Pentostatin b. 50% c. 75% 6 i b AmPhotericin B 7i c. Zidovudine d. 100% lJi IIJ t d Clotrimazole 84. True regarding sialadenitis in AIDS are all except: Septembu 2W ! f,: ZS. Which of the following is not true about Mumps: a. May present as Sjogrens sl.ndrome J ii March 2007 { ,, a. Caused by paramyxovirus b. Unilateral parotid enlargement is common (v. c. Non tender enlargement of salivary gland b. lncubation period is less than 14 days = " IIJ.: c. Orchitis is a common complication in males d. May present as xerostomia 2 ,, 85. Not seen in dengue: Mnrch201A lll ii d. Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in a. Hemorrhagic tendencies or, children b. High grade fever i: zs. Whicn of the following is best for diagnosing typhoid c. Circulatory problem t" the first week: Marclr 2007 d. i Hepato-splenomegaly a. Stool culture 85. Symptoms of secondary syphilis are all except: ;u U. Blood culture March2010 ..- C. Urlne Culrure .. .; a. Localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesion b. Generalized and tender lymphadenopathy c. Self resolving d. Condyloma lata is seen a. Common site is right posterosuperior part of liver 87. Which infection is common after organ i , ii ,, I b. Alcoholics are susceptible to develop amoebic liver abscess transplantation: a. Pneumocystii March2010 c. Anchovy sauce pus b. Nocardia d. Fever is the most .ommon sign c. Cvtomegalovirus d. Toxoplasma
  • 93. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening ExaminationENDOCRINOLOCY 95. Pheochromocytoma predorninantly secretes which88. Pretibial myxedema is seen in: March 2005 hormone: Seotenfuer 2AA7 a. Papillary Ca thyroid a. Serotonin b. Follicular Ca thyroid b. Epinephrine c. Thyrotoxicosis c. Nor-epinephrine d. Myxedema d. Dopamine Long term control of diabetes is assessed by: 96. Excessive insulin levels are associated with:89. September 2007, 2009 March 2005 a. Randomblood sugar a. Diabetes mellirus b. Microalbuminuria/creatinine ratio b. Pancreatic cancer c. Zollinger-eliisonsVndrorne c. F{bA2 d. Pheochromocytoma d. F{bA1C 97. I{hich of the following is seen in Conns syndrome:90. All of the following are features of hypothyroidism Septentber 2007 except: Septentber 2005 a. Water retention a. Dry skin b. Hypernatremia b. Bradycardia c. Hyperkalemia : o c. d. Edema m d. Myxedema Lid retraction 98. Diffuse hyperpigmentation is seen in all except: : : z m91. Complications in Diabetics mellitus type around: -II occu(s Septentuer 2405 a. Addisons disease Septenber 2007 i; n a. 5 years of onset b. Cushings s)ndrome l- b. 10 years of onset c. Pcrphyria cutanea tarda c. 15 years of onset d. Phenl{ketonuria = ]7I d. 20 years of onset 99. All of the following are features of hyperthyroidism g92" HbIAC indicates blood glucose level in the previous: except: September 2007 : a. Rise in BMR Q March 2047 b. Delayed deep tendon reflexes rl :r z i rl a. 1 week b. 2 week c. Weight loss c. 3 week d.Moist skin j: ):, d. 8 week 100. All of the following are true regarding primary r93. Pheochromocytoma is a feature of all of the following hyperparathyroidism except: September 2007 ::, except: a. Hypocalcemia september 2oo7 a. MEN I syndrome b. Hypophosphatemia c. More than half of the patients are asymptomatic b. MEN lI syndrome d. Parathyroid adenoma is the commonest cause c" Neurofibromatosis lype I 101. A patient of tuberculosis presented with low levels d. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome of sodium,chloride and bicarbonate. He also had94" Pheochromocytoma is characterized by: hyperpigmentation of palmar creases. Most September 2007 probable diagnosis is: Septenfuer 2008 a. Headache a. Cushings syndrorne b. Paroxysmal hypertension b. Addisons disease c. Profuse sweating c. Primaryhyperaldosteronism d. All of ttre above d. SecondarvhvBeraldosteronism
  • 94. General Medicine 102. Which of the following plays an important role in 109. Investigation of choice for diagnosing primary i tlre treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: NInrch 2009 hypothyroidism: Mttrch 2007, Septentber 2Q4g a. Norrnal saline a. Decreased free T3 b, Bicarbonate b. Decreased free T4 c. Potassium c. Elevated TSH ir,; d. Insulin d. Anti-TPO antibodies 1]1;, fOS. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism: 110. Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is: i*{ i.,iil March 2009 September 2@; i: u. Carcinoma a. Cranialneuropathies n. I1vpcrPlasia b. Radiculopatlries .: c. Adenoma c. Sensorimotorpollneuropathy d. Familial isolated hyperparathi,roidism d. Lirnbmononeuropathies 104. lVeight gain is seen in all of the following except: 111. Regrading typhoid ulcer, all of the following are Ir4nrch 2009 true except: March 2A0S PhactchromocYtomaUJ : a. Perforation is commonZ h. Hvootlrvroidism b. Obstruction results due to stricture formalionn c. lnsulinoma c. Bleeding is usudlA d. Cushings syndrome d. Ileum is the common sitel-f= 105. Not seen in cushings s)ndrome: March 2009 112. True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non a. Hypertensione= b. weighr gain ketotic hyperglycemia is: Septenrber 2ffi5J c. Hirsutis a. No change ci. Hypogiycemia b. Mild elevation# c. Moderate elevationfi tOo. All of the following are seen in acromegaly except: d. Severely elevated2:; March 2009 Primary causes of non-inflammatory edema includeIIJi a. Diabetes mellitus 113.O .i b. Enlarged nose all of the following except: September 2ffi9 rr c" Increased heel pad thickness a. Increasedintravascularpressure 1 d. Muscle hypertrophy b. Decreasedvascularpermeability : tOZ. Not true about congenital hypothyroidism: c. Obstruction of lymphatics t: :: March 2009 d. Reduced plasma colloid oncotic pressure a. Males more often affected" METABOLIC AND NUTRITIONAL DISORDERS b. No signs at birth 114, Tetany is not seen in: L4arch 2005 c. Occurs due to antibodies against thyroid a. Malabsorption peroxisomes b. Hyperventilation d. in 1:4000 live births Seen c. Antiestrogentherapy 108. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in India: d" Thyroid Surgery September 2009 1L5. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in: March20A5 a. Iatrogenic a. Lactic acidosis b. Pituitarv tumours b. Cholera c. Iodine deficiency c. DKA d. Hashimotos disease d. Uremia
  • 95. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination r{:ilL5. pH=7.28, P aCO2=70, Condition is 124. Features of T wave in ECG of hypokalemia patients consistent with: Mnrch 2005 are all except: Septtcnfuer 2009 a. Metabolic acidosis a. Elevated T wa.:ir b. Metabolic alkalosis b. Inverted T wave c. Respiratorlacidosis c. Fiat T wave d. Respiratory alkalosis d" Bigeminal T wave117. Hypocalcemia with hypophosphatemia is seen in: 125. Anion gap is increased in all except: September 2009 September 2006 a. Crush injurY a. Ureterostomy b. Rhabdomyolysis b. Ethylene glvcol c. Vitamin D dependent rickets-Il c. Methylene glycol d. Renal failure d. Diabeticketoacidosis118. All of the following are used in the management of 126. The ECG in hyperkalemia classically shous: hyperkalemia except: lv[arclt 20{J7 ScPtember 2009 2010 a. Calciurn gluconate a. lncrease QRS duration b. Sodir.rmbicarbonate b. Shortened PR interval o c. I.V. infusion with glucose and insulin c. Prominent U r.vaves t jnl d. I.V. KCI intusion d. Increased R wave amplitude ,2119. Not seen in hyponatremia: Marclt 2009 [Tl a. Nausea 127. Which of the following is not associated with zinc Mnrch 2005 v . b. Delusion deficiency: 1> c.Vomiting a. Delayed wound healing ,l- d. Anorexia b. Loss of libido :,=120. Neurological manifestations of water intoxication c. Pigmentation Jll are all of the following except: a. March 2009 d. Sexual infantilism 9 b. Headache Confusion NEUROLOCY :o .- 128. Not seen in case of hemorrhage in MCA tertitory: :.2 c. hrcreased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage Mnrch 2005 j 111 d. ConvulsionsL21. Normal anionic gap is seen in: March 2009 a. Contralateralhemiplegia a. Lactic acidosis b. Aphasia b. Diarrhea c. Dysarthria c. Ketoacidosis d. Urinary incontinence d. Methanol poisoning 1,29. Brain death is defined as loss of: March 2005122" Incteased plasma concentration of calcium is a. Withdrawl reflex associated with: March 2009 b. Brain stem functions a. Rickets c. Cortical functions b. Osteomalacia d. Spinal reflex c. Primaryhyperparathyroidism 1.30. Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism SePtenrber 2005 123. Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia: September 2009 a. Absent T waves a" Profouund sensory loss D. b I elevatlon b" loss of limb reflex c. Flat T waves. c. Residual paralysis d. Prominent lJ wave d. Descendingparalysis
  • 96. General Medicine 131. Spike and Dome pattern is seen in: Marclt 2007 138. Most common cause for meningitis in adults: a. Petitmai seizures b. Grandmal seizures a. H.Influenzae c. Cionic seizures b. N.meningitidis d. Myoclonic seizures c -- S+rnh "* - *" "*t-." rrrrpriq 132. An upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve will ri . ..-.r.. ------ Strentoe^..r ri pneumonlae cause: Mttrch €t S ept ember, 2007 L39. Kernigs sign is seen in: September a. Paralysis of the lower half of face on the same side a. /iral encephalitis b. Paralysis of the louer half of face on the opposite side b. Pyogenic meningitis c. Paralysis of the upper half of face on the same side c. Brain abscess cl. Paral-rsis of the upper half of face on the opposite side d. All of the above 133. Argvll-Robertson pupil is seen in: Mtrclt 2009 140. Flapping tremor is seen in all except: l4nrch 20AS a. Horners syndrome a. lVilscur disease b. Retrobulbar optic neuritis b. ThirotoYicos s c. Diabetes c. Uraemia IIJ . d.Neurosyphiiis d. CO: narcosis 134. CSF findings in Tubercular meningitis: Marclr 2009 141. Bilaterally pinpoint ptrpil, hyperpyrexia and loss of =. 9 a. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased consciousness is suggestive of: March 2ffi5 o. lymphocytes b. Increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased a. Subarchnoid henrorrhage : IJJ i b. Cerebral infarction lvmphocytes c. Pontine hemorrhagc =t J,, c. Increased glucose, increased proteins, increased lvmphocytes d. None {,. d. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased 142. Dominant parietal lobe injury leads to all of the E:. UJ . iymphocytes following except: March 2ffi5 Z;: 135. Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage a. Agnosia ul,: is: March 2009 b. Dvsphasia O.r a. Rupture of bridging veins c. Dyscalculia b. Saccular aneurysm rupture d. Urinaryincontinence c. Hypertension 143. Most common cause of intracranial bleed is: d. Idiopathrc March 2005 136. Initial Investigation of choice of subarachnoid a. Berry aneurysm hemorrhage: March 2A09 b. Hypertension a. Angiography c. Coagulopathyi ,iii b. Lumbar puncture c. CT scan 144" d. Diabetes Which of the following sensation is preserved oni d. Serum electrolytes the side of the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome:t *fi L37. Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen in: SePtember 2009 a. Vibration SePtemher 2005 a. Lambert-Eaton-mvasthenic syndrome b. Touch b Hyperthyroidism n Tomnorrfrrro $ c. d Botulism Myasthcnia gravis d. Al1 of the above?7] .{tt.:
  • 97. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination145. Cranial nerve commonly involved in Guillain Barre 152. Pulmonary edema rvill be caused by: September 2007 syndrorne is: March 2009 a. Mitral stenosis a. Optic b. Pulmonary emobolism b. Trochlear c. Pneumonia c. Oculomotor d. COPD d. Facial 153. All of the following are signs of Cor pumonale146. Most common causative agent for meningitis in the except: September 2007 immunocompromised patient is: Septentber 2009 a. Feeble pulse a. Histopiasmosis b. Elevated JVP b. Cryptococcus c. Hepatomegaly c. Candida albicans d. Peripheral edema d. Coccidiomycosrs 154. Diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distressRESPIRATORY SYSTEM syndrome is: Stytenfucr 2008147. Management of steroid resistant asthma is done by: a. Pao2/Fio, ratio is </= 100 a. Oral steroids March 2005 b. c. Paor./Fio, ratio is <l:200 Pao2lFio2 ratio is </:300 o b. m Long acting Beta-2 agonist d. Pao2/Fio2 ratio is </= J00 ,Z c.Leucotrineantagonist 155. Most common occupational malignancy in India is: ,m d.Theophyliine March 2009, September 2010 .71.48. Lung Carcinoma is most commonly associated with: March 2005 a. b. Breast Lung r > a. Silicosis c. Skin ,= b. Asbestosis m d. Bladder c. Coal dust ,g d. Beryllill^ 156" Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in: Marclt 2009 o149. True about COPD are all except: September 2005 a. Pneumonia .Z a. Polycythemia m b. Left ventricular Failure b. ARDS c. Right ventricular Failure c. Pulmonary edema d" Clubbing is not a sign of COPD d. All of the above150. Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are 157. Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism: all except: March 2007 Marclt 2009 a. Reduced FEVt a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch b. Reduced diffusion capacity b. Conventionalangiography c. Reduced residual volume c. ChestCT d. Reduced mid expiratory flow rate d. MRI angiography 1,51. Respiratory acidosis is caused by all except: 1.58. ECG pattern seen in pulmonary embolism is: SePtember 2007 Septentber 2009,,:: a: a. Chronic bronchitis. a. S3Q3T1 b. COPD b. s1Q1T3 c. Pulmonaryhypertension c. S1Q3T3 d. Interstitial lung disease d. s3Q3T3.
  • 98. ( General Medicine 159. Most common ECG change in pulmonary embolism 166. Investigation of choice for diagnosing is: lung September 2009 a. sequestration is: Sinus bradycardia March 2009 b. Sinus tachycardia a. X-rav chest_pA view c. Tall T wave in iead III b. Plain CT scan_chest d. Left bundle branch block c. Angiographi, 160. True regarding type_III respiratory d. MRI failure are all except: ONCOLOCY Septenfuer 2009 Also knor",n as perioperative respiratory I b. There is impaired CNS drive to breathe failure 167. Treatment regimen for Hodgkins lymphoma is: c. Occurs as a result of atelectasis September 200g d. Can be marraged conserr,.atively a. VAD 161. Type-II respiratory failure is associated with: b. CMF c. ABVD Stptembcr 2009 a. Flail chest d. CHOP uJ b. z c. Pulmonary eclema Interstitial lung disease 168. Not seen a. in tumor lysis Hyperphosphatemia syndrome: Septenrbcr 2009 C) d. COPD b. Hyperuricemia o 162. Example of type-I respiratory a. failure is: March 2010 c. Hypocalcemia UJ Cardiogenic shock d. hypercalcemia b. Ateiectasis 169. False statement regarding Hodgkin,s disease is: = J c. Myasthenia gravis d. COPD a. CNS is the commonest site of invoivement September 2a09 tr 163. True about ARDS are all except: March 2010 b. Mediatinal involvement is common UJ a. Mortalitv rates ranges between 40 to 65ok z UJ b. Pneumonia is commonly associated with it c. nodulosclerosis tvpe in c. Ilecovery in terms of lung functions is poor in Characteristic cell is a Reed_Sternberg cell (9 d. Increase in eosinophils ald plasma ARDS survivors cllh , d.Acute respiratory distress syndrome is present if 170. Working formulation in staging of non_hodgkins : Pao2lFiorratio </= 200 lymphoma is based on; March 2010 I 164. Most common symptom a. Morphology of cells of Interstitial Lung disease .. rsi March 2010 b. Cell surface markers a. Hcmoptysis c. Sur.rival characteristic of cells ,,,.,. b. Dl,spnea d. Cellular genetics ,,,.;l c. Substernal discomfort d. Wheezing MISCELLANEOUS r 165. True about pancoast tumour are year old man complains of back pain 171.. 45 all of the following and except: March 2005 multiple joints pain. X-Ray shows bilateral a. Onlv 3-5% are small cell carcinomas sacroilitis.Diagnosis could be: Mnrch 2005 b. Involves eighth cervicai and first two thoracic a. Rheumatoidarthritis nerves commoniy b" Ankvlosingspondylitis c. t{orners sl.rrdrome may be a manifestation c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Lor,rer lobe Carcinoma d. Osteoarthritis
  • 99. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examinationfi2. Anti mitochondrial antibody is typically seen in: 179. All of the following can occur in rheumatic fever March 2005 except: Septentber 2007, 2010 a. Hepatic cirrhosis a. Mitralregurgitation b. Cardiac cirrhosis b. mitral stenosis 6. Primary sclerosing cholangitis c. Pericarditis d. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. Loud first heart sound Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease 180. All of the following are associated with polyuria173. IMCTD] are all of the following except: March 2005 except: Septembcr 2A07 a. Hvpogammagiobulinemia a. Diabetes insipidus b. lr4embranous glornerulonephritis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Polyarthritis c. Rapidlyprogressiveglomerulonephritis d. CNS involvement d. P;eloncphritis 181. Bone age corresponds to chronological age in:L74. Patient complaining of finger stiffness and Mnr* 2409 dysphagia.What could be the most probable a. Uncontroiled diabetes diagnosis: March 2005 b. Familial short stature- jo a. Achalasia c. im b. Lower esophageal ring Osteomalacia i:Z d. Rickets rm c. Esophagealcarcinoma d. Scleroderma 182. Preobesity is defined as BMI of: March 2009 ?;v a. L8.5-24.9 I>175. Not a. apremalignant condition: March 2005 b. 25-29.9 ll- b. Retinitispigmentosa Crohns disease c. 35-39.9 i= d. 40-M.9 lm c. d. Ulcerative colitis Leukoplakia 183. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except: lsL76. Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except: March 2005 March 2009 ?o z i:, a. Myocardialinfarction - a. Sarcoidosis b. Biliary cirrhosis *1Tl b. Acute pancreatitis c. Pregnancy c. Hyperparathyroidism * d. Pernicious artemia * d. Vitamin D intoxication 184. True regarding Feltys syndrome are all except: *177. Hypercholesterolemia is commonly associated with: t ePtember 2oo9 i Septenfuer 2005 a. splenomegal, t a. Diabetes mellitus b. Neutrophilia b. hypothyroidism c. Femalepreponderance c. Nephrotic sl.ndrome d" Associated with rheumatoid arthritis d. All of the above 185. Which of the following is true for acanthosis178. Most specific antibody for Systemic lupus nrgrrcans: March 2010 erythematosus: March 2007 €t Septenrber 20L0 a. May be an indication of skin malignancy a. Anti-Sm antibodies b" Hypopigmentation b" Anti-ss DNA antibodies c" May be associated with Insulin resistant diabetes c" Anti-RNA antibodies mellltus d. ANA antibodies d. Commonly occurs in lean and thin
  • 100. General Medicine 185. Correct statement regarding von recklinghausen 189. Tripple screening test for Down syndrome during ".H pregnancy includes all of the following except: diseaselNF-1] are all except: March 2014 ..: l/ln!^L a^^- a. Never turns malignant .,lqtrrt LUUJ, b. N{utations of gene on chromosome L7 causes NF1 a. Maternal serum AFP ..: . tl.i: i:..1 c. Ma1 be associated with nervous system tumors b. Serum beta-HCG i, d. Lisch nodules can be seen c. AlkanlilePhosphatase.i.r .:.tii .t d. Serum oestriol 187. Acantholysis is seenin: March 2005:ilil:n 190. The tourniquet test is positive if the petechiae are::ll a. Bullous pemphigoid more than: March 2007 A September :,.:!r::,. b. Dermatitisherpetiformis a. 50 petechiae per square inch c. Hailey-Haileydisease b. 40 petechiae per square inch d. Ali of the above c. 30 petechiae per square inch 188. A patient develops gross hematuria 3 days after an rl. 20 prtrchiae per square inch attack of URTI. Which of the following is 191. Most common cause of short stature is: March 2010 responsible: March 2005 a. Constitutional a. Drug abuse b. H1pothyroidism UI b. Acuteglomerulonephritis c. Grorvth hormone deficiency z c. Minimal change disease d. Systemic illness * o d. IgA nephropathy 6, tJl: = J t lll z IIJ o, i...i: i i. t: .:, : .!.
  • 101. LF ASSESSMENr& E/MCI SCREENING GENERAL SURGERY (Questions)BURNS VASCULAR SYSTEM1. All of the following are tme regarding fluid 8. Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in: March2W resuscitation in burn patients except: March 2008 a. AV fistula a. Consider intravenous resuscitalion in children with b. Raynauds disease t:,. bums greater than 15% TBSA :i: b. Oral fluids must contain salts c. Buergers disease ,t.i c. Most preferred fluid is Ringers lactate d. Aneurysm d. Half of the calculated volume of fluid shorrld be 9. W-hich of the following is associated with Virchowe given in first B hours triad: SEtember2. According to "rule of nines", burns involving a. Hypercoagulabiiity perineum are: Nlnrclr 2009 b. Disseminated malignancy 10/o ^ a. I c. DVT b. 9% c1. .A11 of the above c. 18% 1.0. Hemorrhage leads to: a Ll /o Stptentber ZNS q. a10/ a. Septicemic shock3. Which of the following is not seen in 3rd degree burns: b. Neurogenic shock March 2009 a. Loss of skin appendages c. Hypovolemic shock b. No vesicles d. Cardiogenic shock c. Red colour 11. Which of the following is true for shock: d. Extremely painful September 2M5i4. In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs a. Hypotension around: Septenfuer 2009 b. Hypoperfusion to tissues a. l week c. Hypoxia b. 2 rveeks d. All of the above c. 3 weeks 12. Most common vessels to be affected in Buergers Buergers j;l: d. 4 weeeks ,5. Which of the following is false regarding deep 2nd disease: March2NV ::;.i degree burns: September 2009 a. Femoral artery ,.: a. Heal by scar deposition b. lliac artery b. Painless c. Popliteal artery : c. Damage to deeper dermis d. Anterior and posterior tibial artery d. Less blanching 13. Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of6. In burns management, which of the following is the the following except: Septentbet 2007 medium of choice: March 2010, September 2010 a. Ethanolamine Oleate a. Dextrose 5% b. Polidocanol b. Normal saline c. Ethanol c. Ringer lactate d. Sodium tetradecyl sulfate d. Isolyte-M 14. Ravnauds syndrome occurs in all of the following7. All of the followingare complications in a patient on except: September 2A07 total parenteral nutrition except: Septentuer 2008 a. Hyperchlosterolemia a. SLE b. Hyperglycemia b Rheumatoid arthritis c" Hypotriglyceriedemia c" Osteoarthritis d. Hypophophatemia d. Cryoglobulinemia.
  • 102. Generalsurgery 30. Acute Pancreatitis is associated with: September 2005 38. Which of the folloning is the most pathognomonic a. Elevated serum amalyse sign of impending burst abdomen: b. Alcohol March 2C08 a. Fever c. Gali bladder stones d. Ali of the above b. Shock 31. Traurna to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosed c. Pain by, d. Serosanguinous discharge Septenfuer 2005, March 200g 39. Which of the investigation can itself lead to acute X-ray abdomen pancreatitis: March 200g b. USG a. USG CT scan b. CTscan o. diagnostic peritoneal iavage c. ERCP i d. MRI scan 32. Splenectomy can lead to: September 2005 40. Indications of splenectomy are all except: Nlarclt ZC|j| a. Leucoprgni3 b. Thrombocvtosis a. Hereditary spherocl,tosis c. Thrombocytopenla b. Trauma >: d. Thrombocytopenia c. Poh.cythemia ft,: and leucopenia Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis: lU,, 33. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Or SeTttember 2005 A 2006 41. All of the following relarding diagnosis Ei a. X-ray abdomen peritonitis are correct except: of acute fr; b. CTscan March 20Ag oi c. USG a. Raised WBC count irr peritoneal aspirate b. Moderately raised amylase levels are diagnostic of Ji d. ERCP peritonitis <a 34. Charcoat triad is seen in: si uJl a. Acute b. Acute pancreatitis appendicitis September 2006 c. CT scan mav aid in diagnosis d. Upright films shows free air under the diaphragm zr;: c. Acute hepatitis 48. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis uJ! d. oi; 35. Cholangitis Investigation for assessing proper functioning of amongst the following is: a. S.amylase Scptenfttr 2008 biliary system: March 2007 b. S.Alanine transaminase $ a. USG ; c. S.lipase b. CT scan f c. HIDA scan d. C-reactive protein i d" All of the above 49. Splenectomy is useful in: t, 36. Best way to diagnose gall bladder stones: March a. Hemophilia 2007 a. USG b. Polyrythenia!il ie b. Oral cholecystography c. HereditarySpherocytosis$ c. Percutaneous transhepaticcholangiographv cl. Thalassemia d. Intravenous cholangiogram 50. Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion and shock is 37. Charcots triad is defined by all of the following seen ln: March 2009 except: Septtember 2007, March 2U09 a. Fever a. Pancreatitis b. Gall stones b. Hepatitis c. Jaundice c. Cholangitis d" Pain d. Appendicitis ,;,.,.1; t,.:i..j ,ll!:
  • 103. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination 58. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:51. Most common type of gallstone in India is: September 2005 March 2009 a. Dubin Johnson syndrome a. Cholesterol !. Pigment b. Cilberts syndrome c" Mixed c. Criggler Najjar type I d. Both A and C d. Criggler Najjar type II52. Investigation of choice for hydatid disease is: 59. True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis SePtember 2009 associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the a. CT scan following except: March 2007 b. Elisa a. Biiiary Cirrhosis is a known complication c. Biopsv b. Increasecl risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma d. USG c. May har.e raised levels of alkaline phoshphatase53. A11 of the following are common cause of post d. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis resoltes after total splenectomy infections excePt: coiectomy SePtember 2009 i a. H.influenza 60. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra abdominal bleeding in an ulstable patient: ti o b. Ecoli m c. Klebsiella S eptember 2007 :i z m d. Streptococcus a. CT scan54. Management of infected pancreatic necrosis includes b. MRI scan n all of the following except: a. Percutaneousdrainage March 2010 c. USC d. diagnostic peritoneal lavage i r b. Pancreaticnecrosectomy 61. All of the following are seen with bile duct stone i U, c 7 ,.]. c. Manage conservatively with antibiotics alone except: March 2008 i; d. Nutritional support a. Obstructive jaundice o ;:55. Investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis: b. Distended and palpable gall bladder *m March 2010 c. Pruritis 7 a. Plain Radiography d. Clay coloured stools b. USG 62. Which of the following statement is true regarding c. CT scan pyogenic liver abscess: September 2009 d. Barium studies 56" Calculous cholecystitis is associated with all of the a. Diagnosis can be confirmed by serological test f; following except: March 2005 b. Radiographic features are diagnostic * t: a. Oral contraceptives c. Usually a large and single abscess is seen in cases of :i iL,, b. Oestrogen direct spread. $.1!r c. Obesity d" Systemic manifestations are uncommon d" Diabetes 63. Reversed "3" sign on barium studies is seen in which 57. Chronic calcific pancteatitis is associated with all of condition: September 2009 the following except: September 2005 a. Ampuilary carcinoma a. Hypercalcemia b. carcinoma stomach b. Diabetes mellitus c. Carcinoma head of pancreas c" Malabsorption of fat d. Insulinoma d. Diabetes associated complications are uncommon
  • 104. General Surgery 64. All of the following are true regarding splenic 70. Which of the following is not associated n ith Crohn,a rupture except: September 2009 disease: a. Eletation of the left dome of diaphragm a. fistula b. Obliterated psoas shadow b. stricture c. Obliterated colonic gas shadow c. Sclerosing cholangitis d. Obliterated splenic outline d. granuloma 55. A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history of 71. Hirschsprungs disease involves which region o{ pain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequent intestine: March vomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tender a. Colon b. Rectum lump was felt in the right iliac fossa.Most appropriate c. Rectosigmoid part management for this case would be: March 2010 d. Terminal ileum a. Flxploratorv iaparaotomv 72. Hirschsprungs disease in diagnosed by: hlarch2(fr5 b. imrnediate appendicectomy a. USG c. Ochsntr-Sherren re5;irr,an b. CT scan d. Extemal drainage c. Anogramt, 66. Investigation of choice for gall bladder stone is: d. Rectal biopsy Which of the followirg is the investigation of choiceut March 2010 73.o a. b. OCG for diagnosing carcinoma colon: a. September 2ffi5.,v, USG X-ray abdomenf, c. PTC b. CTscan@ d. X-ray c. ColonoscopyJ CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT d. Barium enema 74. Uncommon complication of meckels diverticulum is:,,tr 67. Routine management of paralytic ileus include all of September 2NiIJJ the following except: a. Intussusceptionzul a. Electrolyte correction March 2005 b. Diverticulitis b. Nasogastric aspiration c. Malignancyo c. Parasympathomimetics d. Increased bleeding d. Intravenous fluids 75. Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the 68. Ideal management in an old and frail patient following except: September 2M5 presenting with a mass situated 15 cm anay from anal a. Anorexia orifice: March 2005 b. Rovsings sign a" Abdomino-perineal resection c. Fever >42 degree celsius b. Colonoscopic removal d. Peri-umbilical colic c. Hartmans operation 76. True about Barretts esophagus are all of the follo$itlg d. Anterior resection except: Septembu2M a. Hvperplastic change in the lining mucosa of 69. Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the esophagus following except: March 2005 b" Patient is usually asymptomatic a. Colic c. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting b. Tremors and giddiness goblet cells c. Hyperglycemia d. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predispostlt6 d. Epigastric fullness factor
  • 105. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination7/, Commonest cause of peptic ulcer disease: 85. A patient presents with history of mild diarrhea, Septenfuer 2006 blood in stools with multiple fistulas. What is the a. NSAID ingestion most probable diagnosis: September 2007 b. Smoking a. Intestinal fuberculosis c. H.pylori b. ulcerative colitis d. Genetic factors c. Crohns disease78. Commonest cause of esophageal perforation: d. Typhoid March 2007 86. All of the following predisposes to carcinoma of the a. Boerhaave slndrome esophagus except: September 2008 b. Carcinoma of esophagus a. Achalasia c. Acid ingestion b. Zenkers diverticulum d. Instrumentation c. Barretts esophagus79, Entero enteric fistula is found in all except: d. Piummer-Vinson disease March 2007 87. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for: a. Crohns disease Septernber 2009, 2010 b. Colo-rectal malignancy a. Appendicularabscess c. Actinomycosis d. Ulcerative colitis b. Pelvic abscess c. Appendicular mass . .o false: March 200780, Which of the following statement is i tTi a. Granulomatous inflammation is found in Crohns d. Acute appendicitis j:,2 disease. 88. Trichobezoar is pathological ingestion of: ifn b. Perianal lesions are common in Crohns disease. Seplembcr 2009:7 c. Stricture involving the colon is found in ulcerative a. egetable matter > , colitis. b. Hair ,l- d. Fistula formation is common in Crohns disease. c. Coins iA81. Which of the following is not a commoner cause of o. )rones C intestinal perforation: March 2007 89. Most common site of volvulus is: i7 a. Gastric ulcer March 2010 Septettuer 2f|r0 iG) b. Gastrointestinal cancer a. Ileum .im c. Typhoid d. Crohns disease b. Appendix ,482. Commonest operation done for gastric outlet c. Sigmoid colon obstruction with peptic ulcer is: March 2007 d. Caecum i: a. Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy 90. Which of the following is false regarding gastro b. Truncal vagotomy with pyloroplasty oesophageal reflux disease: March 2005 :i c. Highly selective vagotomy with pyloroplasty a. Transient relaxation of the lower esophagus d. Gastrojejunostomy b. Tea and coffee should be avoided83. Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis: c. Length of LES is an important factor March 2007 d. Omeprazole is the preferred agent for management a. Hypokalemic hyponatremic alkalosis b. Hyperkalemia 91.The commonest cause of significantly lower c. Hyperchloremicacidosis gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person d. Hypematremia without any known precipitating factor may be due to84. Hellels myotomy is done for. September 2007,2009,201.0 March 2008, September 2010 a" Esophagealcarcinoma a. Ulverative colitis b. Pylorichypertrophy b" Ischemic colitis c" Achalasia cardia c. Angiodysplasia d. Inguinal hemia d. DiverLiculum of sigmoid colon
  • 106. Generalsurgery 92. Which of the following is not true for Zollinger- 99. If caecum is involved as a pad of the wall of hernial i Ellison syndrome: 5c1,tt1,Lr, rrr,t sac and is not its content, then it will be k.ro*n ur,-- i a. Recurrence after operation Septentber b. Reduced BAO : IvIAO raticr a. Richters hernia 2@g t.-: c. Gastrin producing tumour b. Spigelian hernia d. Diarrhoea may be a presenting feature c. Sliding hernia ..i 93. Which of the following plays a major role in the d. lnterstitial hemia ::..i, development of dumping syrdrome: Most common type of hernia in the young ti:,i lvlarch 2009 1.00. age .,; a. Vagolytic mechanism group: Septernber 2ffi *$ b. Smaller stonach a. Femoral hernia c. Excessive food in the stomach b. Direct inguinal hernia d, Large volurne of hyperosmotic fluid in the intestine c. Indirect inguinal htrnia 94. Treatment of an incidentally detected appendicular d. Urnbilical hemia 101. While operating upon strangulated hernia, the sac carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is: Mnrclt 2009 is a. Right hemicolectomy opened at: Scptembcr 200g b. Limites resection of the rieht colon a. Neck b. Body tr c. d. Total colectomy Appendicectomy c. Fundus uJ d. Mouth o 95. Features of achalsia cardia are all of the following 102. Which of the following describes Richtels hernia: E, except: March 2009 :) a. Regurgitantvomiting September 2W a. The strangulated loop of ,W, lies within the a b. Elongated and dilated esophagus abdomen J c. Rat-tail deformitl and filling defect on barium study b. Hemia occurring at the lerrel of arcuae line t lU d. HERNIA Increased difficulW in snallowing c. lnvolves only a portion of the circumference of *re bowel. z IJJ 96. Spigelian hemia is: Marclt 2005 d. Hernia occurring through the linea alba 103. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is: a. Hernia passing through the obturator canal o b. Hernia occurring through the linea alba a. March 2005 Umbilical hernia c. Hernia through the triangle of petit b. Incisional hernia d. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line c. Strangulated hemia 97. Strangulation most commonly occurs in: d. Fatty hernia of linea alba Seatember 2005 CENITOURINARY SYSTEM a. femoral hernia 1,04. tnvestigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is: b. Direct inguinal hernia c" Indirect inguinat hemia March 2005, Septenrber 2010 ,,i;i..., d" Lumbar hemia a. CT scan :9,t.t,. b. Voidingcystourethrography 98. True regarding indirect inguinal hernia are all except: c. Intravenousurography -,.r.t,.:;;iti. . March 2008 d.X-ray KUB .;:.1,,.:.;::lt :l a. Most common lype of hernia 105. Seminoma is carcinoma of: September 2005. . ".,i.r, ,,,. b. Always unilaterai a. Kidney ,.,$;;t",,,t"" c" Inguinal herniotomy is the basic operation b. Urinary bladder ,, :iiit.,", ,.,:1 ,,1::i d. Transillumination distinguishes it from hydrocele c. Testes d" Penis l; , ;t,t. t;
  • 107. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by: 1L4. Treatment of stage I teratoma is: September 2008100. SePtember 2405 a. Chemotherapy a. X-ray KUB b. Radiotherapy b. Micturating cysto uretl-rrogram c. Surgery c. CT scan d. Observation d. MRI scan 1L5. Fourniers gangtene is seen in: September 2008107. Lateral internal sphincterotomy is useful for: a. Scrotum Septembet 2007 b. Shaft of penis a. Anal fistula c. Base of penis b" Anal canal strictures d. Glans penis c.Haemorrhoids d.Anal fissure 116. Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade is:108. Treatment of choice for 3rd degree hemorrhoids is: Mrch 2009 SePterfuer 2007 a. Teratoma a. Sclerotherapy b. Dermoid b. Band ligation c. Seminoma c. d. Hemorrhoidectomy All of the above d. All of the above o m109. Which one of the following is radiolucent stone: September 2007 117. Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to be done is: SeTttember 2008, March 2009 z m a. Calcium oxalate a. Urinarycatheterization n b. Cystine b. Suprapubiccystostomy c. Uric acid c. Referral to a urologist l- d. Phosphate d. a110. True about incompletely descended testis are all of Observation Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients c the following except: March 2008 1.18. n a. Early repositioning can preserve function who had undergone transurethral resection of o b. It may lead to sterility, if bilateral prostate suggests: Septemher 2009 m c. Poorly developed secondary sexual characters a. Hypernatremia n d. May be associated with indirect inguinal hemia b. Sepsis11L. Most radiosensitive testicular tumour is: March 2008 c. Hepatic coma a. Seminoma d. Water retention b. teratoma c.Interstitialtumours 119. Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma are all of d.Lymphoma the following except: Srptenrber 2009112. Erythroplasia of Queyrat occurs in: September 2008 a. Smoking a. Scrotum b. Human papilloma virus infection b. Testes c. Schistosomiasis c. Penis d. Cyclophosphamide d. Bladder113. A 25 year old man presents with hydrocele on the 120. All of the following are radio-opaque stones except: September 2009 left side. Associated condition could be a: SePtember 2008 a. Calcium a. Nephroma b. Struvite b. Hepatic malignancy c. Uric acid c. Testicular tumour d. Cystine d. Penile malignancy
  • 108. Generalsurgery L21. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is 129. During thyroidectomy, inferior thyroid artery is suggestive of: Itlarch 2010 ligated at: a. Horseshoe kidney Septentber 2a06 b. a" Maxiamally away from the gland Duplicaiion of renal pelvis c. Simple cyst of kidney b. Close to the gland d. Ureterocele c. Halfr,ray from the gland 122. Thimble bladder is seen in: March 2005 d. None of the above a. Diverticulae 130. FNAC is useful in all except: March 2N7 b. Bladder stones a. Follicularcarcinoma c. Schistosorniasis b. Papiilary carcinoma d. Tuberculosis 123. Narrowest part of the urethra is: c. Anaplasticcarcinoma LInrch 2009 a. Prostatic urethra d. Merlullary carcinoma b. Bulbar urethra 131. Features of hyperthyroidism are all except: c. Penile urethra March 2Aa7 d. Membranous urethra a. Voracious appetite L24. Which of the following causes orchitis without epididymitis: b. Cold intolerance March 2009 a. Syphilis c. Emotionaldisturbance b. TB d. Sleeplessness c. Gonorrhoea 132. Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be d. Chlamvdiatrachomatis treated by:125. Drainage of venous blood from testes following September 2007 division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is a. Radioiodine byt March 2009 b. Surgery a. Cremasteric vein c. Thyroxine b. Dorsal vein of penis d. Observation c. Internal pudendal vein d. Pampiniform plexus 133. AntiTPO antibodies are present in: September 2007126. Spider-leg appearance is seen in: March 2010 a. Reidelsthyroiditis a. Pyelonephritis b. Graves disease b. Polyrystic kidney c. Hashimotosthyroiditis c. Renal artery stenosis d" DeQuervains thyroiditis d. Ureteric stones127. All of the following are seen in chronic pyloric 134. All of the following are true regarding Gtave,s obstruction except: March 2010 disease except: March 2008 a. Alkaline urine a. Orbital proptosis b. Acidic urine b" Presents as primary thyrotoxicosis c" Hypochloremia d. H1pokalemia c. Anti-TPO antibodies d. Pretibial myxoedemaTHYROID 135. True regarding Papillary carcinoma of thyroid is:128. All of the following are features of Graves disease except: Septenrber 2005 March 20A8 a. More common in males a. Undifferentiatedcarcinoma b. Tremor b. Blood-bome metastasis is commoner c" Pretibial myxoedema c. Excellent prognosis d. Intolerance to heat d. Capsulated
  • 109. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examinationf6. Most common cause of solitary thyroid nodule is: BREAST Septentber 2008 142. Most important prognostic factor for breast Carcinoma is: March 2005 a. Physiologicalgoitre b. Follicular adenoma a. Age of the patient c. Colloiddegenerations b. Lymph node involvement d. Cysts c. Genetic factors d. Family historyf7, Thyroxine can be given in which thyroid carcinoma: 143. Group of lymph node involved in breast carcinoma SePtember 2009 are all of the following except: Mnrch 2005 a. PaPillary a. Supraclavicular b. Medullary b. Prebracheal c. Anaplastic c. Axillary d. Undifferentiated d. Intemal mammary$8. After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of 144.Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around thyroid, which is important for determining the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of: ..O recurrence of tumour: September 2009 3 SePtember 2005 :m a. thyroglobulin a. Galactocoele i:Z b. ,irn b. TSH Pagets disease *v c. Carcinoembryonicantigen c. Eczema *> d. Thyroxine levels d. Sebaceous cysts $l- Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of 145. Simple Mastectomy includes removal of: *o139. September 2005 €i 2006 *c carcinoma thyroid: September 2009 a" Only breast in a. Follicular b. Breast and axiJ.lary nodes to b. Anaplastic c. Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle *m c. Anaplastic d. *F d. Medullary Breast+axillariesnodes+Pectoralismajor $< muscle+pectoralis minor muscle -(- {:140. All of the following are true regarding medullary :l: * carcinoma of thyroid except: March 2010 146. Peau dOrange of breast is due to: i a. Total thyroidectomy is done September 2005,2010, March 2007 b. Parafollicular cells involved a" Obstruction of Vein c. TSH dependent b. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts. d. Releases calcitonin c. Obstruction of glandular ducts 141. Which of the following is initial investigation of d. Obstruction of arteries choice for a patient presenting with solitary nodule of 147. Structure preserved in Modified radical [Pateyl thyroid: March 2005 mastectomy is: Septenrber 2006 2009 a. Thyroid function test a. Axillary vein b" FNAC b" Pectoralis major muscle c. Radionuclide scan c. Nerves to serratus anterior d. MRI d. All of the above
  • 110. GeneralSurgery rii . 1,48. Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which 155. Minimum score in Glassgow Coma Scale: type of breast cancer: Septernber 20A7 March2MT a. Tubular carcinoma a.0 b. Medullary carcinoma b. 1,t1,"i c. Colloid carcinoma c.2 J l^fl --- cl. lnilammatory carclnoma -r^-,, o.Jffi.,..i,*:.i,: 1,49. True regarding breast carcinoma is: March 2008 a. Occurs most commonly in upper inner quadrant b. Late menarche and early menopause predisposes 156. Raised a. b. Intra cranial Pressure will cause: Tachycardia Hvpotension March2@L for breast malignancy c. Papilloedema c. Commoner in nulliparous wornel-l d. Normai locrking anterior fontanelle in infants d.Unrelated r.r.ith the family historv of breast cancer 157. Surgerv of choice for pleonrorprhic adenoma is: 150. All of the following are predisposing factors for Stptetnber 2007,2A10 breast carcinoma except: ltnlntrhrr )OO.9 "-r-" " -"_ a. Totalparotidectornv a. Family history of breast carcinoma b. Superfici.rl parotidectonry b. First child at a younger age !,. c. E.rrly menarche and late mcnopause c. d. Total paroiidectomy nith lymph node dissection &i: d. Nulliparous lvomen Radicaiparotidectomy IIJ i 158. True statement regardihg fracture base of the skull (,t HEAD.NECK are all of the following except: March2ffi8; EI 151. Both breasts are affected in which type of breast a. Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required r.,i f,t carcinoma: Septentuer 2009 b. Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsv @i a. Inflammatory c. Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome J}: b. infiltrative d. May present with CSF otorrhoea <l t:, c. Ductal 159. All of the following statement regarding stones in d. Lobular the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008 IJJ I 152. Stones are most commonly seen in which salivary a. 80% of stones occur in the submandibular qland Zii gland: utt March 2005,2007 b. Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent ,: C,l a. Submandibular c. Stones are the most common cause of obstruction r b. Sublingrral within the submandibular gland c. Parotid d. Patient presents rvith acute swelling in the region d. Occurs with equal frequenry in all the salivary of the submandibular gland glands. 160. True regarding cystic hygroma is: March 20At 1"53. A man sustained injury and presented with fluid a. Alrvays unilateral coming out through nose. What could be the b. Brilliantlytranslucent possible fracture: Marclr 2007 c. Subsides itself a. Fracture base of skull d. Always presnts at birth b. Fracture of mandible 161. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is: c. Fracfure of maxilla March 2009 d. None of the above 154. What is not found in head injury: a. Cieft lip alone March 2007 a. Confusion b. Isolated cleft palate b. Loss of consciousness c. Cleft lip and cieft palate c. Lucid interval d. All have equal incidence d. GCS score of 0
  • 111. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination152, Carcinoma of tongue most commonly occur at: LUNGS March 2009 169. Emergency management for Tension pneumothorax a. Dorsum ls: Septenfuer 2005 b. Lateral border of anterior 2/3rd a. Thoracotomy c. Lateral border of posterior 1/3rd b. Insertion of a chest tube d. Tip c. Needledecompression163. Most common location of ectopic submandibular d. Tracheostomy L70. Management of flail chest with respiratory failure salivary gland tissue is: September 2009 a. Cheek is: September 2006 b. Palate a. Chest tube drainage b. Oxygenadministration c. Angle of mandible c. IPPV d. Tongue d. Intemal operative fixation of the frachrres164. True regarding Sjogrens syndrome are all of the segments following except: Septenfuer 2009 171. True about flail chest are all except: March 2007 a. Autoimmune condition a. Ultimately leads to respiratory failure b. Males are commoniy affected b. Paradoxicalrespiration c. Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary c. Fracture of 3-4 ribs ? ,o d. i|rl gland Mediastinal shift :.2 d. No single laboratory investigation is 172. Carcinoma responding maximally to radiotherapy is: im pathognomic. a. Squamous cell carcinoma September 2006 ,D n165. Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial cleft: September 2009 b. c. Adenocarcinoma Small cell carcinoma tr trU, a. b. First Second d. None of the above ic i.,F 173. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism: c. d. Third Forth September 2007 io a. Dyspnea irTt166. Most common tumour of eyelid is: September 2009 b. Pleuritic chest pain .in a. b. Neurofibromatosis Squamous cell carcinoma c. Cyanosis i< d. Hemoptysis I c. Basal cell carcinoma 174. Condition which builds within hemithorax d. Rhabdomyosarcoma resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm,167. Surgical correction in cleft palate primarily aims at contralateral mediastinal shift and compromised all of the following except: March 2010 venous return to right side of heart is known as: a. Control of regurgitation September 2007 b. To promote normal dentition and facial growth a. Open pneumothorax c. To get a normal speech b. Flail chest d. Normal appearance of lips, nose and face c. Massive pulmonary hemorrhage168. Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid d. Tensionpneumothorax gland is most common after: March 2008 175. IPPV is useful in: March 2009 a. Uveo-parotid fever a. Hemopneumothorax b. Mumps b. Pneumothorax c. Debilitation after major surgery c. Flail chest d. After administration of iodine d. Hemothorax
  • 112. General Surgery 176. Which of the following subtype of lung carcinoma 183. All of the following are false for Gall Bladder produces superior vena cava syndrome: Carcinoma except: March 2005 Septonber 2a09 a. Carries a good prognosis a. Small cell carclnoma b. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor b. Adenocarcinoma c. Commorrly squamous cell carcinoma c. Anaplasficcarcinoma d. Jaundice is rare d. Squamous cell carcinoma 1.84.Psammoma bodies are seen in: March 2007 a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid SURCICAL ONCOLOCY b. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid 177.Most common subtype of Basal cell carcinoma is: c. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid March 2005 d. Lymphoma of thyroid 185. False statements about carcinoma esophagus are all a. Sr,rperficiai basal cell carcinoma b. Nodr,rlar basai cell carcinoma of the following except: March 2007 c. a. Most common in lorver third Sclerosing basai cell carcinorna b. Histologically,adenocarcinomaonll, d. Pigmented basal ccll carcinoma c. Unrelated to tobacco chen ing L78. Sister |oseph Nodules are present at: Mar& 2A05 d. It is more common in females a. Umbilicus& b. Diaphragm MISCELLANEOUSut c. 186. Glasgow coma scale in death is: September 2005o d. Lung Liver a.0 b. 1&f 179. Most common histological type of carcinoma of base of tongue: c.2 d.3CD March 2007J a. Squamous cell carcinoma 187. Commonest complication of parenteral nutrition b. Adeno carcinoma includes all except: March 2007tUJ c. d. Basal cell carcinoma Transitional cell carcinoma a. Hyperglycemia b. HyperkalemiazIIJ 180" Feafures of carcinoma penis include all except: c. d. Hyperosmolardehydration Azotemia(, March 2007 188. Chyluria is caused by all except: Nlarch 2007 a. Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodes a. Pregnancy b. Surgery is the treatment of choice b. Childbirth c. Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion c.Filariasis d. Circumcisionprovides protection d.Bile duct stones 181. True about breast carcinoma are 189. Which of the follorving is preferred cannulation site all except: for total parenteral nutrition: September 2007 March 2007 a. Positive family history a. Subclavian vein b. b. Great Saphenous vein Median age of presentation is about 40 years c.Median cubital vein c. More common in muslims d.Extemal jugular vein d. Peau dorange is due to subcutaneous lymphatic 190. Which is best method for supplementing nutrition involvement in patients who have undergone massive tesection L82" Aim of surgery in carcinoma rectum is: March 2010 of the small intestine is: September 2007 a. Limited excision of the rectum a. Parenteral b. Sacrificing gastrointestinal continuity b. Enteral c. Preserving the anal sphincter c. Gastrostomy d. Preservingmesorectum d. All of the above
  • 113. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination 199. A patient on antibiotics for treatment for peritonitis191. Level V cervical nodes includes: September 2007 a. Upper jugular nodes presents with mucus diarrhoea. Most probable b. Middle jugular nodes cause could be: September 2009 c. Lower jugular nodes a. Ulcerative colitis d. Posterior triangle nodes b. Activation of latent tuberculosisf2. Which of the following is ideal in moderate c. Antibioticassociateddiarrhoea hemorrhagic shock: September 2007 d. Gastritis a. Dextrose 200. CVP is usually measured in: September 2009 b. Ringer lactate a. Superior vena cava c. Blood b. Right atrium d. Dextran c. Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium193. Which of the following solution is a colloid: d. Subclavian vein l SePtenfuer 2007 201. Pneumoperitoneum is created by: Septenfucr 2009 a. Normal saline a. 02 b. Albumin b. co c. Ringer iactate C. CO2 iQ d. dextrose 5% d. N20 " im194. leep disease is also known as: March 2008 202. All of the following are true regarding pilonidal $m iz a. Anal incontinence b. Hemorrhoids exceph sinus SePtemberzlgYV c. Pilonidal sinus a. Seenpredominantlyinwomen t> dF d. Anal fissure b. Occurs only in sacrococcygeal region. 1195. Ideal investigation for fistula-in-ano is: March 2008 c. tendenry forrecurrenc " trp a. Endoanalultrasound d. Obesity is a risk factor i= b. MRI 203.Graft is not taken up by the following tissue: i 6 c. Fistulography March 2005 $n1 d. CT scan a. Fat *I "{<196. Cellulitis is most commonly caused by: b. muscle Swtember 2008,2010 c. Skull bone 1 a. Clostridia d. Deep fascia 1 b. Staphylococci 204. In radical neck dissection, which strucfure is not t c. Streptococci Removed: March 2005 :l d. H.Influenzae a. Cervical group of lymph nodes 197. Hypochloremic alkalosis is seen in: March 2009 b. Stemocleidomastoidmuscle a. Achalasia cardia c. Internal jugular vein b. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. None of the above c. Ureterosigmoidostomy 205. All of the following conditions result in chronic d. Diarrhea 198. Cryoprecipitate eontains: March 2009 thick walled pyogenic abscess exeept: March 2005 a. factor II a" Inadequate surgical drainage b. factor V b. Virulent strain of offending organism c. factor VIII c" Prolnged course of antibiotic therapy d. factor IX d. Presence of foreign body
  • 114. Generai Surgery 206. Which of the following is true regarding 213. Basal cell carcinoma usually spreads by which route: tuberculous lymphadenitis: March 2005 September 20ai a. Historv of contact lr,ith TB patient rnay be present a. Hematogenous route b. Commoniy seen in the 1oung and children b. Lymphatic route c. Mostly in the ccrvical region c. Direct spread lr,i.:l.,,i:.,+,1, d. Ail of the above d" All of the abovell.,;:il;t 207. Sen-m amylase level is increased in all of the: i j. 2L4. Which of the following is commonest site for rodent l following except: March 2005 a. Intestinalobstruction ulcer: September 2A07 ,, b. Perforated ulcer a. Lips c. Acute pancreatitis b. Orrter cantirus of eve d. Acute appendicitis c. Inner canthus of eve 208. Cystic hvgroma may be associatedwith: Mnrclr 2005 d. Cheek a. Turners syndrome 215. Highest chance of success in renal transplant is b. Klinefelterssr.ndrome possible when the donor is: Septenfuer 20A1, 2010 c. Donns syndrome a. Father t UI 209. d. All of the above Differential diagnosis of a lesion, histologically b. Mother g) c. Twin -: . resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of E,: the hand/feet, include all of the following except: d. Son 216. HtA matching is not necess ary for: -- J March 2005 September 2ffi7 ai. a. Fibrosarcoma a. Liver transplant J; b. Enchondroma b. Renal transplant <: &,,: c. Hyperparthyroidism c. Heart transplant IJJ.: d. Aneurysmal bone ryst d. Comeal transplant z"j 210. All of the following are features of carcinoma penis 217. Which of the following is seen in Addisons disease: ltJ Except: March 2005 September 2407 (9" a. Surgery is the treatment of choice a. Hypernatremia b. Balanoposthitis may be a predisposing factor b. Hypokalemia c. Metastaizes to inguinal nodes c. Hyperglycemia d. Histologically a transitional cell carcinoma d. Hypercalcemia 21.1. Curlings ulcer are associated with: 218. All of the following conditions are associated with September 2005 raised amylase level except: September 2A07 a. Patient with gastrinoma b. Head injuries a. Carcinoma pancreas c. Burns b. Perforated ulcer d. Analgesicoverdosage c. Acute pancreatitis 212. Cocks peculiar tumour is: Septenfuer 2007 d. Acute appendicitis 219. Adson test is positive in: September 2007 a. Infected sebaceous cyst a. Cervical spondylosis b. Osteomyelitis of skuli b. Cervical rib c. Cyst in the skull c. Cervical vertebra fracture d. Tumour of the skull d. Superior vena cava syndrome
  • 115. SELF ASsEssefigerre .NNNCC/MCI SCRE.*NING EXAMIN ORTHOPAEDICS (Questions)ORTHOPAEDIC TRAUMA 9. lVhat is the position of the leg in fracture neck of1. Hill-Sachs lesion is seen in: NIarch 2005 femur: Septentber 2@J a. Ilecurrent dislocation of elbou a. Internal rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree ,r, b. Recurrent dislocation of patelia b. External rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree .1, c. Recurrent dislocation of hip c. Internal rotation deformitv of more than 45 degree , d. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder d. External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree.2. Supracondylar fracture of the femur commonly 10. March fracture is fracture of: September inlures which structure: September 2005 a. Calcaneus ": a. Sciatic nerve b. 2nd metatarsal b. Popliteal nerve c. Distal fibrrla c. Popliteal vessel d. Proximal tibia cl. Femoral vessel 11. Humeral supracondylar fracture commonly results in3. Comrnonest complication of extra capsular fracture of vrhich nerve injury: S eTttetnber 20A7 femur is: Septentuer 2005 a. Musculocutancous nerve a. Non union b. Radial nerve b. Mal union c. ulnar nerve c. Avascular necrosis d. Median nerve 3 d.Osteoarthritis L2. Fracture of distal end of radius may results in loss of4" Most serious complication of fracture of a long bone function of which tendon: Sept ember is; September 2005 a. Extensor pollicis longus a. Fat embolism b. Flexor pollicis brevis b. Pulmonary embolism c. Extensor indicis c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Extensor digitorum d. Associated joint injuries 13. Complication of humeral lateral epicondyle fracture ,,15. Which of the following nerve is damaged in the is: Scptember 2N8 fracture of the shaft of the humerus: a. Non union March, Septeruber 2a05 b. Tardy ulnar nerrre palsy a. Musculocutaneous nerve c. Cubitus valgus deformity b. Radial nerve d. All of the above c. Ulnar nerve 14. Bone commonly fractured in facial injuries is: :. d. Median nerve March2W6. Epiphyseal plate fractures are classified by: a. Nasal bones Seatnnber 2005 b. Nasoethmoid bone a. Herrings classification c. Zygomanc bone b. Salter-Harris classification d.Mandible c. Gardensclassificanon 15. Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial d. Pauwels classification meniscus injury is: March20107. Uncommon in Colles fracture: March 2007 a. McMurrays test a. Non-union b. Lachmanns test b. Mal-union c. Valgus stress test c. Rupture of EPL tendon d. Varus stress test d. Refler sympathetic dystrophy 16. Manoeuvre for diagnosing rupture of medial8. True regarding Monteggia fracture is: March 2007 collateral ligament is: March2ilA a. Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial head a. Posterior drawer test b. Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulna h, Anterior drar.t.er test c. Lower radial fracfure & dislocated ulna c. Lachmanns test d Lorter ulnar fracture & dislocatcd raclius cl. Valeus stress test
  • 116. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination 24. Monoarticular joint involvement is seen in which oIINFLAMMATIONS OF MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM September 2007 it ri the following:17. Fibrous ankylosis is caused by which of the following: a. Primarvosteoarthritis March 2A05 b. Rheumatoicl arthritis a. Septic arthritis c. Tuberculararthritis b. TB arthritis d. Sero-neagtive spond-arthritis c. Bechets disease 25. Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India: March 2409 d. Psoriatic arthritis18. Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly a. Shoulder March 2A05 b. Hip affected in: c. Knee a. Osteoarthritis d. Ankle b. Psoriatic artirritis 26. Part of knee most commonly involved in c. IRhettmatoid arthritis osteoarthritis: Mnrch 2009 d. Rheumatic fever a. Medial comPartment19. Felon is: Mnrch 2407 b. Laterai corrlPartment a. Mid palmar sPace infection c. Medial and lateral comPartment b. Infection of ulnar bursa d. Patellofemoral comPartment 27.Feltys syndrorne is associated with which of the c. Terminal pulp sPace infection following: SePterfuer 2009 d. Infection of nail bed a. Osteoarthritis 3 Iliac crest involvement is common in which :,o 20. b. Rheumatoid arthritis ,.7 condition: Mnrch 2007 c. Ankylosing sPondYiitis ,,{ a. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Psoriatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis 28. Purulent inflammation and infection of terminai pulp space of distal phalanges is known as: lo T c" Reiters syndrome d. Osteoarthritis a. Acute paronYchium SePtentber 2009 T ,.D .lll 21. Commonest presenting symptom of Potts spine is: Mnrch 2007 b. Whitlow c. Acute suppurative tenosynovitis ls a. Cold abscess d. Apical subungual infection i.6 b. Back pain 29. All of the followingare true regarding ankylosing iu, c. Decreased sPinal movements spondylitis excePt: March 2010 d. Collapse of spine a. Involvement of sacroiliac ioint b. Most of people areHLAB2T positive 22. In a patient with gouty arthritis, strongly birefringent c. 50% of pafients may have urinary infection needle-shaped crystals with negative elongation in d. Bamboo spine may be a radiologicai feature synvial fuid aspiration are comPosed of: 30. HLA 827 is commonly associated with which of the SePtember 2007 following: March 2010 a. Monosodium urate a. Rheumatic fever :: b. Calcium pyroPhosPhate b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Homogentisic acid c. Osteoarthritis d. Ankylosing sPondYlitis d. Sodium pyroPhosPhate : , 23. Charcots/ neuropathic joints are most commonly seen OTHER NON TRAUMATIC CONDITIONS ,l in September 2007 31. Duputryens contracture commonly affects: ." ......-,,. SePtember 2005 a. DM b. Syringolmyelia a. Littlefinger , b. Ring firger . c. Leprosy c. Middle finger d. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Index finger i r,
  • 117. Orthopaedics 32. Aseptic necrosis is common in: 40. In Hansens disease, the nerve commonly affected at March 2007, Septenfuer 2010 elbow is: erpow rs: (--+..---, Sr|ttember a. Scaphoid a. Ulnar nerve 2005 b. Calcaneum b. Median nene c. Cuboid c. Radial nerve d. Trapezium d. Muscuiocutaneous nerve Best diagnostic modality to diagnose avascular 4L. Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of: necrosis is: March 2007 a. MRI scan September 200lr b. CTscan a. Sciatic nerve c. X-rav b.Direct injury to the dorsiflexors d. USG c. Common peroneai nerve palsy 34. AII of the following are seen in rickets except: d. All of the above Stptctrfucr 2009 42, Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial a. Frenkels line epicondyle of humems is: Mdrch 2A{)7 b. lVidening of epiphysis- diaphvsis distance a. Radial nerve c. Cupping and splaying of metaphvsis b. Ullar nerve d. Rarefaction c. Median nerve . 35. Duchenne,s muscular dystrophy affects which group d. Musculocutaneous nerve , of muscle s commonly: Septeiber ZbOg 43. Positive Trendelenburghign is seen in:Ur ", a. Calf muscles a. Superior gluteal nerve palsy March 2007O :: b. Sl-roulder muscles b. In-ferior giuteal nerve palsyA-:: c. l-orearm muscles c. Obturator nerve palsyiii . d. Respiarr.ory muscles d. Ilihypogastric nerve palsy? ,, ,U. In Duchennes muscular dystrophy, calf muscle is: 44. Carpal tunnel is associated with all of the followingL ,i, a September 200g except: September 2007 HypertrophiedO D. Arroptued a. HyperparathyroidismT b. Rheumatoid arthritistr c. Pseudoatrophied c. Wrist osteoarthritisU 37. d. Pseudohvpertrophied. d.O Congenital talipes equinovarus deformity includes all Acromegaly ! of the following except: March 2010 45. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in: r,r a. Eversion SePtember 2008 i: b. Forefoot adduction a. Cubitus varus deformity -: c. ,t oretoot cavus b. Cubitus valgus deformity o. Equrnus c. Dinner fork deformity 38. All of the following are true about rickets except: d. Garden spade deformity March 2010 46. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to involvement of a. h which nerve: March 2009 a. Radial nerve d b. Median nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Axillary nerve 47. Inability to adduct the thumb is due to the injury of: lvlarch 2009 a. Median nerve Ulnar nerve b. Ulnar nerve Median nerve I c. Radial nerve u Radial nerve d. Musculocutaneous nerve
  • 118. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination September 2009 56. Sunray appearance on Xray may be seen in:48. Tinel sign indicates: SePtember 2048 a. Nerve degeneration a. Osteoclastoma b. Nerve regeneration c. Both b. Osteoblastoma d. None c. Osteosarcoma d. Chondroblastoma49. Partial claw hand is caused by lesion involving the: March2010 57. Tumour which can occur following exposure to radiation is: March 2009 a. Radialnerve b. Ul:rar nerve a. Osteosarcoma c. Median nerve b. Osteoblastoma d. Anterior interosseous nerve c. Ewings sarcoma d. OsteoclastomaORTHOPAEDIC ONCOLOCY MISCELLANEOUS 50. Radiological finding of ewings sarcoma is: Scotentber 2005 58. First epiphysis to appear around the elbow region is: Mnrch 2005 :..: a. Soap bubble aPPearence b. Sunray apPearence a. Head of radius i c. Onion peel apPearence b. Capituium d. Codmans triangle c. Trochlea t .., 51. Osteosarcoma conunonly af f ects: September 2005 d. Medial condYle iO a. Metaphysis 59. Supination and pronation occurs at which of the ,tV b. Diaphysis following joinh SePtember 2006 I c. Epiphysis a. Wrist joint |* d. None of the above b. Eibow joint :9 52. Commonest location of aneurysmal bone cyst isl c. Radio-ulnar joint tI SePtembet 2006 d. CarpometacarPal ioint 4 rr is: Qsntowhor -"" i r I ?on7 a. Femur 60. Example of syndesmosis ioint o" Jurrr b. Pelvis a. Tibiotalarlo*a I c. Vertebrae b. Tibiofibuiar joint ,Q d. Tibia c. Elbowjoint i.(n 53. Which of the following is seen in multiple myeloma: d. CarpometacarPal joint March 2007 61. Trendelenburg sign is positive due to the involvement i a. Raised serumcalcium of: March 2009 t: b. Decreased serum calcium Gluteum maximus a. !: c. Normal serum calcium b. Gluteus medius d. None of the above c. Psoas major 54. Most common tumor of sPine is: September 2008 d. Adductor magnus a. Secondaries 62. "Marble Bone" appearance is seen in: March 2009 b" Ewings sarcoma a. Osteomalacia c. Oteosarcoma b. OsteoPetrosis d. Multiple myeloma c. Rickets 55. Punched out lesion in the skull is indicative of: d. OsteoPorosis SePtember 2008 63. Spondylolysis is more common in: March 2009 a. Ewings sarcoma a. Intervertebral disc b" Multiple myeloma b. Anterior Part c. Metastasis c. Pars interarticularis d" Osteosarcoma d. Annulus fibrosus
  • 119. Orthopaedics March 2009 67. Knuckle bender splint is used for: September a. Ulnar nerve palsy b. Radial nerve palsy c. Median nerve PaisY d. Axillary nerve palsY l: SEtember 2009 68. Maximum weight that can be given with skeletal .:-:: traction is: Septenrber 2@g a. 5kg b. 10 kg c. 15 kg d.20 kg Stpttentber 2009 69. Who coined the term orthopaedics: Match2010 a. Osteosarcoma a. Louis Pasteur b. Osteomalacia b. Erluard jenner c. Multiple myeloma c. Nicholas andry d. Malnutrition d. Kuntscher U 9 a ,i o t.t :; lJl ;J o- o T F t o .:r ;l ,j: ::,1 ...: : ::.:: : ). ,.-:: ,i..... .:-,:. . :r .I . 4.. ....,.:-..- ., : ] ". i:. .. ::
  • 120. ii !ii , $ CI 5CREENIN PAEDIATRICS (Questions)CROWTH 9. Very low birth weight is less than: September 2009t. Fluid intake by a 8 kg boy should be: March 2005 a. 1000 gm a. 700 ml b. 1500 gm b. 800 ml c. 2000 gm c. 900 ml d. 2500 gm d. 1L 10. Anterior fontanelle ossifies by: March 20072. Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal upto: a. 6 months March 2005 b. 12 months a. 3 years c. 15 months b. 4 years c. 5 Iears d. 18 months d. 6 years 11. Moro reflex disappear by: March 2010 Height of a newbom doubles at: Septenrber 2005, a. 2 months Marclt 2A10 b. 3 months a. 1 year c. 4 months b. Z1tear d. 5 months c. 3 year NUTRITION d. 4 year Weight of a child triples at: September 2405 12. Vitamin D deficiencv is manifested as: Swtember 2005 a. 6 months a. Scurr,y b. 1 year b. Night blindness c. 18 months c. Beri-Beri d. 2 year d. Rickets5. A 8 month old baby will be able to do which of the 13. Malnutrition is assessed clinically by; September 2007 following: March 2047 a. Mid arm circumference a. Stable sitting b. Weight for age b. Pincer grasp c. Body mass index c. Stands without support d. Al1 of the above d. Says mama 14. Specific sign of kwashiorkor is: September 2007 5. Normal weight of infant at 1 year from birth is: SePtember 2007 a. Pitting edema a. Doubled b. Weight loss b. Trippled c. Flag sign c. Quadrupled d" Muscle wasting d. Variable increase 15" Prelacteal feed given iust after birth is: March 2009 7 A child of 3 years will be able to: March 2009 a. Colvs milk a. Copy circle b. Honey b. Ride bicycle c. Water c. Copy cross d" None d. Copy triangle 16. All of the following are the features of scurvy except: 8. A child of 4 years can do all of the following except: SePtenfuer 2009 Smtember 2009 a. Skip a. Hyperkeratosis b. Goes down stairs one foot per step b" Ecchymosis of lower limbs c. Tell a story c" Hypoglycemia d. Copies triangie d" Bleeding gums
  • 121. Paediatrics 17. A child of age 9 needed prophylaxis of vitamin A. 25. A 32 weeks premature, healthy infant weighing less The dose and route of administration is: than 1kg is having jaundice with serum bilirubin Scpternber 2009 level of 5 mg%. Ideal management in such a case.,,,,i",i a. 1,00,000 IU intramuscularly would be: Septenber 2A06]r:i:;,.1:]i b. 1,00,000IU orally a. Observation :.,,::,.:, c. 2,00,000 IU intramuscularly b. Phototherapyii,*.;;i d. 2,00,000 IU orally c. Medical management:rlirii .- ..: :). L8. Breast feeding should be initiated with in: d. Erchange transfusion: iiit51 SePtember 2009 26. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the followingtj.iyi., . 1 :T,: a. Half an hour except: September 2@7 :l. b. Onehour a. Lecithin:sphingomyelinnratio c. One and a half hour b. Foam stability index d. Trgo hour c. Maternal alpha feto-prctein levcl 19. Acute malnutrition in a chiid is clinically assessed by: d. Amniotic fluid phosphatidl,lcholine level Srytentber 2005 27. Most common cause of pathological jaundice on first a. Body mass index day of life is: Nlarch 2008 b. Weight for age a. Physiologic c. Height for age b. Biliary atresia d. Weight for height c. Rh incompatibility t U)t d. Sepsis ()11 NEWBORN 28. Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal Ei 20. Which of the following condition doesnt present 2006 jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second Fii with cyanosis at birth: Septenfuer week: September 20A8 <:i b. Transposition of great vessels a. TOF a. Rhesusincompatibility 6ii c. PDA b. Hypothyroidism llJ ri c. Jaundice due to breast milk <t CL r 21. d. Tricuspid atresia True about administration of corticosteroids for fetal d. Galactosemia lung maturity all of the following except: 29. Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is: SePtember 2007 March 2010 a. Repeat dose if the rvomen remains undelivered a. Congenital malformations after the first course b. Birth injuries b. Decreased risk of enterocolitis and intracranial c. Prematurity haemorrhage d. Inbom error of metabolism c. Contra-indicated in eclampsia 30. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all of the d. Indicated in women with preterm labor between following except: March 2010 24-34 weeks of gestation a. Crigler Najjar Syndrome 22. All of the following are components of APGAR score b. Physiological jaundice except: SEtember 2008 c. Dubin-fohnson syndrome a. Heart rate d" Gilbert syndrome b. Respiratory efforts c. BP CONCENITAL DISORDER d. Muscle tone 31" All of the following are associated with Down 23. Physiological jaundice in a term baby lasts upto: syndrome except: March 2010 Marclt 2005 €t September 2010 a" Sensory hearing loss a. 4 days b. VSD b. 7 da7,s c. Hypothyroidism c. 10 days d. Duodenal atresia d. t4 days
  • 122. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination32. Which of the following is associated with Down 38. Kopliks spots are seen in: Septembet 2008 syndrome: March 2014 a. Typhoid a. Raised PAPP-A level b. Measles b. Decresed beta-HCG level c. Mumps c. Raised estriol level d. Polio d. Decreased AFP level PEDIATRIC ONCOLOGYCVS DISORDERS 39. Which of the following is the most common All of the following are features of chest radiography malignancy of the childhood: March 200833. in Tetralogy of fallot excePtr September 2007 a. CLL a. Boot shaped heart shadow b. ALL $ b. In 80% right sided arch of aorta c. CML i c. Oligemic lung fields d. AML d. Right atrial enlargement MISCELLANEOUS34. Which of the following step is least useful in the in: March 2007 40. Decreased LAP score is found management of TOF: March 2010 a. Leukaemoid reaction a. Anastomosis of a systemic artery with pulmonary b. Myelofibrosis artery c. Pemicious anemia b. Modified Blalock-Taussig shrmt i-u d. Polycythemia c. Administer 100% oxygen 41. Characteristic of achild with acute post-streptococcal r> d. None of the above rm 35. Most common cause of death in aortic stenosis glomerulonephritis is: a. Leucocytosis March 2005 :tl patients is: March 2005 b. Fever ;> a. Pulmonary edema c. Raised ASO titre :{ b. Atrial flutter ,:,4 d. Pedal edema c. IHD with ventricular fibrillation d. Cerebral embolism 42. Basic abnormality in a case of nephritic syndrome is: io t(n SePtember 2008 36. Congestive heart failure is seen in all of the following except: September 2007 a. Hyperlipidemia a. TAPVC b. Proteinuria b. TOF c. Pedal edema c. Coarctation of aorta d. Hypertension d. PDA 43. A 5 year boy presented with massive haemetemesis He is not febrile. Per abdomen examination revealed INFECTIOUS DISEASES massive splenomegaly without hepatomegaly Most 37. Commonest virus causing diarrhea in infants is: probable diagnosis would be: March 2005 SePtember 2006 a. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis a. Poliovirus b. Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction b. Adenovirus c. Budd-Chiarislndrome c. Rotavirus d. Hepatic carcinoma d. Rhabdovirus
  • 123. ASSESSMENT OB STETRICS (Questions)OBSTETRICS ANATOMY 9. Polyhydroaminosis is volume of amniotic fluid more1. The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower than: Seplember 2005 border of pubis corresponds to: Mnrch 2009 a. 1000 ml a" Transverseconjup;ate b. 2000 ml b. True conjugate c. 3000 ml c. Diagonal conjugate d. 4000 ml d. Obstetric conjugate 10. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound can2. Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of be done at: Septenfuer 2005 inlet: Mlarch 2009 a. 5 weeks of gestation a. Obstetric conjugate b. 8 weeks of gestation b. Diagonal conjugate c. 10 rteeks of gesi:ation c. True conjugate d. 14 weeks of gestation d. Transverse conjugate 11. True regarding pre-exposure tetanus immunization3. Largest fetal head diameter: March 2009 are all except: September 2005 a. Occipitofrontal b. a. If already immunized, a booster in the last trimester -suboccipitofrontal is advocated c. Mentovertical el d. Submentovertical b. Vaccine is given intramuscularly4. Pelvis with only one ala is known as: March 2010 c. Tetanus immunoglobulin is injected to the mother a. Rachitic pelvis d. 2 doses are recommended b. Naegeles pelvis 12. Placenta Praevia is characterized by all of the c. Scoliotic pelvis following except: September 2005 d. Roberts pelvis a. Painless bleeding b. Causeless bleedingANTENATAL PERIOD c. Presents in first trirnester5. Most common type of vertex presentation: d. Recurrent bleeding March 2005 13. A pregnant lady in her first trimester presents with a. Right Occipito Posterior vaginal bleeding. On examination the os is closed and b. Left Occipito posterior uterine size corresponds to the period of c. Right Occipito Anterior amenorrhoea.The condition could be: September 2005 d. Left occipito anterior6. Pregnant lady presents with fulminant hepatitis. Most a. Septic abortion Common Cause: March 2005, September 20L0 b. Compiete abortion a. Hepatitis D c. Inevitable abortion b. Hepatitis E d. Threatend abortion c. Hepatitis B 14. Post term pregnancy is the pregnancy which continues d. Hepatitis A beyond: September 20067. Hydramnios is complicated by all except: March 2005 a. 274days a. Placenta abruptio b. 284 days b. Pre-eclampsia c. 294days c" Postdated pregnanry d. 304 days d. Atonic Hemorrhage 15. Ideal time for screening of blood sugar for diabetes in8" Painless, heavy, recurrent bleeding of sudden onset is a pregnant female is: September 2006 seen ln: Mnrch 2005 a. 1.6-20 weeks a. Cervical carcinoma b. 20-24weeks b. Circumvallate placenta c. 24-28 weeks c. Placenta praevia d" 72-16rveeks d. Abruptio placentae
  • 124. Obstetrics 15. During pregnancy/ maximum urinary HCG level is 23. Which Ig crosses through placenta: September 20Ag reached in: March 2007 a. IgA a. 30 days b. IgE b. 50 days c. IgG c. 70 days d. IgM d. 90 days 24. Fetal adrenals release which hormone predominantlrn 17 . A 32 w-eeks pregnant lady presents in emergency room a" Oestrogen March 2009, September 20fi with continuous bleeding per vaginum.The uterus is b. Testosterone painful and tender.Most likely diagnosis is: c. Aldosterone September 2007 d. Cortisone a. Circumvallate placenta 25. tlltrasound is done in 1st trimester for all except: b. Rupture of membranes March 2009 c. Placenta praveia a. Mulfiple pregnancy d. Accidental hemorrhage b. Fetal anomalies 18. Type of anemia in pregnancy is: September 2007 c. To estimate gestational age a. Megaloblastic d. To know the position of the placenta b. Microrytic hypochromic 26. Maximal level of cardiac output is seen at: c. Microcyticnormochromic d. Normochromic normorytic September 2A09 a. 22-26 weeks of pregnancyU)i: 19. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant b. 26-30 weeks of pregnancyO.Ir:i women requiring long term antihypertensive therapy: c" 30-34 weeks of pregnancytrii Seotember 2007 d. 3+38 weeks of pregnancyF$ a. Nifedipine Congenital anomalies that can be identified by USGut i, b. Metaprolol 27.F,"q c. Methyldopa are all except: September 2009u) !:: d. Hydralazine a. Hydrops fetalism,i 20" True about abruptio placentae are all except b. Esophageal atresiao::, c. Anencephaly- iri September2))8 ;: ri a. Hypertension in the pregnancy is important d. Cystic hygroma ir predisposing factor 28. pH of vagina in pregnancy is: September 2ffi9 .,,); b. Placenta lying in the lower segment a. 2-4 I c. Tender and hard uterus b. 4-6 a d. Continuous bleeding per vaginum c. 6-8 i 21. Most common cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy: d. 8-10 a: :,: September 2008 29. Uterus reaches up to umbilical level at: September 2009 a. Mitral regurgitation a. L6 weeks b. Mitral stenosis b. 20 weeks c. Tetralogy of fallots c. 24 weeks d. Patent ducfus arteriosus d. 28 weeks 22. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the following 30. Earliest fetal anomaly that can be diagnosed with ls: September 2008 USG: September 20N a. True conjugate a. Duodenal atresia b. Diagonal conjugate b. Fetal hydrops c. Interspinous diameter c. Downs symdrome d. Interfuberous diameter d. Anencephaly
  • 125. ::Ilj Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination*+ 31. Best time for diagnosing fetal abnormalities by USG: 38. Which of the following genital infections carries the ,:, September 20A9 highest risk for preterm delivery: March 2005 :.ii a. 6-12 weeks of pregnanry a. Trich.omonas vaginitis :ti b. 13-19 weeks ofpregnancy b. Monilial vaginitis * c. 20-26 weeks of pregnancy c. Bacterial vaginitis d. 27-32 weeks of pregnanry d. Human papilloma virus 32. Term for relation of different parts of the fetus to one 39. During pregnanct fibroid may have all o{ the f ollowing complications except: March 2009 another: SEtember 2009 a. Fetal station a. Metastasis b. Fetal attitude b. Pain c. Fetal lie c. Post partum hemorrhage d. Fetal presentation d. Preierm iabour 33. Vaccine not contraindicated in pregnancy are all LABOR except: March 2010 40. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral a. Rabies episiotomy are all except: March 2005 :, b. Hepatitis B a. Less blood loss ].: ;t c. Yellow fever b. easy repair :!, d. Hepatitis A c. extension of the incision is easy i 34. Increase seen in plasma volume in pregnancy: d. muscles are not cut *o March 2010 41. Progress of the labour is assessed with the help of *w a. 1.0-20"/o March 2005 ltUt b. 20-30o/o a. Cervicograph ${ ..*ITl c. 30-400/" b. Partogram f"{ d. 40-s0% c. Dilatation chart i,7 35. Change noticed in diastolic blood pressure in d. Growth curve !o pregnancy is: March 2010 42. Bishops classification is used for: March 2005 iU, a. Decline of 10-20 mm of Hg a. Progress oflabour :i b. Requirement of induction for labour ! b. Decline of 5-10 mm of Hg c. Elevation of L0-20 mm of Hg c. Gestational age of fetus i .i; d. Elevation of 5-10 mm of Hg d" Fetal well bein 43. A hypertensive primigravida with completely 36. Increase in cardiac output seen in pregnancy is: subsided pre-eclamptic feafures,pregnancy should be March 2010 continued at least upto: September 2005 a" 10% a. 35 week b. 20"/" b. 37 week c. 30% c. 39 week d. 40% d. 40 week 37.True regarding rubella infection in pregnancy is: 44. Which of the following is seen in 2nd stage of labor: March 20L0 September 2005 a. Risk of congenital infection is more in last trimester a. Expulsion of the fetus b. Vaccination is indicated in pregnanry for protection b. Increase in contraction c. IgM antibodies in fetus reflects immunity c. Cervical dilatation d, It is caused by DNA virus d. All of the above
  • 126. Obstetrics 45. A full-term multigravida is having breech 52. Ideal management of a37 weeks pregnant elderly presentation. Ideal management in this case would be: primigravida with placenta praevia and active Sextentber 2006 bleeding: September 2007 a. Elective caesarean section a. Labour induction b. External cephalic version followed by vaginal b. Caesarean section delivery c. Vaginal deiivery c. Trial of labour d. Expectant treatment d. Extemal cephalic version followed caesarean section 53. Successful trial of labour can be expected in: 46. External cephalic version is conhaindicated all of the following except: September 2006 March2wl a. Antepartum hemorrhage a. Android pelvis b. Multiple pregnancy b. Naegeles pelvis c. Breech presentation c. Flat pelvis d. ltupfured membranes d. Generally contracted pelvis 47.True labour pains is represented by: Septenber 2006 54. Contra-indications to ergometrine are all except: a. Pain and discomfort in the abdomen Mqrch 2AA8 b. Shot a. Suspected muitiple pregnancy c. Relieved by enema ans administration of sedative b. Cardiac problems d. Dull in nature c. Atonic uterine bleeding "U 48. Pressure in ventcuse assisted delivery is: d. Rh-negative mother(J September 2006 Which of the following is not parameter in Bishopst i:F a. 0.4 kgisq"cm 55. score: a March 2N9 :, b 0.6 kg/sq.cmIJJ ,,: c. 0.8 kg/sq.cm a. CervicalconsistencyF .:. d. 1.0 kg/sq.cm b. Station of headaI 49. Shoulder dystocia results in the following except: c. Position of headm d. Cervical lengtho ". a Erbs palsy March 2007 56. Drug which is contraindicated before 2nd stage of labor is: March 2009 ., b. Klumpkes palsy , c. Sternomastoid swelling a. Mifepristone . d. Anencephaly b. Oxytocin ., 50. Shoulder dystocia is seen predominantly in: c. Misoprostol : March 2007 d. Ergometrine a. 57. Contraindication for applying forceps: March2N9 .l Transverse lie ,, b. Cord around neck a. crowning of head c. Anencephaly b. head station +1 o. r|ano Prolapse c. maternal cardiac disease-.i.:,* 5l.Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except: d. CPD, ,. SePtcmber 2007 58. Causes of prolonged first stage of labor are all except 1. a. Aftercoming head of breech March 2a09.ffi b. Thereshouldbeno CPD a. Weak uterine contractions;,.ii,{ c. Saggital suture should be in line with transverse b. CPD diameter of pelvis c. Rigid perineum d. Foetal head should be engaged d. Transverse presentation,&i,$.,.,ii-:.,iiji:.r ,,a.,,,t ,
  • 127. Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination59. Cord cutting should be delayed in which condition: 66. Retained placenta can lead to: September 2005 Se1ttember 2009 a. Placental polyp a. IUGR b. Proionged bleeding b. Sever anemia c. Puerperal sepsis c. Rh incompatibility d. All of the above d. Asphp<ia 67. Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is60. The average blood loss in normal delivery is: commonly due to: September 2005 September 2009 a. Traumatic a. 250 ml b. Uterine atony b. 500 ml c. BIood coagulopathy c. 750 ml d. Mixed causes d. 1000 ml 68. Low birth weight baby is defined as baby weighing:61. Ideal management of 37 lveeks uncomplicated breech Septembet 2.006 pregnancy is: March 20L0 a. Spontaneous vaginal delivery a. 1000 gm b. Elective caesarean section b. 1500 gm c. External cephalic version and trial of vaginal c. 2000 gm delivery d. 2500 gm d. External cephalic version followed caesarean secfion 59. Most common cause of uterojvesical fistula in India:62. All are done in 3d stage of labour except: March 2010 a. Injection of ergometrine a. Pelvic Surgery Septemher 2006 io ]TD b. Cord clamping b. Obstructed labour ,;a c. Massage of uterus c. Tumours ,.{ d. lnjection of oxytocin d. Tuberculosis .:JTI63. A primigravida with vertex presentation is having j{ 70. Drugs used to control post partum hemorrhage are all fully dilated cervix. Head is well engaged and is except: September 2007 ,,4 having a station of +2. Foetal heart monitoring shows a. Prostaglandin analogue :lo tu, late deceleration. Most appropriate management in b. Oxytocin such a case would be: September 2009 a. Observation c. Progesterone b. Vacuum extraction d. Ergotmetrine c. Forceps application 71. All of the following are signs of uterine scar d. Immediate Caesarean dehiscence except: September 2009 a. TachycardiaPOST NATAL PERIOD b. Fetal distress64. After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta, patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would c. Strong uterine contractions include all except: d. Falling BP March 2005 a. Check for placenta in uterus 72. A woman with a history of repeated abortions gave b. Check for laceration of labia birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is having c. APGAR scoring rashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probable d. Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin diagnosis is September 200965. AntiD Rh is given for: September 2005 a. Congenital HIV a. Rh positive father,Rh positive mother b. Congenital syphilis b. Rh negative father,Rh positive mother c. Congenital rubella c. Rh negative father,Rh negative mother d. Pemphigus d. Rh positive father,Rh negative mother
  • 128. Obstetrics 73. Percentage of scar dehiscence in lower uterine 80. Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy: March 200? segment caesarean section is: September 2009 a. Previous tubal disease a. 0.1-2% b. Oral contraceptives b. 2-5% c. IUCD c. 5-9"/" d. Endometriosis d. More than 10% 81. Method of termination of pregnancy in first trimester are all of the following except: September 2007 74. Involution of uterus occurs at the rate of: a. Ethyl dacryryanate Swtember 2009 b. Misoprostol + Mifepristone a. 1.0 cm/day c. Methotrexate + Misoprostol b. 1.25 cm/day d. Suction and evacuation c. L.5 cm/day 82. True regarding gestational trophoblastic neoplasia are d. 2.0 cm/day all except: March 2009 75, Most common cause of post partum hemorrhage: a. pHCG is highly elevated in both the forms of molar September 2009 preSnancy a. Trauma b. Classical svmptoms are only seen with complete b. Uterine atony moles c. Tumours c. The genotype is 46XX i! majority of complete moles ii d. Blood coagulopathy d. The genotypes is 69XXY in majority of incompleteU)ili moles()ltj MISCELLANEOUS 83. Not associated with twin pregnancy: March20ffi 76.Exact number of weeks between last menstnral periodtr$-.ij: a. Pre-eclampsiaF;: ILMPI and expected date of delivery [EDD]: b. OligohydramniosIJJ I March 2005 c. Antepartum hemorrhageFrt(,):i a. 38 weeks d. Atonic uterus b. 39 weeks 84. All of the following are associated with pathogenesisdl,i c. 40 weeks of acute hydrops fetalis except: September 2009o.li d. 41 weeks a. Hypoproteinemia ; 77.Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian b. Anemia ir :!: il tube: March 2005 c. Hypoplasia of placental tissue ;i a. Infundibulum d. Metabolic acidosis il ,( b. ampulla 85. If division of fertilized egg takes place in between F8 c. isthmus days. It would give rise to which kind of twin i d. interstitium pregnancy: March 2009 :i 78. Treatment for choice for fubal pregnancy with no a. Monochorionic/monoamniotic ,:i, .,r!r: evidence of bleeding or rupfure: September 2005 b" Monochorionic/diamniotic a. Salpingectomy c. Dichorionic/monoamniotic b. Salpingostomy d. Siamese twins c. Observation 86. Which of the following is not a manifestation of d. Salpingocentesis neonatal tetanus: September 20N 79. Misoprostol is indicated in all of the following except: a" Irrritability a. Postpartumhemorrhage September 2005,2010 b. Hypotonia b. Missed abortion c. Difficult feeding c. Induction of labour d. Facial grimacing d. Menorrhagia
  • 129. ESSMENT GYNAECOLOGY (Questions) d. IUCDGYNAECOLOCY ANATOMY CYNAECOLOCY-INFECTION1" The mucosal lining in vagina is composed of: March 2005 9. Gold standard investigation in diagnosing PID is: March2005 a. Transitional b. Ciliated columnar a. Anti chlamYdial Ab c. Stratified squamous non keratinized b. LaParoscoPY d. Pseudostratified columnar c. USG d. Blood leucocYte count2. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical mucus: March 2007 10. Which of the following condition is most iikely to be associated with vaginal PH of 4 : September 2009 a. Progesterone b. Estrogen a. AtroPhic vaginitis c. LH b. Trichomanas vaginatis d. Prolactin c. Candidal Iaginitis3, Commonest uterine anomalY is: March2007 d. Gardenelia vaginitis a. Uterus unicomis L1. A female presented with thick white discharge and b. Uterus bicomis pruritus. aetiological agent fu: September 2009 c. Uterus didelPhYs a. Gardnerella d. SubsePtate uterus b. Trichomonas vaginalis CONTRACEPTIVES c. Candida 4. Contraceptive which is supplied by government free d. Gonococci of cost: SePtember 2006 GYNAECOLOCY-ONCOLOGY a. MiniPill bleeding 12. A 46years old lady has abnormal uterine b. Norplant of endometrium The c. Mala-N with simple hyperplasia d. Centchroman treatment of choice would be: March 2005 5. Pearl index is used to calculate: March September 2009 a. Total HYsterectomY a. Accidental Pregnancies b. Progestron b" PoPulation c. Estrogen+ Progestogen c. FertilitY rate d. Estrogen d. Abortions 13. Meigs syndrome is associated with ovarian: Sevtember 2006 6. Levonorgestrol containing IUCD Prevents Pregnancy primarilY due to: March 2007 a. Teratoma a. Making endometrium unrecePnve b. Brenner tumour b. Suppressing ovulation c. Fibroma c. tiiatittg inflammatory changes within the d. Theca cell tumour endometrium March 2007 14. Most com{non cervical carcinoma: d. Making cervical mucus thin a. Adenocarcinoma March 2010 7. Teehnique of Cu-T insertion: b. Sarcoma a. Surgery under local anaesthesia c. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Surgery under general anaesthesia d. Small cell carcinoma c" Pushing is highest with the 15. The risk of endometrial carcinoma d. LaparotomY is: September 2006 following histological pattern of endometrial - 8. Conventional contracePtion March 2A07 a. OCP hyperplasia: b. Surgical sterilization a. Simple hyperplasia nith atyPia c. Condoms b. Simple hvperplasia without atypta
  • 130. self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination c. Complex hyperplasia with atypia c. Unicornuate uterus d. Complex hyperplasia without atyPia d. Imperforate hYmen in picking up 24. Estrogen deficiencY leads to: September 200516. Sensitivity of conventional PAP smear cervical cancer is: SEtember 2007 a. PostmenoPausalbleeding a. 70% b. Decreased risk of cardiovascular diseases b. 80% c. OsteoPorosis c. 90% d. Dysmenorrhea d. 100% 25. Hirsuitism is seen in all except: Septembet 2007 201-0 17. Not useful for diagnosis, in a female of 55 years a. AcromegalY presenting with postmenopausal bleeding: b. Hyperthyroidism Seatember 2009 c. Arrhenoblastoma a. Transvaginal USG d. PCOD b. Postcoital test 26. Laparoscopy is the diagnostic procedure of choice for: c. Pap smear March 2008 d. Endometrial bioPsY a. Ca uterus18. Endometrial carcinoma with vaginal metastasis,what b. Ca cervix i FIGO stage would it be : September 2009 c. Ca rectum ; a. Stage III a b. Stage III b d. Endometriosis 1 :o c. Stage III c 27.78year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, i< d. Stage IV a normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary 2Z 19. Therapeutic conisation is indicated inl. September 2009 hair.Condition is: September 2009 t> a. Tumer s}ndrome $m a. CIN IiI b. Mullerian agenesis {o b. Cervical metaPlasia c. Microinvasive carcinoma c. Premature ovarian failure io i1- d. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia d. Testicular feminizing syndrome io 20. Treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma: 28. Not seen in anorexia nervosa: September 2009 *o SePtember 2009 a. Osteoporosis *< a. Observation b. Refusal to feeds g { b. HysterectomY c. Weight loss * c. Chemotherapy with Methotrexate d. Menorrhagia $ .{ in manchester operation: September 2009 d. RadiotheraPY 29, Preserved I 21. Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3d of vagina a. Full length of cervix g The stage would be: September 2009 b. Competenry of os a. Stage II a c. FertilitY b. Stage II b d" Menstruation c. Stage III a 30. Most important part of post operative management of d. Stage III b vesico vaginal fistula is: September 2009 MISCELLANEOUS a. Complete bed rest 22. Colposcopy is used to visualize all except: March 2405 b. Acidification of urine a. Upper 2/3d endocervix c. Continuous bladder drainage b. Lower 1/3d endoCervix