1. 1- the following substances are freely transferred across the placenta
There are many drugs that freely cross the placenta including the oral hypoglycaemic
agents hence insulin is preferred in pregnancy. Warfarin also ocross the placenta
hence the preferred use of heparin. Glucose a nutrient obviously cross the placenta.
IgG pass but not IgM pass placenta. Thyroxine does not cross the placenta hence the
reason for not using a block and replace regimen for treating thyrotoxicosis as
carbimazole and propyl thiouracil does cross the placenta.
2- in a consanguineous marriage
a- the risk of a serious disease or defect is double that for an unrelated mating. (true)
b-the risk of recurrence for autosomal recessive disorders is 50%.(false)
c-there is an increased risk of producing mentally retarded child. (true)
d-when it is between second cousins, does not carry an increased risk. (true)
e-there is an increased risk of producing a deaf child. (true)
Consanguinity (marriage to a blood relative) is associated with an increased risk of
inherited disorders, birth defects as down syndrome and tends to be approximately
double that of unrelated couples but not near 50%. This risk is attenuated as
relationship between partners becomes more distant.
3-Autoimmune addison's disease is associated with
a-premature ovarian failure. (true)
e-Sjogren's syndrome. (true)
e-in 47% of patients with autoimmune Addison's disease at least one other
autoimmune disorder was present. Primary hypothyroidism has the highest prevalence
(20%) followed by vitiligo(9%), non toxic goiter, premature menopause, grave's
disease, pernicious anaemia, sjogren's disease, hypoparathyroidism,type 1 diabetes
mellitus and celiac disease.
4- the following drugs cause hypokalemia
a- commencement of digoxin for atrial fibrillation.(false)
c-salbutamol for asthma. (true)
d-vitamin B12 for the treatment of pernicious anaemia. (true)
2. e-cimetidine for duodenal ulcer.(false)
a-only toxicity of digoxin cause toxicity.
c-especially high dose in nebulisers for acute asthma.
d-paarticularly at the beginning of the treatment.
5-Regarding the climacteric menopause
a-the average age of the menopause in the united kingdom is about 50 years. (true)
b-demineralization of bones take place after the menopause. (true)
c-the level of prolactin rises after the last period.(false)
d-the severity of flushing has been shown to be related to the level of oestrogen in the
e-clinical studies have shown that the later the menarche the earlier the
Average age for menopause is approximately 50 years and is associated with sharp
reduction in bone mineral density and increase in cardiovascular risk
c- it falls.
d-there is no relationship with severity. The presence of sweating is more likely in
women with low oestrogen level
e-no relation between menarche and menopause.
12-hypoparathyroidism is associated with
a-increased incidence of Addison's disease. (true)
b-chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. (true)
c-basal ganglia calcification commonly causing parkinsonism. (false)
d-short 4th and 5th metacarpals.(false)
e-good response of hypocalcaemia to calcium and vitamin D treatment (true)
a-Hypoparathyroidism is associated with Addison,s disease.
c- short 4th and 5th metacarpals is associated with pseudohyperparathyroidism.
d-basal ganglia calcification is common but usually cause chorea.
e- the condition is treated buy vitamin D.
a-Stimulates gastric acid secretion in response to meals (true)
b-stimulates the growth of cells in the gastric mucosa. (true)
c-is predominantly produced by G cells located in the pancreas (false)
d-levels are decreased in atrophic gastritis(pernicious anaemia) (false)
e-stimulates insulin secretion particularly after a carbohydrate meal. (false)
3. The main action of gastrin is stimulation of gastric acid and pepsin secretion and
stimulation of growth of mucosa of the stomach and intestine.It is produced by G cells
in the gastric antrum ,duodenum, fetal pancreas and in adults with pancreatic tumors
as gastrinoma .Levels are increased in conditions of low acid production e.g:atrophic
gastritis and proton pump inhibitor therapy due to loss of negative feed back.
Gastrin levels only reach high enough levels following a protein meal to stimulate
14-Galactorhoea may be caused by treatment with
Hyperprolactinaemia caused by dopamine antagonism (TCA, major tranquilizers,
haloperidol, high dose SSRI may push up prolactin producing galactorrhoea
a-levodopa does not cause hyperprolactinaemia but methyl dopa does.
d-causes of gynaecomastia but not galactorrhoea (not cause hyperprolactinaemia)
15-Sulphonyl urea therapy:
a-may increase weight.(true)
b-is useful in all type 2 diabetics.(false)
c-enhances glucose stimulated insulin release from the pancreas. (true)
d-stimulates peripheral glucose utilization. (false)
e-has hyponatraemia as a side effect (true)
Sulphonylurea therapy stimulate insulin secretion from the beta cells of pancreas
through potassium channel opening . metformin cause increased glucose utilization .
These agents may cause SIADH.
16- drugs which can be given in near normal dosage in severe renal failure include
a- benzyl penicillin. (false)
Drugs whose concentration may accumulate in renal failure include digoxin (digitoxin
metabolized by liver),streptomycin,penicillin,statins,furosomide,doxycycline can
worsen renal failure.
17-Hypercalcaemia is associated with:
4. b-secondary hyperpaprathyroidism. (false)
c-excessive absorbable alkali reserve. (true)
e-acute adrenal failure. (true)
Hypercalcaemia may occur in association with hyperpaprathyroidism, vitaminosis D,
sarcoidosis, Addison's disease, milk alkali syndrome,thyrotoxicosis. Secondary
hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia with chronic renal failure and
impairment of 1 alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidneys.
18-Testicular feminization syndrome
a-is characterisedby XXY chromosomal pattern. (false)
b-have a female phenotype. (true)
c-is associated with low serum testosterone levels (false)
d-have undetectable serum oestrogen concentrations (false)
e-is an x-linked disorder. (true)
a-it is XY.
Testicular feminization syndrome or androgen insensitivity syndrome(AIS) is when a
person has XY genotype but is resistant to androgens. As a result the individual has
some or all of the physical characteristics of a woman, despite having genetic make
up of a man. Its types complete and incomplete. Complete AIS results in someone
who looks as a female. In incomplete AIS the degree of sexual ambiguity varies
widely from individual to other. Testosterone concentrations are in normal male range
but the receptor defect prevents the testosterone from exerting its effects. Oestradiol
concentrations are measurable and produced from the peripheral conversion of
testosterone as well as by the gonads.
19- which of the following predispose to microbial invasion
a-urinary obstruction. (true)
b-ciliary dyskinesia. (true)
c-cystic fibrosis. (true)
d-skin ulceration. (true)
e-neutrophil deficiency. (true)
20-Autosomal dominant inheritance
a-25% of offspring are affected with an affected parent. (false)
b-is the mode of inheritance in multiple neurofibromatosis. (true)
c-afects both sexes equally. (true)
d-shows a pattern of vertical inheritance in a pedigree. (true)
e-always manifests at birth. (false)
5. Autosomal dominant conditions include huntington's chorea, achondroplasia, MEN
type 1. It affects both sexes equally and 50% of offspring are affected with an affected
21- In the treatment of cushing's disease
a-long term metyrapone may be used. (true)
b-cabergoline is used in patients unfit for surgery. (false)
c-after bilateral adrenalectomy, Nelson's syndrome is prevented by adequate
glucocorticoid replacement . (false)
d-recurrence of cd after transphenoidal surgery is virtually zero. (false)
e-yttrium implantation is indicated in the treatment of pituitary tumors compressing
the optic hiasma. (false)
Cushing's disease equates the pituitary dependant disorder while cushing syndrome
include all the other causes as ectopic and adrenal. Cabergoline is used in
prolactinomas not CD. Metyrapone blocks cortisol production. Recurrence after
pituitary surgery is of the order of 20-40%. Yttrium implantation is never used these
22-Polycystic ovary syndrome is characterized by
b-raised serum LH. (true)
c-raised serum testosterone. (true)
d-raised FSH. (false)
PCOS is characterized by hirsutism, oligomenorhoea(usually with normal oestrogen
concentration)and obesity. Insulin resistance is thought to play a major part in
evolution of oligomenorrhoea and contribute to elevated LH with normal FSH and a
slightly elevated testosterone.
23-Polymerase chain reaction(PCR)
a-can amplify RNA but not DNA. (false)
b-it is of no value in prenatal diagnosis. (false)
c-depends on thermostable taq DNA polymerase. (true)
d-requires primer bits either side. (true)
e-use heat to separate 2 strands of DNA. (True)
PCR allows amplification of small samples of DNA and through reverse transcriptase
RNA. It can be used for prenatal diagnosis of disease as cystic fibrosis.
d-this is a disadvantage because the primers have to be known.
24-Characteristic finding in anorexia nervosa are
6. a-a decrease in cortisol levels. (false)
b-increase in LH levels. (false)
c-impaired glucose tolerance. (true)
d-raised androgen levels. (false)
a-cortisol and growth hormones are elevated.
b-LH and FSH low and LH response to LHRH is impaired when weight loss is severe.
e-hypokalemia, hypoalbuminaemia, anaemia, leukopenuia, raised serum carotene.
25- Acidosis may result in
a-potassium retention. (true)
b-a rise in plasma chloride (true)
c-a low pCO2 . (true)
d-peripheral vasodilatation. (true)
Acidosis is associated with potassium retention and rise in chloride with maintainance
of the anion gap.Peripheral vasodilation occurs to improve oxygenation of
metabolizing tissue. Alkalosis is associated with tetany and reduction of ionized
calcium.in an effort to correct acidosis respiration increase with reduction of pCO2.
a-is associated with hypocalcuria due to elevated PTH levels . (false)
b-PTH is secreted in a pulsatile manner from the posterior pituitary and acts through
PTH receptors on parathyroid cell membranes . (false)
c-is usually caused by an adenoma of a single parathyroid gland. (true)
d-progresses to tertiary hyperparathyroidism with time. (false)
e-is associated with bone resorption by PTH to restore depressed serum calcium
levels to normal. (false)
Associated with hypercalcaemia, hypophosphataemia and there is usually
hypercalcuria. It is usually a consequence of a single adenoma but may be associate
with hyperplasia and rarely carcinoma where PTH concentrations may be particularly
d- secondary progress to tertiary.
27-Recognized features of acromegaly include:
b-intestinal polyposis. (true)
d-Palpable peripheral nerves. (true)
e-proximal myopathy. (true)
7. Features of acromegaly include large hands, feet, macroglossia, organomegaly and
b-compression of the optic chiasma may produce a bitemporal hemianopia.proximal
myopathy can occur as well as diabetes mellitus, glucose intolerance and
hypertension. Diagnosis on the basis o non suppression of GH concentrations with the
oral glucose tolerance test.
28-the following are true:
a-an elevated TSH level excludes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. (false)
b-free thyroxine levels are elevated in normal pregnancy. (false)
c-most circulating thyroxine s bound to thyroglobulin. (false)
d-phenytoin may reduce total thyroxine levels.(true)
e-amiodarone treatment may cause hyperthyroidism. (true)
Elevated normal TSH is expected in secondary hyperthyroidism.Total T4
concentrations are usually low or normal in normal pregnancy due to dilutional
effects. Best to regard the TSH concentration. However. Early pregnancy may be
associated with slight rise in T4 associated with elevated HCG which declines as
pregnancy progresses.75% of T4 is bound to thyroid binding globulin not
thyroglobulin.Phenytoin treatment of euthyroid patients results in a 30 to 40%
decrease in serum T4 and free T4 levels and either normal or slightly decreased levels
of T3 and free T3 .Amiodarone may cause hyper as well as hypothyroidism.
29-The following may be associated with hypocalcaemia:
c-restless legs. (false)
d-Peripheral neuropathy. (false)
And depression , raised ICP and prolonged QT interval.
30-the following cause multiple painful genital ulcers:
a-circinate balanitis. (false)
b-herpes simplex. (true)
d-Primary syphilis. (false)
e-granuloma inguinale. (false)
A+d+e usually are painless . Painful ulceration includes herpes simplex/zoster and
genital herpes. Behcet's disease,Reiter's,chancroid and gonocoocal disease.
31-raised aldosterone levels are found in:
a-normal pregnancy. (true)
8. b-renal artery stenosis. (true)
c-loop diuretics therapy. (true)
e-Liddle syndrome (false)
Aldosterone is elevated in association with reduced circulating
volumes,pregnancy,conn's syndrome,and raised with diuretic therapy (hence good
combination of diuretics and ACEI). Liddle's disease is a renal tubular defect due to
Na/K channels and is associated with hyporenninaemic hypoaldosteronism with
32-Which of the following are found in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
b-medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. (false)
MEN type 1 is associated with pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumours. MEN
type 2 is associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma.
a-is seen only in females. (true)
b-may have one chromosome as an isochromosome. (true)
c-is usually associated with severe mental retardation. (false)
d-pateints usually present with primary amenorrhoea. (true)
e-cannot be detected at birth. (false)
Turner syndrome XO is associated with a female phenotype with webbed neck,short
stature, cardiac abnormalities and streak gonads. Intelligence is usually unaffected.
34-In diabetic ketoacidosis:
a-leukocytosis is common and does not confirm infection. (true)
b-Amylase levels may be raised in the absence of pancreatitis. (true)
c-urinary stick testing for ketosis may be negative. (true)
d-plasma glucose may be low. (false)
e-a normal plasma potassium level excludes significant potassium defeicienc. (false)
DKA is typically associated with increased plasma glucose,leukocytosis,reduced
pH,bicarbonate, pCO2 and pO2. However it is well recognized that DKAmay still be
associated with normal or not so high eg:15mmol/L .Usually ketones are found in
urinebut occasionally are absent for reasons as impaired clearance during DKA. Due
9. to excess renal losses, total body potassium is typically low even if plasma potassium
35-Causes of anovulation include:
b-weight loss. (true)
d-polycystic ovary syndrome . (true)
Anovulation may occur in association with poly cystic ovarian syndrome,
anorexia/marked weight loss but is also associated with obesity.Hyperprolactnaemia
through negative feedback on gonadotrophes in the pituitary produces
hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and amenorrhoea. Propranolol is not associated
36-Karyotypic abnormalities are found in the following:
a-Huntington's disease. (true)
b-Burkitts lymphoma. (true)
c-Chronic granulocytic leukemia. (true)
e-Acute lymphocytic leukaemia. (true)
a-if very large number of triplet repeats.
d-autosomal recessive single gene defect.
37-Abnormal colouration of urine in absence of haematuria may be due to:
a-consumption of beetroot. (true)
b-treatment with codanthramer.( true)
d-porphyria cutanea tarda. (true)
e-acute intravascular haemolysis. (true)
b-may be pink if rifampicin or isoniazid
d-the urine is darker in porphyria cutanea tarda.It has red fluorescence under wood's
38-the following congenital abnormalities are associated with a characteristic
a-Klinefelter's syndrome. (true)
b-cri-du-chat syndrome. (true)
c-Ovarian dysgenesis. (true)
d-Pierre-Robin syndrome. (false)
10. e-meningomyelocoele. (false)
Klinefelter's syndrome-XXY,cri-du-chat deletion chromosome 5p.
Turner /gonadal dysgenesis-XO.
39-Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:
a-Burkitt's lymphoma. (true)
b-Cervical neoplasia. (false)
c-nasopharyngeal carcinoma. (true)
e-autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. (true)
b-No association with cervical neoplasia unlike human papilloma virus.
c-Anaplastic nasopharyngeal carcinoma.common in SE china, virtually all cases have
evidence of EBin the tumour tissue.
d-infectious mononucleosis usually severe pharyngitis.
e-usually resolves after 1-2 months.
40-The following drugs in pharmaceutical doses have been shown to cause a rise in:
a-thiazide diuretics. (true)
Drugs that may cause hperglycaemia include: corticosteroids, thiazides, glucagon.
Atenolol is associated with hypoglycaemia.
Gliclazide is an oral hypoglycaemic
b-it causes a fall.
c-It causes a fall.
41-Causes of metabolic acidosis include:
b-thiazide diuretics. (false)
d-pyloric stenosis. (false)
b-can cause metabolic alkalosis.
c-may be caused by diversion of glutamate metabolism to the liver and the consequent
bicarbonate consuming effect of hepatic ureagenesis.
11. d-an important cause of metabolic alkalosis.
e-biguanides however are associated with lacticacidosis.
The primary host response to bacterial infectionsis dependant on mononuclear
phagocytes and neutrophils. T-lymphocytes are involved in cell mediated acquired
immune responses where as B-lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity and
T-lymphocytes compose the majority of circulating lymphocytes in plasma.
Epstein-Barr virus infects B-lymphocytes and squamous epithelial cells of the
oropharynx. The virus can transform B cells and epithelial cells to produce Burkitt's
lymphoma, a subset of hodgkin's lymphoma.Nasopharyngeal carcinoma and oral
hairy leukaemia. T cell lymphoma makes up 10 to 20% of non Hodgkin lymphoma
and has a worse prognosis than B cell lymphoma.
43-The action of noradrenaline released at sympathetic nerve endings is terminated
a-enzymatic decarboxlation. (false)
b-enzymatic inactivation by catechol O methyl transferase. (false)
c-re-uptake of nordrenaline by the axonal terminals. (true)
d-oxidative deamination by monoamine oxidase. (false)
e-it is removed by the circulating blood. (false)
Popular pathway to be asked .
44-which of the following conditions are a consequence of chromosomal aberrations:
a-fragile X syndrome. (true)
c-Cri du chat syndrome. (true)
d-Osteogenesis imperfect. (false)
e-Down's syndrome. (true)
Fragile X syndrome is due to micodeletions on the X chromosom giving the
appearance of fragile notch in this chromosome. Cri du chat is due to a deletion in 5p.
Down's syndrome may be due to trisomy of chromosome 21 or translocation of 14 to
21. OI is autosomal recessive as is phenylketonuria.
45-Side effects of alpha methyl dopa include:
b-visual disturbance. (false)
d-nasal congestion. (true)
12. Also haemoytic anaemia, weight gain, GI
46-In the normal neonate:
a-the white cell count may be 25x10(9). (true)
b-haemoglobin F is the predominant haemoglobin. (true)
c-The platelet count is in the normal adult range. (true)
d-nucleated red cells are rarely seen in the peripheral blood. (false)
e-the mean cell volume is greater than 100 fl. (true)
a-the number of chromosomes is halved. (false)
b-anaphase lag may produce turner syndrome. (true)
c-the stage of metaphase shows separation of whole chromosome. (false)
d-non disjunction increases with decreasing maternal age. (false)
e-an abnormal plane of division of the chromatids produce isochromosomes. (true)
Each time new cells are produced there is a mitotic cycle it must go through. They are
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
48-Which of the following organelles have their own self replicating DNA:
e-rough ER. (false)
Mitochondria have DNA and give rise to maternally inherited disease as
mitochondrial myopathies, red ragged fibres, DIDMOAD syndrome, wolfram disease
a-is more common than hyperthyroidism . (false)
b-is associated with low serum carotene. (false)
c-is a cause of pericardial effusion. (true)
d-may present with cerebellar ataxia. (true)
e-is associated with a reduced CSF protein. (false)
Hyperthyroidism is 8 times commoner.
13. 50-Common features of cushing's syndrome due to adrenal carcinoma include:
a-retarded growth in children. (true)
c-subconjunctival oedema. (true)
d-marked hyperpigmentation. (false)
e-supraclavicular fat pads. (true)
Adrenal carcinoma and cushing are rare.typically more than 4 cm. Growth retardation
due to increased cortisol is typical in children. Co secretion of androgen may produce
clitoromegaly.Typical features of Cushing include fat pad or buffalo hump,thin skin,
easy bruising and subconjunctival oedema
d-this may be seen in Cushing's syndrome due to ectopic ACTH.
a-selective gonadotrohin deficiency may be present. (true)
b-concomitant diabetes inspidus may be masked by anterior pituitary failure.(true)
c-adrenal steroid replacement must be started before thyroid replacement. (true)
d-mineralocorticoid replacement is usually necessary. (false)
e-in men,androgen replacement will cause masculinisation and restore fertility. (false)
Hypopituitarism is typically caused by a non functional pituitary tumour with a staged
loss of hormones first GH then LH and FSH then ACTH and finally TSH.The
secretion of aldosterone is unaffected as it depend on rennin secretion.Testosterone
restores masculinatoin but not fertility.
a-Cannot confidently be diagnosed before the age of 3 months. (false)
b-is in some cases associated with a goiter. (true)
c-affects approximately 1 in 10,000 infants. (false)
d-may present with jaundice.(true)
e-requires thyroxine treatment fro life. ( true)
Diagnosis is possible within neonatal period, a goiter may be seen in the child and the
disorder affects 1:3500 births.Jaundice, hypotonia, growth retardation and appearance
may prompt diagnosis. Causes include embryological or congenital abnormalities plus
maternal drugs thionamides.
a-is contraindicated in breast feeding mothers. (false)
b-may cause lymphadenopathy. (true)
c-is a prodrug. (true)
d-may cause reversible agranulocytosis. (true)
e-is teratogenic. (false)
14. It may be used in breastfeeding although the dose needs to be the low as the drug is
excreted in breast milk.
It is converted to methimazole which can cause a serum sickness like adverse effect
It is used in pregnancy and is not teratogenic.But the dose again needs to be
minimized to avoid neonatal hypothyroidism.
54-The following enzymes are involved in the synthesis of the neurotransmitterswith
which hey are paired:
a-cholinesterase: acetylcholine. (false)
b-dopa decarboxylase :noradrenaline. (true)
c-catechol-o-methyl transferase:dopamine. (false)
d-monoamine oxidase:serotonin. (false)
e-glutamic acid decarboxylase:gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) .(true)
b-dopa to dopamine beta oxidase.
c-metabolism of NA to VMA.
d-breakdown to 5 HIAA.
55-pnemocystis carinii pneumonia:
a-is the commeest presenting feature in European AIDS patients. (true)
b-is the commonest presenting feature in Ugandan AIDS patients. (false)
c-can be successfully prevented with nebulised inhaled pentamidine. (true)
d-may be present despite a clear chest X-ray. (true)
e-occurs in non-HIV infected individuals. (true)
PCP is the commonest mode of presentation of HIV infection and represents an AIDS
defining illness.It can occur in other immunocompromised patients as leukaemia.
CXR may be clear but a tell tale feature is hypoxia with mild exertion.
b-slim disease with cachexia.
Its treatment depends on cotrimoxazole and pentamidine is also effective.
56-The long term treatment of acne with tetracycline:
a-is unsuccessful in 75% of patients. (false)
b-may predispose to scarring of the skin. (false)
c-predispose to candida infection. (true)
d-may damage the fetus in utero. (true)
e-may predispose o gram negative folliculitits. (true)
Tetracyclines are a frequent and successful treatment of acne but are associated with
side effects as teeth staining in utero and should be used in caution in renal
impairment.they may predispose to fungal infection.
15. 57-The coomb's antiglobulin test is characteristically positive in haemolytic anaemia
associated with :
a-chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. (true)
c-Systemic lupus erythematosus. (true)
d-methyl dopa therapy. (true)
e-administration of primaquine. (false)
58-The production rate of aldosterone:
a-increases when sodium intake is reduced. (true)
b-is increased when the serum sodium levels falls following administration of water
and vasopressin. (false)
c-falls to nil after hypophysectomy. (false)
d-may be increased in the presence of oedema. (true)
e-is increased by a dose of angiotensin which is insufficient to raise the arterial blood
Aldosterone secretion is increased by rennin secreted by juxtaglomerular
apparatus.This is released through reduced circulating plasma volume. Hypovolaemia,
This causes hypervolaemia which will not stimulate rennin
d- example CCF.
a-enhances phagocytosis. (true)
b-is mediated by certain complement components. (true)
c-does not involve immunoglobulins. (false)
d-may utilize fibronectin. (true)
e-is MHC restricted. (false)
a-phagocytosis though possible in saline medium is enhanced in the presence of fresh
serum. This is due to opsonins.
b-opsonins include C3b, for which phagocytic cells possess a receptor.
c-immunoglobulins specially IgG 1 and 3, for the Fc portion of which phagocytic
cells possess receptors, are potent opsinizing agents.
d-fibronectin acts as a glue for neutrophil-target interaction.it is a glycoprotein.
e-opsonization is not MHC restricted.
60-The X chromosome
a-carries the gene for sickle cell anaemia.(false)
b-of the male forms a Barr body in a buccal smear test. (false)
c-is not found in the nuclei of all spermatozoa. (true)
d-may show an increased fragility in some conditions. (true)
e-carries the gene for the Xg blood group. (true)
16. The X chromosome/sex chromosome carries the gene responsible for sexual
differentiation and may be foud as an inactive Barr body in females ina buccal
smear.The gene for sickle cell disease is carried on chromosome 11,whereas X linked
conditions as haemophilia A is carried on the X chromosome. Spermatozoa carry 22
autosomes and either X or Y chromosomes. Fragile X condition is associated with
narrowing of the arm of the X chromosome.
a-relieve depression more quickly than electro-convulsant therapy. (false)
b-are associated with an increased incidence of cerebrovascular accidents . (true)
c-may cause acute dystonias. (false)
d-may cause postural hypotension. (true)
e-may cause paralytic ileus in the elderly. (true)
TCA effects on depression are much slower than ECT. Like antipsychotics such as
respiridine they are associated with an increased risk of CVAs. They have little effect
on dopamine receptors ad so do not cause dystonias(metoclopromide typical for this).
The postural hypotension, tachycardia, dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention,
constipation may ensue from anticholinergic effects.
62-Elevated prolactin levels are associated with:
b-dopamine agonists. (false)
e-external beam radiotherapy treatment of pituitary tumours. (true)
Acromegaly associated with hyperprolactinaemia either through stalk compression or
co secretion of prolactin with growth hormone.
b-bromocriptine suppress prolactin secretion unlike metoclopromide which is a
e-acute though laterhypopituitarism ensues-believed to be related to hypothalamic
involvement and reduced dopaminergic control.
63-The following drugs are unsafe in the last 4 weeks of pregnancy:
a-crosses placena and cause haemorrhage. Warfarin is also teratogenic in first
b-neonatal haemolysis and methaemoglobinaemia. Also teratogenic in 1st trimester.
C+d are safe.
17. e-dental discolouration, maternal hepatotoxicity in large doses
tetracycline best avoided but not unsafe in limited doses.
64-Drugs that reduce gastric acid secretion include:
a-aluminum hydroxide. (false)
a-simple antacid neutralizes acid but not reduce production.
b-proton pump inhibitor, powerful acid suppressor.
d-Prostaglandin E2 analogue,increase mucosal protection and has some antisecretory
properties,reduce acid and gastrin secretion.
65-The following drugs have been shown to interact with alcohol:
a-alcohol potentiates its effect.
b-alcohol potentiates its effect.
c- alcohol potentiates its effect.
d-an antabuse reaction occurs due to interference with alcohol dehydrogenase making
the side effects of alcohol worse.
66-1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol (vitminD):(calcitriol)
a-stimulates the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the gut. (true)
b-facilitates calcium and phosphate reabsorption from bone. (false)
c-stimulates the execretion of calcium and phosphate into renal tubules. (false)
d-levels are low during lactation.(false)
e-is more active than 24.25(OH)2 vitamin D. (true)
Calcitriol acts on intestines, kidney, and bone to increase calcium and phosphate
levels in serum. 24,25 vitamin D is relatively inactive. The main site of action is the
intestine,where calcitriol stimulates calcium and phosphate absorption. In the kidney
calcitriol promotes renal phosphate resorption in PCT and calcium resorption in DCT.
In bone calcitriol facilitates the action of PTH on osteoblasts to increase bone
67-Myxaedaema ay present with:
18. b-ataxic gait. (true)
d-loss of vision. (false)
Other unusual ones include: normocytic/microcytic anaemia, dilutional
68-which of the following are found in pseudohypoparathyroidis:
c-low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, normal PTH. (false)
d-low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high PTH. (true)
e-Digeorge's syndrome. (false)
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is associated with low serum calcium, high serum
phosphate(same abnormalities as hypoparathyroidism) but elevated PTH (hence
pseudo).Brachydactly(short 4th metacarpal)is seen. DIGeorge's is absent parathyroid
and thymus associated with chromosomal abnormality.
69-The following may cause hypothyroidism:
Also cobal, iodides, butazolidine, sulphonylurea, antithyroid drugs.
Amiodarone is a typical drug associated with both hypothyroidism (interferes with
conversion of T4 to T3 )and hyperthyroidism.
70-Within lymph nodes:
a-B lymphocytes predominate in the paracortex. (false)
b-primary follicles are aggregates of B cells. (true)
c-secondary follicles develop following antigenic stimulation. (true)
d-lymph flows from the hilum of the node outwards to the marginal sinus. (false)
e-the medulla is rich in plasma cells. (true)
a-B lymphocytes predominate in the follicles in the cortex. T lymphocyte in the
d-flow of lymph is from marginal sinus through node to afferent lymphatic.
e-large numbers of plasma cells are found in the medullary cords.
19. 71-Which of the following regarding Y chromosome is/are true:
a-it carries a few loci concerned with metabolism. (true)
b-it is the only acrocentric chromosome seen in humans. (false)
c-it carries the testis determining factor on its short arm. (true)
d-Klinefelter's syndrome has 2 Y chromosomes. (false)
e-It may be detected in some phenotypic females. (true)
The main Y gene is called the SRY gene, which specifies maleness and male
features.it is the single gene that sets off the initial cascade of hormonal changes that
make a person a male.it is not the entire chromosome but just this gene that is
necessary for maleness.There is evidence for this in disease where SRY is missing.
People who are genetically male with XY chromosomes but with mutation or deletion
of this SRY gene on the Y chromosome will be female despite having most of the Y
chromosome.and people who are genetically female with XX but have tiny pieces of
Y chromosome with this gene will become male despite their XX chromosomes.
72-Natural killer cells:
a-are a type of T lymphocyte. (true)
b-are predominantly found in lymph nodes. (false)
c-express cell surface CD3. (false)
d-kill antibody coated cells. (true)
e-release tumour necrosis factor. (true)
a-Natural killer cells are type of B or T lymphocyte and are involved in defence
against malignancy, virus, bacteria, and parasites.
b-rarely found in thymus or lymph nodes unlike T cells.
c- NK cells are CD3 negative and have CD16/56(opposite T cells)
d-NK kill spontaneously and are stimulated by IL2 or antibody coated cells through
binding to their CD16 receptors.
e-and IFN gamma, granulocyte, macrophage colony stimulating factor and CSF 1.
73-Long term corticosteroid therapy may be associated wih:
a-hypochloraemic alkalosis. (true)
b-positive nitrogen balance. (false)
d-increased gastric acidity. (true)
Effects include hyperlycaemia,increased catabolism with increased urea, weight gain,
salt and water retension and hypertension, increased osteoclastic activity(reduced
bone density and osteoporosis) and CNS effects(depression, anxiety and poor
sleep).increased incidence of peptic ulcer wih increased gastric acid secretion and
reduces mucosal protection.
74-The thyroid gland:
a-develops from the endoderm between the 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal pouches. (false)
20. b-has C cells that are derived from the ultimobranchial body. (true)
c-usually weighs about 100g. (false)
d-is at the level of the 5th to 7th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae. (true)
e-may have accessory nodules in the tongue. (true)
a-1st and 2nd pouches.
The C cells are responsible for the secretion of calcitonin.
75-Cryptospoidiosis in HIV positive patients:
a-present with bloody diarrhea.(false)
b-can produce up to 10 litres of liquid faeces per day. (true)
c-is the commonest cause of diarrhea in these patients. (false)
d-is effectively terminated by spiramycin (false)
e-can produce sclerosing cholangitits with inflammation and ulceration of intra and
extra hepatic bile ducts. (true)
c-everyday stool pathogens are commoner.
76-the following can give a biochemical picture indistinguishable from extra hepatic
e-erythromycin estolate. (true)
Extra hepatic would suggest raised bilirubin with raised alkaline phosphatase and
B+d- hepatic picture (raised AST and ALT )
c- dose related.
a-infection is associated with the development of agglutinins to a non haemolytic
b-can be grown on a cell free medium. (true)
c-predominantly causes infection n the elderly. (false)
d-infection is associated with polymorph nuclear leucocytosis. (false)
e-infection is associated with steven's Johnson syndrome. (true)
21. a+cold agglutinins to group O RBCs
b-the medium is a complex mixture of heart infusion, peptone, yeast extract, salts,
glucose or arginine and horse serum(5-25%)
mycoplasma contaminate cell cultures. In the host they form extracellular branched
a-reduces arterial smooth muscle tone. (true)
b-is a product of arachidonic acid metabolism. (true)
c-production is inhibited by NSAID. (true)
d-increases platelets cyclic AMP concentration. (true)
e-inhibits platelet aggregation to damaged vessel walls.
Prostacyclins reduce arterial tone, is produced from arachidonic acid and is inhibited
by NSAIDs. It is involved in platelet aggregation through increasing cAMP
a-typically has an incubation period of 7-10 days. (false)
b-is more frequently associated with palpable splenomegaly than is infectious
c-may be complicated by polyarthralgia. (true)
d-is an indication for termination if it occurs in the first 2 months pregnancy. (true)
e-can be prevented by vaccination in over 80% of individuals. (true)
Rubella has an incubation period of 14-23 days,the rash lasts about 3 days and is
rarely associated with splenomegaly unlike IM. Congenital rubella is a serious
problem with gross developmental interference and cardiac abnormalities associated
with infection of a non immune patient. Early infection is worse due to organogenesis
at this stage. MMR vaccination is very effective with a claim of 90% protection .
80-In non-iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome the following are true.
a-the commonest cause in adults is pituitary dependant disease. (true Cushing's
b-in the majority of patients with cushing's disease the pituitary fossa on lateral skull
x-ray appears normal. (true)
c-hypokalaemia is more common in ectopic ACTH syndrome than Cushing disease.
d-in Cushing's syndrome associated with bronchial carcinoma the classical findings
are usually florid. (false)
e-the skin may peel after successful restoration of the eucorticoid state. (true)
Non iatrogenic cushing's syndrome could be due to a pituitary ACTH adenoma(80%
of subjects and usually micoadenoma), ectopic ACTH secretion (bronchial carcinoid
22. or bronchogenic carcinoma-signs are often absent as rapid development )or a cortisol
secreting adrenal adenoma. (low ACTH)
81-Hirsutism in females:
a-when idiopathic is associated with normal plasma testosterone levels. (true)
b-can be caused by phenytoin. (true)
c-when ovarian in oriin, is most commonly due to arrhenoblastoma. (false)
d-is a presenting symptom of hyperprolactinaemia. (false)
e-may be due to congenital adrenal hyperplasia. (true)
Commonest cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, can also be caused by
medication such as phenytoin and has been associated with valproate. Hirsutism is not
a presenting feature of hyperprolactinaemia but hyperprolactinaemia may be
associated . i.e:PCOs. Usuallu testosterone concentrations are normal with idiopathic
hirsutism but may also be slightly elevated.
a-is characterized by persistence of Hb F. (true)
b-is associated with a chronic marked reticulocytosis. (false)
c-is always associated with a raised proportion of HbA2. (false)
d-is very rarely associated with nucleated red cells. (false)
e-is a cause of pathological fracture of long bones. (true)
Nucleated red cells are always seen, retics low, HbA2 raised in B thalassaemia trait.
83-Actions of glucagon include
a-glycogenolysis in the liver. (true)
b-inhibition of insulin secretion. (false)
c-gluconeogenesis in the liver. (true)
d-inhibition of adenyl cyclase. (false)
e-a positive inotropic effect on the heart. (true)
Glucagon causes the recruitment of glucose from hepatic stores and has a positive
inotropic effect on the heart. Paradoxically stimulates insulin release.
84-The normal metabolic response to a major surgical operation includes:
a-antidiiuresis for 12-24 hours. (true)
b-retention of sodium. (true)
c-increased utilization of glucose. (false)
d-increased renal excretion of nitrogen. (true)
e-increased rernal excretion of potassium. (true)
Physiological effects of surgery include antidiuresis (increased ADH secretion in an
effort to retain water and increase BP), increased catecholamine, cortisol and
aldosterone release(increased sodium retention and increased potassium losses)and
increased nitrogen excretion. There is decreased utilization of glucose as a
consequence of the excess secretion of cortisol/catecholamines.
a-Increases liver glycogenolysis. (false)
b-increases muscle glycogen synthesis. (true)
c-increases liver gluconeogenesis. (true)
d-increases liver fatty acid synthesis. (true)
e-facilitates red blood cell glucose uptake. (false)
Insulin acts to inhibit lipolysis and gluconeogenesis by promoting glycogenesis.
Insulin promotes synthesis of fatty acids in the liver.
e-does not increase uptake into brain or liver either.
86-The following statements concerning syphilis are correct:
a-in the primary stage all serological tests for the disease may be negative. (true)
b-repeatedly significant treponemal antibody titres are diagnostic of latent syphilis.
c-a patient with syphilitic aortitis is at special risk of death following the
administration of penicillin. (true)
d-in the secondary stage serological tests for the disease are positive in over 90% of
e-a baby born to an adequately treated syphilitic woman should be treated if
serological tests for the disease are positive in cord blood. (false)
Unlike secondary syphilis where the serology is usually always positive, the serology
may well be negative in primary syphilis and the diagnosis depends on the
demonstration of T.pallidum in the exudates taken from the chancre. False positive
treponemal antibody tests are recognized with Yaws. Due to Jarisch-Herxheimer
reaction where there is an acute exacerbation of features following the introduction of
therapy patients with syphilitic aortitis or neurosphilis are most at risk.
a-act on the loop of henle distal to the major site of sodium reabsorption. (true)
b-cause hypokalaemia by blocking the sodium potassium exchange site in the distal
c-increase the renal excretion of calcium. (false)
d-increase the renal excretion of magnesium, (true)
e-elevate LDL cholesterol in long term use. (true)
b-potassium sparing act here.
24. c-decrease,thiazides reduce ion excretion and may lead to hypercalcuria. Other
metabolic effects include hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia and dyslipidaemia.
88-The human X chromosome:
a-has the gene for Duchene muscular dystrophy on its short arm. (true)
b-is associated with the Y chromosome side by side during synapse formation in
c-in the female somatic cell is never completely inactivated. (true)
d-is a metacentric chromosome. (false)
e-in normal females may be seen as a chromatin body in a buccal smear analysis.
Normally the female complement is 2 X sex chromosomes. One is derived from each
parent and one of the pair is also randomly inactivated by a process called lionization
at an early developmental stage. A chromatin body may be seen in buccal smears in
normal females. It is cleaved from the Y chromosomes during spermatogenesis.
89-Which of the following statements regarding multifactorial inheritance are true or
a-most isolated neural tube defects belong to this category. (true)
b-the recurrence risk in this type does not depend on the previous incidence of the
same condition in the family. (false)
c-Blood groups are inherited in this manner. (false)
d-It is due to the effects of a large number of genes and the environment. (true)
e-can be diagnosed by chromosome culture. (false)
Polygenic or multifactorial inheritance occurs in conditions as diabetes mellitus,
rheumatoid arthritis, NTDs,cardiac defects. Blood groups have a specifeic pattern of
90-Genetic deficiency of thyroid hormaone production. (dyshormonogenesis)
a-leads to the formation of a goiter. (true)
b-is associated with a diminished ptake of radioactive iodine. (false)
c-may be associated with congenital nerve deafness. (true)
d-is best treated with iodine in mild cases. (false)
e-may produce no signs or symptoms of thyroid deficiency. (true)
Dyshormonogenesis results from a deficiency or absence of one or more of the
enzymes involved in thyroid hormone synthesis or secretion. The most common
enzyme abnormality is absent or insufficient thyroid peroxidase activity which results
in failure of oxidation.(organification. )of iodide to iodine.The iodine will be trapped
but not organified. These patients may have enlarged or may be normal gland, an
elevated TSH due to decreased levels of thyroid hormones, and a high uptake of I-123
at 4 hours,and Tc pertechnetate. T4 and FTI are usually decreased . The perchlorate
washout test will be positive in these patients. Deficient peroxidase activity associated
25. with a familial goiter and deafness or hearing loss is referred to as Pendred's
a-diagnosis is untenable if patients gains weight. (false)
b-may cause short stature in childhood. (false)
c-may be caused by subacute thyroiditis. (true)
d-is usually associated with raised serum T3 and reverse T3. (true)
e-may be associated with periodic paralysis. (true)
c-in the early stages thyroid hormone may be released from the gland causing
transient hyperthyroidism. Typically there is a high ESR and depressed R
92-X-linked recessive inheritance is recognized in
a-Tay-Sach's disease. (false)
b-hypophophataemic vitamin D resistant rickets. (false)
c-Wisckott-Aldrich syndrome. (true)
e-Hunter's syndrome. (true)
X-linked recessive inheritance is typified by haemophilia A.can be associated with
congenital adrenal hyperplasia although this is usually autosomal recessive
d-although icthyosis is typically autosomal dominant it can be inherited as X-linked
a-attack rates are higher in the elderly. (false)
b-infections are treated with ciprofloxacin. (true)
c-is a recognized pathogen in domestic animals. (true)
d-is readily isolated in stool culture. (false)
e-cause colitits. (true)
a-young adults and children.
b-cipro and erythromycin but most are self limiting.
c-transmitted to humans by milk or water infected by wild and domestic animals and
d-requires special conditions:42°c ,microaerobic atmosphere on blood agar with
e-proctocolitits and enterocolitits may be due to sexually transmitted agents such as
campylobacter entamaeba,lymphogranulomma venereum and may be clinically
indistinguishable from non infective causes.
26. 94-Tumour necrosis factor:
a-is a cytokine released by activated monocytes. (true)
b-is formed in the necrotic centres of tumours. (false)
c-is involved in cachexia syndrome. (true)
d-is the cause of gram negative endotoxin induced toxic shock syndrome. (true)
e-causes increased capillary wall permeability. (true)
TNF alpha is a cytokine and induces acute phase proteins from the liver.The main
sources in vivo are stimulated monocytes, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells.
Physiological stimuli for the synthesis of TNF alpha are IL1, bacterial endotoxins,
TNF, PDGF, and oncostatin M.
c-also, fever,osteoclastic bone resorption.
a-will suppress lacation in the puerperium. (true)
b-may be a useful adjunct in acromegaly. (true)
c-may cause enlargement of the pituitary in a patient with a prolactinoma. (true)
d-inhibits dopamine receptors. (false)
e-is an ergot derivative. (true)
b-reduces growth hormone in most patients, improve visual fields, diabetes and may
even shrink tumour. High doses needed, 10-20 mg/day.Usually produces marked
reduction in size of prolactinoma but tumour enlargement and apoplexy has rarely
been associated with bromocriptine use.
d-Dopamine(DA2) receptor agonist.
a-carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by amyloid deposits with the flexor ratinaculum.
b-may be associated with a microcytic or macrocytic anaemia. (true)
c-may be caused by hashimoto's thyroiditis . (true)
d-is the end result of subacute thyroiditis. (false)
e-is often associated with pretibial myxoedema. (false)
d-most end up euthyroid.
e-is associated with Graves disease and therefore usually thyrotoxicosis.
97-A female taking an oral contraceptive regularly may complain of breakthrough
bleeding or pregnancy if she also took the following drugs:
27. b-carbamazepine. (true)
Liver enzyme inducers as carbamazepine, phenytoin, alcohol, smoking, omeprazole
and rifampicin would cause increased metabolism of the OCP and result in reduced
Cimetidine inhibits cyto P450.
98-In an adolescent with insulin dependant diabetes mellitus the following support a
diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis:
a-abdominal pain at onset. (false)
b-serum bicarbonate. (true)
c-serum glucose 14 mmol/L. (false)
d-increased appetite in the past few days.
e-shallow respiration. (false)
a-An unusual but recognized feature particularly in children. However does not
support diagnosis of DKA.
b-suggests metabolic acidosis.
c-normoglycaemic DKA can occur and a glucose of 14 does not rule out the diagnosis
but it does not support the diagnosis.
d-ususally patients are unwell with infections and anorexia.
e-respiratory compensation leads to rapid deep (Kussmaul's)breathing
a-is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor. (false)
b-80% of a per rectal dose is absorbed. (true)
c-the dose needs to be adjusted in renal failure. (true)
d-is associated with disulfiram like reaction. (true)
e-causes peripheral neuropathy. (true)
a-its action is not fully undersood but causes cytotoxic effects in anaerobes by a
reduction reaction probably via the hydroxylamine derivative.
c-accumulation of metabolites can occur.
d- in some patients.
e-primariy with high doses of long duration in children. Most commonly ild sensory
a-decreases the incidence of vertebral frctures in postmenopausal females when used
cyclically with calcium. (true)
28. b-binds to hydroxyapatite in bone. (true)
c-inhibits osteoclastic resorption of bone. (true)
d-if used as monotherapy is associated with inhibited bone mineralization. (true)
e-exacerbate paget's diseasaae of bone.. (false)
Etidronate a so called bisphosphonates increases bone mineralization and is a
treatment for osteoporosis through the inhibition of bone resorption by osteocalsts.
d-and can cause fractures.
e-is used in the treatment of paget's.
101-Polymerase chain reaction:
a-takes several days to complete.(false)
b-DNA or RNA can be used as the template. (true)
c-helps in diagnosis of infection. (true)
d-in diagnostic PCR the exact sequence at both ends of the target region must be
e-Polymorphisms in the viral genome my result in amplification failure. (true)
PCR is a rapid technique which produces a result in a ew hours.So used for rapid
diagnosis of TB where culture mwthods take several weeks.DNA is the standard
template but viral RNA can be amplified if enzyme reverse transcriptase is used.
Primers used in the reaction must be complementary to the nucleic acid sequence
surrounding the region to be amplified therefore these sequences must be known. In
HIV and other viruses sequence polymorphism may prevent binding of primers and
result in failure of amplification. Primers which were developed for amplification of
the predominant clade B strain found in Europeans and Americans have proved
unreliable for amplification of other HIV clades from Africa and Asia.
102-causes of thrombocytopenia include:
a-low molecular weight heparin. (true)
a-although it is more typical with unfractionated heparin.
b-causes a qualitative reduction in platelet activity and numbers.
c-but can cause agranulocytosis.
e-and more rarelt pancytopenia.
a-is secreted mainly as proinsulin. (false)
b-has equal biological activity to C-peptide. (false)
c-release from he pancreatic beta cell is stimulated by biguanides. (false)
29. d-has a half life of less than 8 minutes when given intravenously. (true)
e- › 80% is degraded by the liver and kidney. (true)
Insulin (and C-peptide which is inactive)is secreted by the beta cells within the
langerhan as the active molecule following cleavage from preproinsulin, then
proinsulin.it is metabolized in the liver and undergoes renal excretion.
104-The Wasserman reaction may be positive in:
b-Cat scratch fever. (false)
c-systemic lupus eryhtematosus. (true)
d-Hashimoto's throiditis. (true)
The wasserman reaction is a complement fixation test for syphilis but other
spirochetes and phospholipidic disorders as malaria ,SLE,Leprosy give false positive
105-Bromocriptine therapy may cause:
b-retroperitoneal fibrosis. (true)
e-Raynaud's phenomenon. (true)
d-more often causes hypotension, hypertension, MI, seizures, and mental disorders
have been reported in postpartum women given bromocriptine for lactation
106-Human breast milk:
a-can be safely used in babies with galactosaemia. (false)
b-contains more protein per milliliter than cow's milk. (false)
c-contains less fat per milliliter than cow's milk. (false)
d-has a relatively high sodium content. (false)
e-contains more carbohydrate per milliliter than cow's milk. (true)
Human breast milk is produced under the influence of prolactin, has less calorific
value than cow's milk(less protein, more fat and carbohydrate) and low sodium
content. Breast milk is not recommended in galactosaemia due to precipitation of
107-Concerning hepatitis E infection:
a-it can be transmitted with hepatitis B. (false)
b-it is a recognized cause of chronic liver disease. (false)
30. c-Ct scan of the liver with contrast showsdiagnostic appearances. (false)
d-the incidence of chronic liver disease is reduced by administration of alpha
e-it does not result in a carrier state. (true)
e-five hepatitis viruses form a heterogenous group causing similar clinical illness.
Hepatitis A,C,D,E are all RNA viruses coming from 4 different families and hepatitis
B is a DNA virus. Hepatitis A and E cause acute illness with the formercausing most
hepatitis in childhood and hepatitis E being very rare. Hepatitis B,C,D cause chronic
morbidity and mortality with B causing a third of cases,hepatitis C a fifth of cases,
and D is very rare. Hepatitis D can't occur without B as a helper.Hepatitis B can be
treated with interferon alpha, which improves liver disease.
108-A dominant R wave in lead V1 is characteristic in:
a-pulmonary embolus. (false)
e-true posterior myocardial infarction. (true)
a- A ightward shift of axis acutely can produce this in a massive PE bu
characteristic implies commonly seen, which isn't
b- Type A.
C+d leftward shift.
109-which of the following statements are true or false:
a-familial hypercholesterolaemia is autosomal dominant. (true)
b-alpha thalassaemia is autosomal recessive. (true)
c-adult polycystic kidney disease is autosomal dominant. (true)
d-Hurler syndrome is autosomal recessive. (true)
e-sickle cell anaemia is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition. (false)
Alpha thalassaemia, Hurler's syndrome, and SCD are autosomal recessive, AD
conditions include achondroplasia,huntington's, FH and APCKD.
110-The following are autosomal dominant:
a-neurofibromatosis type 1. (true)
b-cystic fibrosis. (false)
c-familial polyposis coli. (true)
d-Huntington's chorea. (true)
e-adult polycystic kidney. (true)
Autosomal dominant disorders include Huntington's,
achondroplasia,neurofibromatosis,adult polycystic kidney, polyposis coli.
31. 111-Genetic aniciaption occurs in:
a-cystic fibrosis. (false)
b-dystrophia myotonica. (true)
c-fragile X syndrome. (true)
d-Huntington's disease. (true)
e-Marfan syndrome. (false)
b-extreme amplifications are not transmitted through the male line. This explains the
occurrence of the severe congenital form almost exclusively in the offspring of
112-Thype 1 insulin dependant diabetes mellitus is associated with
a-about a 1:3 positive family history. (false)
b-decreased islet cells antibodies with increasing time from diagnosis. (true)
c-an 80% concordance among identical twins. (false)
d-high plasma glucagon. (true)
e-insulin resistance. (false)
c-this is the figure for type 2 diabetes, type 1 about 40%
d-but suppressible with insulin.
In type 1 insulin is low or absent rather than high.
113-Common features of pheochromocytoma include:
a-panic attacks. (true)
Typical features include:paroxysmal panic attacks, sweats, anxiety,
tremor,palpitations, hypertension or postural hypotension.Diabetes is a biochemical
feature as is hypokalaemia.It is detected by elevated urine free meta adrenaline or
normetadrenaline with high sensitivity and specificity.
114-Low molecular weight heparin:
a-exerts its anticoagulant effect by biding with antithrombin. (true)
b-inactivates thrombin more readily than unfractionated heparin. (false)
c-has fewer chains containing the unique pentasaccharide sequence(the binding
site)than unfcationated heparin. (false)
d-has a more potent effect on platelets than does unfractionated heparin. (false)
e-is excreted in urine. (true)
32. 115-Vancomycin resistant enterococci:
a-cause resistant infective diarrhea. (false)
b-produce an enzyme that inactivates vancomycin. (false)
c-may be found in healthy community not recently hospitalized. (true)
d-high dose ampicillin is the treatment of choice. (false)
e-are commonly vancomycin dependant. (false)
a-When they cause clinical problems they are usually UTI, bacteraemia, wound
infection, neonatal infection, endocarditis.
b-they alter peptidoglycan precursors used to build cell walls.vancomycin binds to Dala-D-ala but the resistant enterococci have D-ala-D-lac or D-ala terminating
precursors. They acquire genes that produce enzymes to change the precursors.
c-2% in UK general practice.,28% in belguim.Community reservoir in meat,poultry
d-only if the MIC of ampicillin is not too high.Evidence exists for its use in E.faecalis
endocarditis 20 g/day.
e-some strains only explained by that there is an inability to produce cell walls
because vancomycin sensitive precursor genes have been turned off and resistant ones
only appear in the presence of vancomycin.
116-There is an increased tendency to thrombosis in
a-Behcet's disease (true)
b-Kawasaki's disease. (true)
c-Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria. (true)
Other acquired causes include:CCF,trauma, surgery, myeloproliferative disease, OCP.
Other inherited causes:antithrombin 3, protein C & S deficiency or FVL mutation,
dysplasminogenaemia,dysfibrinogenaemia and heparin cofactor 2 deficiency.
117- Circulating anticoagulants have been described in:
e-the elderly. (true)
Circulating anticoagulant usually IgG interfere with coagulation reactions. .the main
lab feature are prolonged PT and PTT which persists if normal plasma is added
a-these are non specific inhibitors which prolong haemostsis by binding to
phospholipids,anti factor 8 antibodies may be seen.
B+D+E –antifactor 8 antibodies.
33. d-haemophilics who had plasma transfusions.
118-A raised iron levels is seen in:
a-thalassaemia major. (true)
b-polycythaemia rubra vera. (false)
e-rheumatoid disease. (false)
a,c-iron overload may be seen in repeated transfusions and reduced wih subcutaneous
desferioxamine. (iron chelation) and oral vitamin C
d-increased iron absorbtion and deposition in various tissues.
119- X-linked inheritance is seen in :
b-Huntington's disease. (false)
c-G6PD deficiency. (true)
e-vitamin D resistant rickets. (true)
X linked inherited conditions include;
Haemophilia A, colour blindness, G6PD and vitamin D resistant rickets. In X linked
dominant where both sexes are equally affected.
e- X linked dominant.
120-Increased sweating is seen in:
c-diabetic ketoacidosis. (false)
Sweats are seen in association with the menopause, acromegaly,phaeochromocytoma,
thyrotoxicosis and hypoglycaemia (insulinoma), old TB, lymphoma, brucella.
122-Tetany may occur in:
b-thyroid surgery. (true)
c-respiratory acidosis. (false)
e-untreated hyperparathyroidism. (false)
34. Tetany occurs in association with low calcium or magnesium,
b-by producing iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism.
c-respiratory alkalosis would cause low ionized calcium.
d-cause respiratory alkalosis.
e-this gives hypercalcaemia.
123-When considering drug therapy during pregnancy:
a-Methyl dopa is contra indicated in all stages. (false)
b-isotretinoin is indication for termination. (true)
c-folic acid supplements should be given to patients taking phenytoin. (true)
d-heparin cause CNS damage in the fetus if given in 2nd or 3rd trimester. (false)
e-thiazide diuretics have been shown to decrease placental perfusion. (true)
a-it is only hypotensive safe in all stages.
b-pregnancy is not advised for 2 years after cessation of treatment.
d-but warfarin does.
124-A 21 year old nurse who has been nursing a 6 week old child wih congenital
rubella for the last week discovers she is pregnant.She does not remember being
vaccinated against rubella:
a-congenital rubella is not infectious beyond the 1st few days.she can be reassured.
b-she should be given attenuated rubella vaccine immediately. (false)
c-blood should be taken for serology. (true)
d-gammaglobulin injection upsets later serological diagnosis. (false)
e-a rising IgM antibody titre is indicative of recent infection. (true)
a-infectious for weeks.This nurse runs the risk of developing rubella infection herself
and the process of investigation is 1st to discover if she has IgG antibodies to rubella
signifying immunity. IgM suggests recent infection and if she is not immune then she
requires treatment with immunoglobulin.
125-Thrombocytopenia is a recognized adverse effect of the following drugs:
c-thiazide diuretics. (true)
a-aspirin causes reduced placental function, thrombocytopenia and increased bleeding
126-In the T cell response to antigen:
35. a-a process of affinity maturation of the T cell receptor occurs.(false)
b-intact antigen is presented in association with self MHC molecules. (false)
c-co-operation with other cell types is required for T cell recognition of antigen. (true)
d-gamma/delta + T cells respond to antigen presented in association with MHC class
2 molecules. (false)
e-interactions of the TcR with an appropriate Ag/MHC complex activates a resting T
a-affinity maturation in an ongoing immune response is a feature of the antibody
response. There is no evidence that a similar process occurs in the T cell response.
b-MHC molecules present short antigen derived peptides, not the intact antigen.
c-T cells recognize antigen only when presented by self MHC molecules on an
antigen presenting cell.
d-MHC class 2 molecules present antigen to CD4, alpha , beta, + T cells. Most
gamma,delta + T cells do not appear to be restricted by self MHC molecules.
e-additional costimulatory signals are required to activate resting T cell. Interaction of
the TcR of a resting T cell with an appropriate Ag/MHC complex in the absence of
costimulatory signals may lead to the induction of anergy.
127-In acute allergic reactions:
a-there is an increase in bradykinins. (true)
b-T helper cells are involved. (true)
c-there is an increase in the products of 5-lipoxygenase pathway. (true)
d-gene for allergy located on chromosome 12. (false)
e-may be triggered by acute complement activation. (true)
128-Attacks of hypoglycaemia are a recognized complication of:
a-Von giereke's disease. (true)
c-G6PD deficiency. (false)
e-Gaucher's disease. (false)
Hypolycaemia is a feature of glycogen storage disease as Von giereke's disease and
Pompe's disease.and also a feature of galactosaemia, fructosaemia. G6PD deficiency
causes anaemia, spherocytosis and haemolysis but not hypoglycaemia. Gaucher's
diasease is an inherited metabolic disorder in which glucocerebroside accumulate in
spleen, liver, lungs, bone marrow and rarely brain.
129-The following are true:
a-phaeochromocytoma occurs as part of MEN syndrome type 1. (false)
36. b-elevated alkaline phosphatase is a feature of osteoporosis. (false)
c-patients with Down's syndrome have an increased incidence of thyrotoxicosis.
d-fertility in Kallaman's syndrome is restored by therapy with GnRH. (false)
e-elevated urinary VMA can occur in insulin dependant diabetic patients with
a-MEN type 2. Osteoporosis typically associated with no abnormalities of bone
except fractures where alkaline phophatase may rise. Down have an increased risk of
hypothyroidism. Fertility may be restored in Kallaman's partially by LH and FSH
e-also in association with foods as vanilla, beta blockers and ganglion blockers.
130-a single nuclear sex chromatin body will be found in:
a-males with Down syndrome.(false)
b-most females with Turner's syndrome. (false)
c-males with kleinefelter syndrome. (true)
d-females wih adrenogenotal syndrome. (true)
e-females wih XXX sex chromosome. (false)
b-only some the mosaics
a-may be prepared from chorionic villi of the fetus. (true)
b-helps in the diagnosis of chromosome disorders. (true)
c-is made from cells arrested at telophase of mitosis. (false)
d-from a patau syndrome a patient shows an extra chromosome number 18. (false)
e-helps in the identification of the Philadelphia chromosome in chronic myeloid
Karyotype is the chromosomal composition of cells-normal karyotype is 46XX or
XY. Patau syndrome is associated with trisomy of chromosome 13.
132-Trinucleotide repeat sequence are seen in:
a-cystic fibrosis. (false)
b-Duchenne muscular dystrophy. (false)
c-myotonic dystrophy. (true)
d-fragile X syndrome. (true)
e-Leber's optic atrophy. (false)
Also Huntington's chorea
37. 133-Regarding primary genital herpes:
a-has an incubation period of 2 months. (false)
b-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy frequently occurs. (true)
c-oral acyclovir given within 48 hours reduces duration of symptoms. (true)
d-first attack is milder than subsequent attacks. (false)
e-urinary retention is a recognized feature. (true)
The incubation period of genital herpes is about 2 to 12 days. Temder inguinal
lymphadenopathy frequently accompanies the primary attack. Oral acyclovir has been
shown to be effective treatment for primary genital herpes infection, reducing the
duration of local symptoms and virus shedding. The primary infection is generally
much more severe than subsequent attacks. Urinary retension, neuralgia and
constipation may all occur due to sacroradiculomyelitits.
134-presenting features of hypothyroidism include:
d-enlarged thyroid gland. (true)
Hirsutism is rarely reported in association with hypothyroidism although hair loss also
features. Goitre is a frequent feaure in both Hashimoto's thyroiditis and also iodine
deficiency. Other presenting features include ataxia/neuronopathies especially
compression neuropathiesand the peaches and cream appearance due to hyper beta
carotenaemia. Cognitive impairment, macrocytic anaemia and pleural effusion also
135-In a double blind placebo control clinical trial:
a-some of the patients are not treated nor given placebo. (false)
b-some of the patients receive a placebo. (true)
c-the patients do not know which treatment they receive. (true)
d-everybody receives both treatments. (false)
e-the clinical assessing in the effects of the treatment does not show which treatment
the patient has been given. (true)
a-all are treated identically although some are treated with placebo.
c-the patients are blind to the treatment choice.
d-that would be a double blind crossover study.
e-the clinician is blind to the treatment choice.
136-Recognised features of untreated panhypopituitarism include:
a-growth of lanugo hair. (false)
b-increased insulin sensitivity. (true)
c-pigmentation of mucous membrane. (false)
38. d-extreme emaciation. (false)
e-low total serum thyroxine concentration. (true)
A and D-anorexia nervosa.
Panhypopituitary patients look pale, have fine wrinkled skin and loss of body hair.
c-Addison's. There is low T4 and TSH, low sex hormones and LH/FSH with
hypocortisolaemia and low ACTH. GH and IGF-1 are also low.
137-The following factors will lower the ESR:
c-sickle cell disease. (true)
e-female gender. (false)
Large cells, less cells and more proteins increase ESR.
d-other protein factors that may reduce ESR include hypofibrinogenaemia,
dysfibrinogenaemia, hypogammaglobulinaemia, low molecular weight dextran.
138-Physiologically elevated body temperature is found:
a-in the tropics. (true)
b-following a large meal. (true)
c-with emotional disturbance. (true)
d-during part of the menstrual cycle. (true)
e-during REM sleep. (false)
Elevation of body temperature is a feature of topical climates ,drugs as ecstasy,
ovulation and following a large meal. Falls in temperature are typical of sleep.
139-ADH secretion is inhibited by:
b-increase blood pressure. (true)
d-decrease body fluid tonicity. (true)
ADH secretion is inhibited by dilution, cold, increased blood pressure, alcohol, and
tetracyclines. Barbiturates and SSRIs as well as sulphonylureas increase secretion.
140-Polyxystic ovary syndrome is associated with:
a-primary amenorrhoea. (true)
c-increased FSH, decreased LH. (false)
d-decreased sex hormone binding globulin. (true)
39. e-increased androgens. (true)
a-usually secondary amenorrhoea occurs but rarely it may be primary.
b-a particular problem.
c-increase LH and decrease FSH.
d-because of decreased synthesis in the liver from the effect of androgens.
e-increased production from ovaries and adrenals.
141-adverse effects of carbimazole include:
a-cholestatic jaundice. (true)
c-impaired renal function. (false)
Rarely agranulocytosis and neutropenia is associated but the most worrying side
effect, others are pruritits, rash and alopecia, vasculitis rarely.
a-is effective against CMV. (false)
b-acts ia viral thymidine cycle. (true)
c-treats herpes simplx encephalitits. (true)
d-decreases recurrence of genital herpes. (true)
e-stops herpetic neuralgia. (false)
a-ganciclovir. Is effective against cmv.
b-aciclovir is phosphorylated by this pathway and then competes with
deoxyguanosine triphosphate for a position in the viral DNA.
c-given IV for 10 days.
e-prevents herpetic neuralgia if given at the onset of infection but is ineffective later.
143-Diamorphine elixir for the relief of pain in terminal patients:
a-initial sedation typically continuewhile drug is administered. (false)
b-analgesia is enhanced if cocaine is added. (false)
c-constipation is characteristic sequel of treatment. (true)
d-dependance occurs rapidly. (false)
e-the same amount of pain relief is produced as when the same dose is given via
intramuscular injection. (false)
a-sedation occurring in the first few days typically wears off.
b-halucinations also occur.
c-an aperients should always be added to the treatment regimen.
d-adiction is not a problem.
e-an intramuscular injection is 3 times more effective than the same oral dose.
40. 144-The following side effects of drugs are describes in the fetus:
a-alcoholism producing microcephaly. (true)
b-sulphonylureas produce neural tube defect. (false)
c-chloroquine producing corneal opacities. (true)
d-hydrocortisone producing cleft palates. (false)
e-tetacycline producing phocomelai. (false)
Alcohol excess cause fetal alcohol syndrome with micrognatiha,microcephaly,and
Sulphonyl ureas may produce marked hyperinsulinism in the fetus with fetal
hypoglycaemia.Chloroquine like in adults may cause cataracts and opacification.High
dose steroids are safe due to ability of placenta to metabolise cortisol to the inactive
cortisone.tetracycline causes dental pigmentation.
145-With regard to calcium metabolism and its control:
a-the major stimulant to parathyroid hormone secretion is a fall in the plasma
unionized calcium concentration. (false)
b-in plasma calcium binding to protein is pH dependant. (true)
c-calcitonin secretion may be stimulated by alcohol.(true)
d-cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver. (true)
e-the average daily absorption of calcium from the diet is 10mmol. (true)
Calcium metabolism is mostly under control of PTH and vitamin D. Calcitonin
released from the c cells of the thyroid act to reduce calcium.
146-Antimicrobial agents effective against pseudomonas aeroginosa infections
Comments: others are ceftazidime, ciprofloxacillin.
147-hyperprolactinaemia may be associated with:
c-brommocriptine therapy. (false)
d-chlorpromazine therapy. (true)
e-non functioning pituitary tumour. (true)
Hyperprolactinaemia is associated with non functional pituitary tumours due to stalk
compression.also found in acromegaly and hypothyroidism.
c-dopamine agonist used to treat hyperprolactinaemia.
41. Cholorpromazine like haloperidol,domperidone is a dopamine antagonist and causes
148-Side effects of thiazide diuretics include:
b-acute pancreatitis. (true)
d-cholestatic jaundice. (true)
e-necrotizing vasculitis. (true)
Side effects of thiazide include,hyperglycaemia,hyperuricaemia,postural
hypotension,impotence,hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia,mild calcium elevation,lipid
abnormalities. Skin reactions including pemphigoid and rarely necrotizing vasculitis
149-The following are true:
A-carbimazole is teratogenic and must be avoided in pregnancy. (false)
b-skin rashes due to carbimazole are unlikely to recur if therapy is changed to
c-relapse in thyrotoxicosis is very rare when carbimazole treatment is continued for 2
d-carbimazol is secreted in milk. (true)
e-symptomatic hypocalcaemia following subtotal thyroidectomy is generally
Carbimazole is used in treatment of thyrotoxicosis with pregnancy. It is associated
with aplasia cutis but this may be more associated with thyrotoxicosis per se than the
drugs.thionamides are used in thyrotoxicosis for variable periods form 6 months to 2
years,but irrespective recurrence of thyrotoxicosis following withdrawal is of the
order of 70%
150-Hyponatraemia is a recognized complication of:
a-carbenoxalone therapy. (false)
b-major surgery. (true)
c-hepato-cellular failure. (true)
d-congestive heart failure. (true)
e-cerebral contusion. (true)
Hyponatraemia can be classified to hypovolaemic,euvolaemic and hypervolaemic
states.the former is due to marked dehydration with excessive salt losses, vomiting,
The middle typically reflects SIADH. The latter due to conditions as CCF, cirrhosis,
nephritic syndrome, myxaeddaema.carbenoxalone causes pseudohyperaldosteronism
with hypertension,hypernatrraemia and hypokalaemia.Major
surgery,pneumonia,subarachnoid,meningitis and injury as well as drugs can induce
42. 151-Hyperprolactinaemia may be found in:
a-chronic renal failure. (true)
b-testosterone therapy. (false)
d-chlorpropamide therapy. (false)
e-LHRH analogue therapy. (false)
Hyperprolactinaemia is caused by dopamine antagonists as
chlorpromazine,haloperidol,metoclopramide,sulpiride.concentrations rise dramatically
in pregnancy and are elevated in hypothyroidism, acromegaly, renal failure.
152-Concerning secondary lymphoid follicles:
a-the cells of the follicle centre are exclusively B-cells. (false)
b-immunoblasts are numerous. (false)
c-A mantle zone surrounds the follicle centre. (true)
d-centrocytes result from mitotic division of centroblasts. (false)
e-antigen presenting cells are present.
a-within lymphoid follicles there are tangible macrophages, follicular dendritic cells
and T-lymphocytes.however B-cells predominate.
b-the majority of immunoblasts are found outside the follicles.
c-the mantle zone consists mainly of small B-lymphocytes surrounding the germinal
d-centrocytes develop from stimulated B-cells and are thought to give rise to
e-antigen presenting dendritic cells are present within the follicles.
153-Which of these statements regarding carriers is/are correct:
a-in classical aemophilia A carriers may show clinical features. (true)
b-in duchenne muscular dystrophy carriers never produce affected males, if the
husband is normal. (false)
c-In cystic fibrosis 2 carriers have a 25% risk of having a child affected with the
d-carrier states are seen in achondroplasia. (false)
e-certain carrier states can be detected using DNA studies. (true)
The carriers of haemophilia A (females) have 40-50% activity of FVIIIc and so are
prone at times of stress to potential increased bleeding-menorrhagia.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition-carriers always are
the ones to produce the affected males.
Cystic fibrosis is recessive and there would be a 50% chance of having an affected
child with 2 parents who are carriers.
Achondroplasia is dominant, penetrance may be an issue here rather than carrier
154-Turner's syndrome(karyotype 45XO)s associated with :
43. a-abnormal breast development. (true)
b-infantile lymphaedaema. (true)
c-increased incidence of bone fractures. (true)
d-coarctation of the aorta. (true)
e-primary aamenorrhoea. (true)
Turner's syndrome is associated with delayed pubertal development, a characteristic
phenotype, (short, wide carrying angle, shield chest. )due to primary hypogonadism.
C-osteoporosis due to oestrogen deficiency. Hypertension is commoner in this
condition an coarctation may be found in up to 10% of cases.
155-The following conditions can cause hyperprolactinaemia:
a-oral contraceptives. (false)
e-chronic renal failure. (true)
a-oral contraceptives do not cause hyperprolactinaemia.
Dopamine antagonists as metoclopramide and haloperidol and new antipsychotics as
otanzapine, produce hyperprolactinaemia.
Other drugs as MAOI, methyl dopa, reserpine, phenothiazines, butyrophenones,
Craniopharyngioma (as well as any pituitary tumour.)may produce pituitary stalk
compression and hyperprolactinaemia.
CRF causes hyperprolactinaemia as the consequences of impaired prolactin excretion.
Hypothyroidism not hyperthyroidism produce increased prolactin.
156-Hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma:
a-is unusual in the elderly. (false)
b-is rarely associated with a blood sugar › 30 mmol/L. (false)
c-may cause focal neurologicall signs. (true)
d-causes hyperventilation. (false)
e-predispose to thrombosis. (true)
a-commonest in the elderly.
d-not associated with acidosis.
e-full anticoagulation is part of the treatment.
a-interacts with nuclear membrane. (false)
b-causes an increased glucose protein transport on the endoplasmic reticulum. (false)
c-acts via a similar mechanism as steroid receptors. (false)
d-can be detected in the lymph. (true)
44. e-is synthesized in the alpha cells of islets of Langerhans. (false)
a-cell surface receptors.
Insulin binding to its receptor result in receptor autophosphorylation on tyrosine
residues and tyrosine phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrates, (IRS-1,2,3)by the
insulin receptor tyrosine kinase
158-Recognised causes of body hair loss:
b-anorexia nervosa. (true)
d-Cushing's syndrome. (false)
e-sheehan syndrome, (postpartum pituitary nerosis). (true)
a-dry and progressively sparse hair.
b-loss of axillary and pubic hair although there is also growth of lanugo hair.
e-any cause of hypopituitarism as iron deficiency, cytotoxic drugs, child birth,
(telogen effluvium), OCP, antithyroid drugs, anticoagulants, retinoids.
a-causes short stature, candidiasis, and impaired nail and dental development in
b-may be a feature of Crohn's disease. (false)
c-when due to an abnormality of PTH receptor is termed pseudo-pseudo
d-biochemically is characterized by increased calcium, increased phosphate and
normal alkaline phosphatase. (false)
e-positive Chvostek's sign can be treated with intravenous calcium. (true)
a-as part of autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1.
Reduced calcium and high phosphate typify the condition.
c-just pseudo hypoPTH. Pseudo-pseudo hypoPTH is where there are typical physical
features as short 4th metacarpal but no biochemical abnormality.
Tetany can be treated with IV calcium gluconate.