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Biology final

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Biology final Document Transcript

  • 1. Biology: Final Exam Mrs. Glemaud 2010-2011Multiple ChoiceIdentify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.___ 1. Which cell structure contains the cell’s genetic material and controls many of the cell’s activities? a. organelle c. cell envelope b. nucleus d. cytoplasm____ 2. Cells fall into two broad categories, depending on whether they a. have a cell wall. c. have a nucleus. b. contain genetic material. d. contain chloroplasts.____ 3. Eukaryotes usually contain a. a nucleus. c. genetic material. b. specialized organelles. d. all of the above____ 4. Which organelle breaks down compounds into small particles that the cell can use? a. Golgi apparatus c. endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosome d. mitochondrion____ 5. Prokaryotes lack a. cytoplasm. c. a nucleus. b. a cell membrane. d. genetic material.____ 6. Which of the following contains a nucleus? a. prokaryotes c. eukaryotes b. bacteria d. organelles____ 7. Which of the following is a function of the nucleus? a. stores DNA b. controls most of the cell’s processes c. contains the information needed to make proteins d. all of the above____ 8. Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton? a. helps a cell keep its shape b. contains DNA c. surrounds the cell d. helps make proteins____ 9. Which of the following is an organelle found in the cytoplasm? a. nucleolus c. chromatin b. ribosome d. cell wall____ 10. Which of the following structures serves as the cell’s boundary from its environment? a. mitochondrion c. chloroplast b. cell membrane d. channel proteins____ 11. The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called a. osmotic pressure. c. facilitated diffusion. b. osmosis. d. active transport.____ 12. Which of the following is an example of an organ? a. heart c. digestive system b. epithelial tissue d. nerve cell
  • 2. Figure 3-1____ 13. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are a. consumers. c. producers. b. decomposers. d. heterotrophs.____ 14. What animals eat both producers and consumers? a. herbivores c. chemotrophs b. omnivores d. autotrophs____ 13. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is a. used in reproduction. c. stored as fat. b. stored as body tissue. d. eliminated as heat.____ 14. What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air to ammonia? a. nitrogen fixation c. decomposition b. excretion d. denitrification____ 15. Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT a. photosynthesis. c. respiration. b. transpiration. d. decomposition.____ 16. The movements of energy and nutrients through living systems are different because a. energy flows in one direction and nutrients recycle. b. energy is limited in the biosphere and nutrients are always available. c. nutrients flow in one direction and energy recycles. d. energy forms chemical compounds and nutrients are lost as heat.____ 17. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment is called a. economy. c. recycling. b. modeling. d. ecology.____ 18. What is the combined portions of Earth called in which all living things exist? a. biome c. ecosystem b. community d. biosphere____ 19. All of the members of a particular species that live in the same area are called a(an) a. biome. c. community. b. population. d. ecosystem.1.The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions fairly constant is called a. homeostasis. c. metabolism b. evolution. d. photosynthesis.____ 2. What is the term for a group of organisms of one type living in the same place? a. biosphere c. population b. ecosystem d. environment____ 3. In the metric system, the basic unit of length is the
  • 3. a. centimeter. c. millimeter. b. kilometer. d. meter.____ 4. When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water would be a. a product. c. both a product and a reactant. b. a reactant. d. neither a product nor a reactant.____ 5. The three particles that make up an atom are a. protons, neutrons, and isotopes. c. positives, negatives, and electrons. b. neutrons, isotopes, and electrons. d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.____ 6. The nucleus is made of a. protons and electrons. c. protons and neutrons. b. electrons and neutrons. d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.____ 7. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and a. a different number of electrons. c. a different number of neutrons. b. a different number of molecules. d. the same number of neutrons.____ 8. Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions? a. compound c. nucleus b. isotope d. enzyme____ 9. A covalent bond is formed as the result of a. transferring electrons. c. transferring protons. b. sharing electrons. d. sharing protons.____ 10. A solution is a(an) a. breaking of a chemical bond. b. chemical reaction. c. evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances. d. combination of two or more liquids.____ 20. Green plants are a. producers. c. herbivores. b. consumers. d. omnivores.____ 21. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems? a. carbohydrates c. water b. sunlight d. carbon____ 22. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an) a. heterotroph. c. autotroph. b. chemotroph. d. producer.____ 23. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are called a. decomposers. c. autotrophs. b. omnivores. d. producers.____ 24. What is an organism that feeds only on plants called? a. carnivore c. omnivore b. herbivore d. detritivore____ 25. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food a. interaction. c. network. b. chain. d. web.____ 26. The repeated movement of water between Earth’s surface and the atmosphere is called a. the water cycle. c. precipitation. b. the condensation cycle. d. evaporation.
  • 4. ____ 27. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT a. plant life. c. rainfall. b. soil type. d. temperature. ________ 40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a heterotroph? a. mushroom c. grass b. leopard d. human Figure 8–1____ 41. Look at Figure 8-1. All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT a. structure A. c. structure C. b. structure B. d. structure D.____ 42. In Figure 8-1, between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule? a. A and B c. C and D b. B and C d. all of the above____ 43. The Calvin cycle takes place in the a. stroma. c. thylakoid membranes. b. photosystems. d. chlorophyll molecules.____ 44. Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called a. autotrophs. c. thylakoids. b. heterotrophs. d. plants.____ 45. Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into a. oxygen. c. ATP and oxygen. b. high-energy sugars. d. oxygen and high-energy sugars.____ 46. The Calvin cycle is another name for a. light-independent reactions. b. light-dependent reactions. c. photosynthesis. d. all of the above____ 47. What is a product of the Calvin cycle? a. oxygen gas c. high-energy sugars b. ATP d. carbon dioxide____ 48. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration? a. fermentation c. glycolysis b. electron transport d. Krebs cycle____ 49. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
  • 5. a. oxygen and lactic acid c. glucose and oxygen b. carbon dioxide and water d. water and glucose____ 50. The starting molecule for glycolysis is a. ADP. c. citric acid. b. pyruvic acid. d. glucose.____ 51. One cause of muscle soreness is a. alcoholic fermentation. c. lactic acid fermentation. b. glycolysis. d. the Krebs cycle.____ 52. Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of a. making more citric acid. b. repaying an oxygen debt. c. restarting glycolysis. d. recharging the electron transport chain.____ 53. All of the following are sources of energy during exercise EXCEPT a. stored ATP. c. lactic acid fermentation. b. alcoholic fermentation. d. cellular respiration.____ 54. Which process does NOT release energy from glucose? a. glycolysis c. fermentation b. photosynthesis d. cellular respiration____ 55. Plants cannot release energy from glucose using a. glycolysis. c. the Krebs cycle. b. photosynthesis. d. cellular respiration.____ 56. Which of the following is released during cellular respiration? a. oxygen c. energy b. air d. lactic acid____ 57. Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down a. food molecules. c. carbon dioxide. b. ATP. d. water.____ 58. Which of these is a product of cellular respiration? a. oxygen c. glucose b. water d. all of the above____ 59. Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of a. 2 ATP molecules. c. 18 ATP molecules. b. 4 ATP molecules. d. 36 ATP molecules.____ 60. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in a. bread dough. b. any environment containing oxygen. c. muscle cells. d. mitochondria.____ 61. The two main types of fermentation are called a. alcoholic and aerobic. c. alcoholic and lactic acid. b. aerobic and anaerobic. d. lactic acid and anaerobic.____ 62. Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in a. animal cells only. c. all but plant cells. b. plant cells only. d. all eukaryotic cells.____ 63. The products of photosynthesis are the a. products of cellular respiration. c. products of glycolysis. b. reactants of cellular respiration. d. reactants of fermentation.
  • 6. ____ 64. All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT a. DNA overload. c. obtaining enough food. b. excess oxygen. d. expelling wastes.____ 65. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated? a. G1 phase c. S phase b. G2 phase d. M phase____ 66. Which event occurs during interphase? a. The cell grows. b. Centrioles appear. c. Spindle fibers begin to form. d. Centromeres divide.____ 67. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence? a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis____ 68. The two main stages of cell division are called a. mitosis and interphase. c. the M phase and the S phase. b. synthesis and cytokinesis. d. mitosis and cytokinesis.____ 69. Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that a. regulate the cell cycle. c. cause cancer. b. produce p53. d. work to heal wounds.____ 70. Which of the following is a phase in the cell cycle? a. G1 phase c. M phase b. G2 phase d. all of the above Figure 10–2____ 71. Cell division is represented in Figure 10-2 by the letter? a. A. c. C. b. B. d. D____ 72. The cell cycle is the a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide. b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell. c. time from prophase until cytokinesis.
  • 7. d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis. Figure 10–3____ 73. The structures labeled B in Figure 10-3 are called a. centromeres. c. sister chromatids. b. centrioles. d. spindles.____ 74. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis? a. cytokinesis c. anaphase b. interphase d. S phase____ 75. The first phase of mitosis is called a. prophase. c. metaphase. b. anaphase. d. interphase.____ 76. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by a. the centrioles. c. the spindle. b. cyclins. d. all of the above____ 77. Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits a. are true-breeding. c. make up the parental generation. b. make up the F2 generation. d. are called hybrids.____ 78. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because a. the allele for tall plants is recessive. b. the allele for short plants is dominant. c. the allele for tall plants is dominant. d. they were true-breeding like their parents.____ 79. The principles of probability can be used to a. predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses. b. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses. c. predict the traits of the parents used in genetic crosses. d. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.____ 80. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study a. flowering. c. the inheritance of traits. b. gamete formation. d. cross-pollination.____ 81. What are Mendel’s factors called today? a. alleles c. genes b. traits d. characters____ 82. The principle of dominance states that a. all alleles are dominant. b. all alleles are recessive. c. some alleles are dominant and others are recessive. d. alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
  • 8. ____ 83. When Mendel allowed the tall F1 pea plants (Tt) to self-pollinate, a. the offspring were of medium height. b. all of the offspring were tall. c. all of the offspring were short. d. some of the offspring were short.____ 84. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be a. hybrid. c. heterozygous. b. homozygous. d. dominant.____ 85. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other’s inheritance? a. principle of dominance b. principle of independent assortment c. principle of probabilities d. principle of segregation____ 86. Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to a. plants only. c. pea plants only. b. animals only. d. all organisms.____ 87. Gametes are produced by the process of a. mitosis. c. crossing-over. b. meiosis. d. replication.____ 88. Traits that are produced by the interaction of several genes are said to be a. polygenic. c. haploid. b. codominant. d. diploid.____ 89. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA? a. ribose + phosphate group + thymine b. ribose + phosphate group + uracil c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine____ 90. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules, a. each with two new strands. b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands. c. each with one new strand and one original strand. d. each with two original strands.____ 91. Unlike DNA, RNA contains a. adenine. c. phosphate groups. b. uracil. d. thymine.____ 92. Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis? a. transfer RNA only b. messenger RNA only c. ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA____ 93. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids? a. 3 c. 9 b. 6 d. 12____ 94. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code? a. rRNA c. mRNA b. tRNA d. RNA polymerase____ 95. Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)
  • 9. Figure 12–5 a. DNA molecule. c. RNA molecule. b. amino acid. d. protein.____ 96. DNA is copied during a process called a. replication. c. transcription. b. translation. d. transformation.____ 97. RNA contains the sugar a. ribose. c. glucose. b. deoxyribose. d. lactose.____ 98. What is produced during transcription? a. RNA molecules c. RNA polymerase b. DNA molecules d. proteins____ 99. What happens during the process of translation? a. Messenger RNA is made from DNA. b. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins. c. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA. d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.____ 100. Genes contain instructions for assembling a. purines. c. proteins. b. nucleosomes. d. pyrimidines.
  • 10. Biology: Final Exam Mrs. Glemaud 2010-2011Answer SectionMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 19 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 21 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 24 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 49 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 35 6. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 35 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 36 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 37 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 38 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 42 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 67 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 69 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 72 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 78 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 76 | p. 77 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 74 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 63 18. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 63 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 64 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 67 21. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 67 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 68 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 69 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 69 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 70 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 176 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 173 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 173 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 172 33. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 173 34. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 176 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 181 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 174 | p. 175 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 182 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 185 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 193 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 201 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 202
  • 11. 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 20243. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 21244. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 20145. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 20646. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 21247. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 21248. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 22249. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 22250. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 22351. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 22552. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 23153. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 23054. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 23255. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 23256. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 22257. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 22258. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 22259. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 22360. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 22561. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 22462. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 23263. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 23264. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 241 | p. 24365. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 24666. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 24667. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 24668. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 24569. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 25170. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 24571. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 24572. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 24573. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 24474. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 24675. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 24676. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 25177. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 26478. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 26579. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 26780. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 26381. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 26582. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 26583. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 26584. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 26885. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 27186. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 27487. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 276
  • 12. 88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 273 89. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 291 90. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 299 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 300 92. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 300 93. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 302 94. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 301 95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 294 96. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 297 97. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 300 98. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 301 99. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 304100. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 306