Systems test alpha
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Study guide for the 1st Systems Test

Study guide for the 1st Systems Test

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  • 1. Study Guide (General Description, Flight Controls and Hydraulics, Rotors, and Power Plant)
  • 2. 1. Define the term WARNING
    • An operating procedure, practice, etc., which if not strictly observed could result in damage to or destruction of equipment.
    • A mandatory procedure
    • An operating procedure, practice, etc., which if not correctly followed could result in personal injury or loss of life.
    • Indicated futurity
  • 3. 2. Define the term CAUTION
    • An operating procedure, condition, etc., which is essential to highlight.
    • An operating procedure, practice, etc., which if not strictly observed could result in damage to or destruction of equipment.
    • An operating procedure, practice, etc., which if not correctly followed could result in personal injury or loss of life.
    • Indicates futurity
  • 4. 3. Define NOTE
    • A mandatory procedure
    • Recommended or preferred, not mandatory.
    • Indicates futurity
    • An operating procedure, condition, etc., which is essential to highlight.
  • 5. 4. Define the term SHALL
    • Indicated futurity
    • A mandatory procedure
    • An optional procedure
    • Recommended or preferred, not mandatory
  • 6. 5. Define the term SHOULD
    • Recommended or preferred, not mandatory
    • An optional procedure
    • A mandatory procedure
    • An operating procedure, condition, etc., which is essential to highlight
  • 7. 6. Define the terms MAY or NEED NOT
    • Indicated futurity
    • A mandatory procedure
    • A condition that you may do or not
    • An optional procedure
  • 8. 7. Define the term WILL
    • An optional procedure
    • Indicates futurity
    • A mandatory procedure
    • A procedure that will be done
  • 9. 8. The three sections of the TH-67 fuselage are the _____, _______, and the _______ section.
    • cockpit, cabin, and aft boom
    • front, intermediate, and back tail
    • forward, intermediate, and tail boom
    • cockpit, cabin, and tail
  • 10. 9. The VFR & A+ configuration have one pitot that provides _______ air to the airspeed indicator and two vents that provide _____ air to the static instruments.
    • direct, indirect
    • pressure, kinetic
    • impact (ram), static
    • direct, static
  • 11. 10. The IFR configuration has __ ______ pitot/static systems.
    • 4 separate
    • 3 individual
    • 2 independent
    • 2 individual
  • 12. 11. The TH-67 ____ light, located on the aircraft nose provides a 450 watt lamp in an extendable and slewable mount.
    • landing
    • position
    • collision
    • search
  • 13. 12. The TH-67 ____ light, located on the aircraft nose provides a 250 watt lamp in a fixed mount.
    • landing
    • search
    • position
    • collision
  • 14. 13. How many switches are used to control the search light in the NVG mode on the A+ configuration?
    • 2, one for selecting IR light, and one to turn it on.
    • 4, one to turn it on, one to select white light, one to select IR light, and one to slew the search light to extended and retracted position.
    • 3, one to select the IR light, one to turn the light on, and one to slew the search light to the desired position.
    • 2, one on/off switch, and one to select IR.
  • 15. 14. What does the term semi-monocoque mean?
    • The skin of the aircraft provides all of the structural strength
    • The aircraft skin provides none of the structural strength
    • The aircraft skin provides some of the structural strength
    • None of the above
  • 16. 15. The TH-67 intermediate section uses a ____ type of construction.
    • semi-rigid
    • semi-flex
    • semi-monocoque
    • monocoque
  • 17. 16. Which section of the aircraft contains the engine?
    • A. The forward section
    • B. The cabin section
    • C. The engine/transmission section
    • D. The intermediate section
  • 18. 17. The TH-67 tail boom section uses ___ ______ type of construction.
    • semi monocoque
    • partial monocoque
    • fully monocoque
    • semi rigid
  • 19. 18. State the purpose of the vertical fin.
    • Provides vertical stability on the x-axis
    • The vertical fin, being displaced (canted) 5 ½ degrees to the right thus reducing the tail rotor thrust requirements in forward flight
    • Off-loads the tail rotor between 80 and 100 knots
    • Provides vertical stability on the yaw axis
  • 20. State the purpose of the horizontal stabilizer.
    • A. Maintains a desirable aircraft attitude through the high end of the airspeed range. The metal strip at its leading edge provides for autorotational stability.
    • B. Provides pitch (up and down) about the lateral axis
    • C. Provides horizontal control of the aircraft during low “G” maneuvers.
    • D. None of the above
  • 21. 19. At what airspeed is the tail rotor fully off-loaded in forward flight?
    • Between 110 and 130 knots
    • Between 90 and 120 knots
    • At 100 knots
    • Between 100 and 110 knots
  • 22. 20. The nomenclature of the TH-67 power plant is the model _______.
    • T700-GE-401C
    • JP-WD40
    • PW-123-J
    • 250-C20J
  • 23. 21. State the maximum torque available (MAX TQ AVAIL).
    • 107% TQ for 15 seconds max
    • 100% TQ for 5 minutes max
    • >85% to 100% for 5 minutes max
    • 100% TQ for 5 seconds max
  • 24. 22. State the maximum continuous power (TQ AVAIL CONT) of the TH-67 power plant.
    • 85% TQ (270 SHP) no time limit
    • 85% TQ (270 SHP) take-off power range 5 minute limit
    • >85% to 100% TQ maximum
    • 100% TQ no time limit
  • 25. 23. Can the maximum transient power setting (110% TQ) be used intentionally?
    • Yes, 5 minutes limit
    • Yes, 5 seconds limit
    • No, only when executing high ‘G’ maneuvers
    • No, intentional use is prohibited
  • 26. 24. State the diameter of the TH-67 main rotor.
    • 52’ 4”
    • 42’ 4”
    • 33’ 4”
    • 44’ 3”
  • 27. 25. What type of airfoil is the main rotor blade?
    • A honey comb airfoil
    • A symmetrical airfoil
    • An asymmetrical airfoil
    • None of the above
  • 28. 26. How many degrees of twist are there in the main rotor blade?
    • A positive 10 degrees
    • A negative 5 degrees
    • A positive 5 degrees
    • A negative 10 degrees
  • 29. 27. State the tail rotor diameter.
    • 5’ 10”
    • 4’ 5”
    • 5’ 5”
    • 8’ 5”
  • 30. 28. How many degrees of pitch are in the tail rotor with full left pedals applied?
    • 25 degrees
    • 23 degrees
    • 17 degrees
    • 21 degrees
  • 31. 29. State the TH-67 Vne
    • 122 knots
    • 78 knots
    • 130 knots
    • 100 knots
  • 32. 29. State the maximum airspeed limitation with >85 to 100% TQ applied.
    • 78 knots
    • 110 knots
    • 80 knots
    • 122 knots
  • 33. 31. State the minimum rate of descent airspeed in autorotation.
    • A. 50 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • B. 69 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • C. 52 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • D. 60 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
  • 34. 32. State the maximum glide distance airspeed in autorotation.
    • 69 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • 79 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • 52 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
    • 60 knots @ 394 RPM (100% rotor RPM)
  • 35. 33. State the minimum crew restriction VFR and IFR.
    • VFR minimum 1 pilot, IFR minimum 1 pilot and 1 observer
    • VFR minimum 2 pilots, IFR minimum 1 pilot
    • VFR minimum 1 pilot, IFR minimum 2 pilots
    • VFR minimum 1 student, IFR minimum 1 student and 1 pilot
  • 36. 34. State the fuel capacity of the TH-67 fuel cell.
    • 69.4 U.S. gallons total; 64.2 U.S. gallons useable; 2.3 U.S. gallons unusable
    • 81.4 U.S. gallons total; 64.2 U.S. gallons useable; 1.5 U.S. gallons unusable
    • 69.4 U.S. gallons total; 68.2 U.S. gallons useable; 1.3 U.S. gallons unusable
    • 84.1 U.S. gallons total; 82.6 U.S. gallons useable; 1.5 U.S. gallons unusable
  • 37. 35. Why must the engine oil system be drained and refilled if transmission and engine oils are intermixed?
    • To prevent chemical reaction
    • To prevent damage to the engine oil seals
    • If the two are mixed they become very flammable
    • To prevent damage to the transmission
  • 38. 36. In a conventional helicopter, what are the three basic flight controls that are used to maneuver the aircraft?
    • Throttle, stick, rudder
    • Cyclic, stick, collective
    • Cyclic, collective, tail rotor (anti-torque) pedals
    • Stick, elevator, vertical fin
  • 39. 37. In a conventional helicopter, which flight control directs the total lift/thrust of the main rotor system?
    • The collective
    • The stick
    • The pedals
    • The cyclic
  • 40. 38. Which conventional helicopter flight control will input a pitch change to all main rotor blades simultaneously regardless of the blades position?
    • Cyclic
    • Rudder
    • Collective
    • Stick
  • 41. 39. In a conventional helicopter, the rotation of the main rotor induces a force known as torque. Describe the effects this force has on the fuselage.
    • The torque force will cause the fuselage of the aircraft to rotate in the same direction of the main rotor
    • The torque force will cause the fuselage of the aircraft to rotate in the opposite direction of the main rotor
    • No effect is observed since rotor torque and fuselage torque will be equalized
    • None of the above
  • 42. 40. State the primary purpose of the tail rotor system in a conventional helicopter.
    • Provides directional control
    • Yaws the aircraft
    • To counter-act the torque effects of the main rotor
    • Provides right and left inputs on a hover
  • 43. 41. The ___ ____ controls will provide directional control (heading) of the aircraft during hovering, as well as trimming the fuselage of the helicopter at higher speeds.
    • Cyclic pedals
    • Stick pedals
    • Tail rotor
    • A and B
  • 44. 42. Cyclic control inputs (fore/aft and lateral) are considered independent up to the _____ ______ from there on up to the non-rotating swash plate they are considered ______.
    • intermixing bellcrank, coordinated
    • self adjusting controls, manual
    • intermixing push rods, coordinated
    • self input controls, manual
  • 45. 43. In the VFR configuration, what happens to the pilot’s cyclic stick if left unattended when the copilot’s cyclic stick is removed?
    • Nothing, there is no difference with both or just one cyclic stick installed/removed
    • The reduced load on the balance spring will cause the pilot’s cyclic stick to creep aft slightly
    • If this situation is encountered you must not go flying do to lack of controls on the aircraft
    • You must maintain right cyclic input to counteract for the missing copilot’s cyclic stick
  • 46. 44. Where is the cyclic friction knob located?
    • Right on the base of the copilot’s cyclic stick
    • There is not such thing installed in the TH-67 helicopter
    • In between the pilot and copilot seat
    • Left of the base on the pilot’s cyclic stick
  • 47. 45. How much preload is on the cyclic system with the aircraft running and the hydraulics on?
    • 2 to 3 pounds preload
    • 1 to 1 ½ pounds preload
    • 2 ½ to 4 pounds preload
    • ½ to 1 pound preload
  • 48. 46. Which aircraft configuration has the force trim system?
    • VFR only
    • IFR only
    • A+ only
    • All of the above
  • 49. 47. What switches are located on the pilot’s collective stick control head?
    • On/off switch, landing light, fuel start
    • Search light switches, landing light, governor RPM increase/decrease, and the starter button
    • There is no switches on the pilot’s collective stick; all switches are located on the copilot’s collective stick
    • Fuel valve switch, landing light, starter button, and hover button
  • 50. 48. Where is the collective friction located?
    • It is located on the right of the copilot’s collective stick base
    • Right behind the pilot’s anti-torque pedals
    • It is located on the left of the pilot’s collective stick base
    • No such thing installed in the TH-67 helicopter
  • 51. 49. What switches are located on the co-pilot’s collective control head?
    • The search light switch, landing light, governor RPM increase/decrease, and the starter button
    • Fuel valve switch, throttle switch, landing light, and hover switch
    • There is no c0-pilot collective control head
    • Eject switch, landing light, fuel valve switch, and avionics
  • 52. 50. What amount of collective control preload is built into the collective flight control system?
    • 2 to 4 pound preload
    • 1 to 3 pound preload
    • 4 to 6 pound preload
    • 3 to 5 pound preload
  • 53. 51. Which collective control stick is removable and why?
    • The co-pilot‘s collective stick is removable in case a non-rated passenger is flown in the co-pilot’s seat
    • The pilot’s collective for egress purposes
    • Neither the pilot or co-pilot’s collective stick can be removed unless is for maintenance reasons only
    • None of the above
  • 54. 52. Which direction can the tail rotor pedals be adjusted?
    • Forward only
    • Aft only
    • Pedals are fixed and can not be re-adjusted
    • The pedals can be adjusted fore and aft
  • 55. 53. What changes the pitch (angle-of-attack) in the tail rotor through the lever assembly?
    • The pitch horn
    • The tail rotor bell cranks
    • The pitch change links
    • The anti-torque pedals
  • 56. 54. What is the preload on the tail rotor system?
    • 1 to 3 pounds preload
    • 3 to 5 pounds preload
    • 2 to 5 pounds preload
    • 4 to 5 pounds preload
  • 57. 55. Does the tail rotor system have hydraulic assist?
    • The tail rotor system does not have hydraulics
    • Yes
    • Yes, but only in the retreating blade to prevent tail vibrations
    • None of the above
  • 58. 56. The TH-67 flight control system can best be described as ____ ____ ____ with hydraulic assist.
    • fully articulated links
    • hydro mechanical linkages
    • direct mechanical linkages
    • articulated mechanical links
  • 59. 57. The purpose of the hydraulic servo actuator installed to the cyclic and collective controls is to convert ____ ____ under pressure into ____ ____ work.
    • JP-8 fuel, carbon monoxide
    • hydraulic fluid, useful mechanical
    • servo fluid, useful mechanical
    • Hydraulic fluid, control movement
  • 60. 58. The TH-67 hydraulic pump is a constant ____, _____ delivery system component providing 600 +/- 25 psi, and _____ GPM flow rate.
    • pressure, variable, 1.9
    • flow, direct, 2.3
    • pressure, flow, 1.2
    • flow, pressure, 1.9
  • 61. 59. The purpose of the differential release valve is to reduce ____ ____ ____ when rotor loads are increased due to high “G” maneuvers or flight into turbulence.
    • rotor centrifugal forces
    • transmission high speeds
    • engine high speeds
    • pressure build up
  • 62. 60. With regard to cyclic input, does the blades position in the plane of rotation matter?
    • No
    • Only during forward flight
    • Yes, the desired input does not occur until the blade is positioned exactly 90 º earlier in the plane of rotation (phase lag)
    • Only during right side flight above 20 knots
  • 63. 61. What drives the rotating swash plate?
    • The transmission
    • The power turbine
    • The connection of the collar set and idler lever/link assembly to the rotating swash plate
    • The rotating scissors
  • 64. 62. What is another name for the collar set and idler lever/link assembly?
    • The drag link assembly
    • The rotating link assembly
    • The rotating swash plate link
    • None of the above
  • 65. 63. What connects the rotating swash plate to the pitch change horn?
    • The pitch control rods (PCR)
    • The pitch change tubes
    • The swash plate tubes
    • The pitch horn tubes
  • 66. 64. What type of rotor system is used on the TH-67 helicopter?
    • Fully articulated rotor system
    • Fully aerobatic rotor system
    • Rigid, semi-articulated rotor system
    • Semi-rigid, under slung rotor system
  • 67. 65. How is the rotor system attached to the mast?
    • It is attached to the mast by 4 grade 1172 steel bolts
    • The rotor system is attached to the mast by means of bolts, washer, and nuts
    • The rotor system is attached to the mast by a splined trunnion
    • None of the above
  • 68. 66. What is the definition of a trunnion?
    • A component that holds things together
    • The act of bringing two objects of dissimilar shapes to form one
    • A component that allows rotation and tilt
    • To turn or to be turned
  • 69. 67. What is the purpose of the yoke?
    • Attaches the main rotor and main transmission to the hub
    • To support the main rotor system and serves as the pitch change axis
    • Sends a signal to the cockpit to let the pilot know of exact angle of pitch in the main rotor blades
    • A and C
  • 70. 68. How is the trunnion attached to the yoke?
    • The trunnion is attached to the yoke by pillow blocks
    • The trunnion is attached to the yoke by 2 high impact type 117 grade steel bolts
    • The trunnion is attached to the yoke by the go/no-go fly wheel assembly
    • The trunnion does not attached to the yoke by any means. They are two separate systems independent of one another
  • 71. 69. What kind of balancing requires lead weights to be added to the blade retention bolt?
    • Trailing edge balancing requires lead weights to be added to the blade retention bolts
    • Sprout rigging balancing requires lead weights to be added to the blade retention bolts
    • WARNING. Never add weights to the blade retention bolts
    • Spanwise (root to tip) balancing requires lead weights to be added to the blade retention bolts
  • 72. 70. What distributes the centrifugal load from the blade grip to the yoke?
    • The under-slung design of the TH-67 rotor system
    • The yoke centrifugal bearings
    • Tension torsion straps
    • The is no centrifugal force load from the blade grip to the yoke
  • 73. 71. What structural members make up the main rotor blade?
    • The titanium spar, the chamber, and the trailing edge
    • The aluminum spar, the spar closure, and the trailing edge
    • The titanium spar, the spar closure, and the trailing edge
    • Aluminum, honey comb, and titanium
  • 74. 72. Weights are added at the factory at the time of manufacturing to control the undesirable twisting associated with asymmetrical airfoils and to preserve favorable aerodynamic characteristics.
    • True
    • False
  • 75. 73. Why does the main rotor blades have a negative 10 º twist?
    • The negative twist is designed to equalize lift during autorotation
    • The negative twist is designed to prevent turbulence during high power/high “G” maneuvers
    • There is no negative twist on the main rotor blades
    • The negative twist is designed to equalize lift along the blade span (length)
  • 76. 74. The “droop snoot” is known for what aerodynamic characteristics?
    • The “droop snoot” design is noted for a wide thrust margin for maneuverability and high efficiency during forward flight
    • The “droop snoot” design is noted for a wide thrust margin for maneuverability and high efficiency during hovering
    • The “droop snoot” design is noted for a wide thrust margin for maneuverability and high efficiency during turns
    • The “droop snoot” design is noted for a wide thrust margin for maneuverability and high efficiency during autorotation
  • 77. 75. How many trim tabs are there on the main rotor blade?
    • Two trim-tabs, one for adjusting A+ vibrations and the other one to adjust B+ vibrations
    • Just one trim-tab
    • Three trim-tabs, one for adjusting the inner blade track, a second for the middle blade track, and a third for the outer blade track
    • Two trim-tabs, one for adjusting the inner blade track, and a second trim-tab is used to adjust the outer portion of the blade’s track
  • 78. 76. What are doublers used for on the main rotor blade?
    • They are applied at the blades root to sustain the shearing force caused by the centrifugal force occurring at the blade retention bolt
    • Used to equalize lift along the blade span (length)
    • They are designed to stop excessive droop (lower motion of the blade) and conning (upper movement of the blade)
    • Doublers are used on the main rotor to reduce main rotor vibrations during slow autorotations
  • 79. 77. What is the purpose of the flap restraint kit?
    • Its purpose is to limit flapping during autorotations
    • Its purpose is to limit flapping during high power maneuvers
    • Its purpose is to limit flapping during startup and shutdown
    • The is no flap restraint system installed on any under-slung rotor system
  • 80. 78. At what RPM is flapping limited to 6 º maximum?
    • At 90% N2 and below
    • At 97% N2 and below
    • At 25% N2 and below
    • At 31% N2 and below
  • 81. 79. At what RPM is the flapping angle no longer limited?
    • Above 31% N2 RPM
    • Above 85% N2 RPM
    • Above 90% N2 RPM
    • Above 25% N2 RPM
  • 82. 80. How is the tail rotor assembly mounted to the tail rotor output shaft?
    • It is mounted to the tail rotor output shaft by a quick disconnect fitting
    • It is mounted to the tail rotor output shaft by a splined trunnion
    • It is mounted to the tail rotor output shaft by two crossheads bolts
    • It is mounted to the tail rotor output shaft by a spherical bearing
  • 83. 81. How does the tail rotor system compensates for dissymmetry of lift?
    • The tail rotor assembly compensates for dissymmetry of lift through the chordwise hinge by allowing the blade to feather as it flaps
    • The tail rotor assembly compensates for dissymmetry of lift through the trunnion hinge by allowing the blade to feather as it flaps
    • The tail rotor assembly compensates for dissymmetry of lift through the crosshead hinge by allowing the blade to feather as it flaps
    • The tail rotor assembly compensates for dissymmetry of lift through the delta hinge by allowing the blade to feather as it flaps
  • 84. 82. What are the washers on the blade bolts used for?
    • They are used for preventing corrosion from dissimilar metals
    • They are used for counter weight
    • They are used for spanwise balancing
    • None of the above
  • 85. 83. What are the rectangular weights and washers on one end of the trunnion used for?
    • They are used for chordwise balance
    • They are used for spanwise balance
    • They are used for trailing edge balance
    • They are used for leading edge balance
  • 86. 84. What are the nut, bolt, and washer(s) used for on the dynamic balance wheel?
    • They are used to eliminate high frequency vibrations and to assist in spherical and chordwise balance
    • They are used to eliminate high frequency vibrations and to assist in spanwise and trailing edge balance
    • They are used to eliminate high frequency vibrations and to assist in spanwise and chordwise balance
    • None of the above
  • 87. 85. Where are the weights that are added at the factory located?
    • They are located on the outboard trailing edge and the blade tip
    • They are located on the inboard trailing edge and the leading edge
    • They are located on the inboard trailing edge and at the blade tip
    • None of the above
  • 88. 86. What are the washers on the pitch horns used for?
    • They are used as aerodynamic balance during steep turns/high “G” maneuvers
    • There are no washers installed on the pitch horn
    • They are used as aerodynamic balance to eliminate “pedal creep”
    • They are used for spanwise balancing
  • 89. 87. The TH-67 engine’s rated shaft horsepower is de-rated for _____ ______.
    • 100% TQ
    • 85% TQ
    • Transmission compatibility
    • Turbine comapatibility
  • 90. 88. The statement that best describes the TH-67 engine is “Internal combustion gas turbine featuring a ______ ______ ______.
    • free gas turbine
    • free power turbine
    • reverse combustion chamber
    • compressor discharge tube
  • 91. 89. What are two advantages of a free turbine?
    • Reduces cost throughout the Army, and since is free it does not require calibration every 1,000 hours of flight
    • Provides reduced load for starting , and each turbine operates at optimum RPM capacity
    • No mechanical connection between the gas turbine thus reducing friction and loss of power, and they can be operated independently of each other
    • No cost to the Army, and they are light weight
  • 92. 90. The purpose of the Air Barrier Filter is to provide clean ______ air to the engine.
    • particle-free
    • fresh
    • cool
    • All of the above
  • 93. 91. Will the engine air be filtered if the ENG ALT AIR switch is placed in the open position?
    • Yes, but only 39% of the air passing through will be filtered
    • No such switch installed in the TH-67 helicopter
    • Yes, when the air filtered is bypass, filtered air will still be going into the engine through the secondary filtration system
    • No, when the air barrier filter is bypass, unfiltered air will be going into the engine
  • 94. 92. What indication will the pilot receive when the air barrier filter is blocked/clogged?
    • The FILTER CLOGGED caution light will illuminate
    • The HIGH INLET PRESSURE caution light will illuminate
    • The LOW INLET PRESSURE caution light will illuminate
    • There is no indication sent to the cockpit for this condition
  • 95. 93. What are the four sections of the model 250-C20J turbine engine?
    • Intake, compressor, combustion, and exhaust section
    • Power turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust, and ignition section
    • The compressor, power and accessory gearbox, turbine, and combustion section
    • The stator vanes, the rotating vanes, the centrifugal stage, and the impeller section
  • 96. 94. What does the bleed air control valve do?
    • It aids in rapid engine acceleration and helps prevent compressor stalls
    • It controls the amount of bleed air needed for cabin/cockpit heating
    • It controls bleed air for de-icing of the compressor inlet vane
    • Both B and C
  • 97. 95. What are the five customer bleed air ports on the diffuser scroll?
    • Anti-icing, vent and cap, discharge air, exhaust holes, and PC filter
    • The engine anti-ice valve, bleed air control valve, two cabin heat ports, and PC air filter
    • Two cabin heat ports, cockpit heat port, and the PC air filter
    • None of the above
  • 98. 96. What is the purpose of the cap on the rear diffuser vent and cap?
    • To increase air pressure on one side of two labyrinth seals as the compressor experiences wear.
    • To equalize the high pressure between the diffuser and the compressor section
    • To prevent Foreign Object Damage (FOD) from entering the diffuser
    • Vents out high pressure from the diffuser and redirects it to the compressor
  • 99. 97. The compressor consists of how many and what kind of compressor stages?
    • It consists of four axial stages and one centrifugal stage
    • It consists of five axial stages and two centrifugal stage
    • It consists of five axial stages and one centrifugal stage
    • It consists of six axial stages and one centrifugal stage
  • 100. 98. On a standard day the airs temperature increases to approximately ___ º F by the time it goes through the seventh stage of compression.
    • 1270
    • 456
    • 502
    • 520
  • 101. 99. What are the only items provided with anti-icing capability?
    • The engine inlet, and the windshield
    • The windshield, and the main rotor blade leading edge
    • Both, main and tail rotor blades leading edges
    • The front support hub and the seven inlet guide vanes
  • 102. 100. Should the bleed-air control valve be opened or closed on preflight?
    • The bleed-air control valve SHALL be closed on preflight or maintenance action is required
    • This valve can not be seen unless parts from the engine are removed during major overhaul to the engine
    • The bleed-air valve SHOULD be closed on preflight or maintenance action is required
    • The bleed-air valve SHALL be open on preflight or maintenance action is required
  • 103. 101. When does the spark cease to exist in the combustion section of the engine?
    • When N1 reaches 90% RPM
    • When N2 reaches 90%
    • When the starter button is released
    • The spark never ceases unless there is a failure of the exciter box or engine tachometer generator
  • 104. 102. What is the temperature of the flame in the combustion section of the engine?
    • Approximately 4500 º F
    • Approximately 5500 º F
    • Approximately 3500 º F
    • Approximately 2500 º F
  • 105. 103. What is the melting point of titanium?
    • 3200 º F
    • 220 º F
    • 320 º F
    • 2200 º F
  • 106. 104. How much of the compressed air is used for combustion?
    • Approximately 20 to 25%
    • Approximately 50 to 60%
    • Approximately 70 to 80%
    • Approximately 80 to 95%
  • 107. 105. T or F Approximately 75 to 80% of the air is used to cool and center the combustion flame plus drive the five customer bleed-air accessories.
    • False
    • True
  • 108. 106. What principle takes advantage of impact and reaction forces?
    • Newton’s third law of action and reaction
    • Newton’s first law of inertia
    • The gas turbine principle
    • The action reaction principle
  • 109. 107. Changes in ____ ______ cause changes in fuel flow.
    • power settings
    • wind conditions
    • pressure altitude
    • high temperature
  • 110. 108. Changes in fuel flow will cause changes in _______ of the gases entering the turbine rotors.
    • flow
    • cooling
    • temperature
    • expansion
  • 111. 109. Combustion gases impact the gas producer and the turbine rotors inducing _____________________.
    • rotation of the compressor
    • rotation of the accessory gearbox
    • rotation of the free wheeling unit
    • rotation of the turbine shaft
  • 112. 110. An increase in expansion rate/velocity induces an increase in _____ that is transmitted through the N2 gear train as measurable _______.
    • air, RPM
    • torque, horsepower
    • fuel, shaft torque
    • fuel, horsepower
  • 113. 111. Which section of the engine is the primary structural member of the engine?
    • The power and accessory gearbox section
    • The compressor section
    • The combustion section
    • The power turbine section
  • 114. 112. What is designed to reduce the high RPM required for horsepower development to more practical RPM at the accessory output pads?
    • The reverse flow combustion chamber
    • Electrical motors dedicated just to the accessory output pads
    • Two separate gear trains (N1 and N2)
    • The N1 tachometer and the N2 tachometer
  • 115. 113. Which section of the engine is driven by the gas producer gear train?
    • The oil cooler section is the only section driven by the N1 gear train
    • The combustion section is the only section driven by the N1 gear train
    • The turbine section is the only section driven by the N1 gear train
    • The compressor section is the only section driven by the N1 gear train
  • 116. 114. The fuel pump, gas producer fuel control, starter/generator, oil pump, tachometer generator, and the standby generator (only on the IFR configuration) are driven by what gear train?
    • N2 gear train
    • N1 gear train
    • Both, N1 and N2 gear trains
    • None of the above
  • 117. 115. The freewheeling unit, the torque meter, the governor, and the tachometer generator are driven by what gear train?
    • N1 gear train
    • N2 gear train
    • Both, N1 and N2 gear trains
    • None of the above
  • 118. 116. The N1 and N2 tachometer generators produce what kind of voltage?
    • Direct Current (DC) voltage
    • Alternate Current (AC) voltage
    • The N1 DC voltage, and the N2 AC voltage
    • The N1 AC voltage, and the N2 DC voltage
  • 119. 117. The starter portion of the starter/generator is used to “crank” the ____ _____ _____ during the start sequence.
    • N2 gear train
    • engine combustion section
    • N1 gear train
    • accessory gear box
  • 120. 118. The generator portion of the starter/generator provides ____ ____ voltage to all of the helicopter’s electrical systems plus it re-charges the ___ _____.
    • alternate current, main battery
    • direct current, standby battery
    • direct current, main battery
    • alternate current, standby battery
  • 121. 119. How are the gas producer fuel control and the governor integrated?
    • They are integrated by pneumatic connections
    • They are integrated by mechanical connection
    • They are integrated by hydro mechanical connections
    • They are integrated electrically
  • 122. 120. What is the purpose of the burner drain valve?
    • To burn fuel that remains on the outer combustion case
    • To drain unburned fuel from the combustion chamber back to the fuel tank
    • To allow unburned fuel to drain from the outer combustion case
    • None of the above
  • 123. 121. The purpose of the dual accumulator-double check valve is to ____ _____ ______ from the main rotor system.
    • reduce the vibrations
    • dampen torsional vibrations
    • maintain CG balance
    • None of the above
  • 124. 122. Where is the combustions gas temperature measured on the C20-J turbine engine?
    • Right before the N1 rotor
    • Right after the gas passes by the N2 rotor
    • Right in between the N1 and the N2 rotors
    • A and B
  • 125. 123. Where is the engine oil temperature measured?
    • At the combustion chamber #7 bearing solenoid
    • It is measured as the oil leaves the bottom of the engine oil reservoir
    • It is measured by a “wet” line (direct oil pressure)
    • By a “wet” line (direct pressure reading)
  • 126. 124. How is the engine oil pressure measured?
    • It is measured in PSI by a “dry” line
    • It is measured in PSI by the transmission pressure gauge
    • It is measured by a “wet” line (direct oil pressure)
    • It is measured as it passes through the #2 and #7 bearing
  • 127. 125. How is the engine torque measured?
    • By a “wet” line (direct pressure reading)
    • By the difference in pressure from the sump and the pump
    • It is measured by a “wet” line (direct oil pressure)
    • None of the above
  • 128. 126. Which engine bearings are externally lubricated?
    • Bearings 1, 2, 5, and 8
    • Bearings 5, 6, 7, and 8
    • Bearings 2, 2 ½, 6, 7, and 8
    • Bearings 1, 6, 7, and 8
  • 129. 127. How many engine oil chip detectors will activate the ENG Chip caution light?
    • One (the accessory section chip detector)
    • One (the temp/chip detector)
    • Two ( the #1 and #2 chip detectors)
    • Two (the sump and the pump chip detectors)
  • 130. 128. The auxiliary oil filter has a “pop-up” feature that activates at __ PSID.
    • 17
    • 10
    • 7
    • 40
  • 131. 129. After completing lubrication, oil is scavenged into a sump below the number __ and __ bearings and at the bottom of the gear case.
    • 2, 2 ½
    • 3, 4
    • 5, 6
    • 6, 7
  • 132. 130. How many engine oil bypasses are there?
    • There are 4 bypasses. Auxiliary oil filter (10 PSID), oil cooler (thermal bypass below 81 º C or 178 º F), oil cooler (40 PSI clogged oil cooler), and internal oil filter (150 PSID)
    • There are 4 bypasses. Auxiliary oil filter (7 PSID), oil cooler (thermal bypass below 81 º C or 178 º F), oil cooler (40 PSI clogged oil cooler), and internal oil filter (105 PSID)
    • There are 4 bypasses. Auxiliary oil filter (10 PSID), oil cooler (thermal bypass below 81 º C or 178 º F), oil cooler (40 PSI clogged oil cooler), and internal oil filter (105 PSID)
    • There are 4 bypasses. Auxiliary oil filter (10 PSID), oil cooler (thermal bypass below 81 º F ), oil cooler (40 PSI clogged oil cooler), and internal oil filter (105 PSID)
  • 133. 131. How many “wet” lines are there associated with the engine oil system?
    • Three (the engine oil pressure, and torque meter gauges, and the transmission oil pressure gauge)
    • Two (the engine oil pressure, and the transmission oil pressure gauge)
    • Two (the engine oil pressure, and the torque meter gauges)
    • Three ( transmission oil and pressure gauges, and the torque meter gauge)
  • 134. 132. Is defined as a decrease in N2 RPM that exists between the time a demand for power is made and the time that power is delivered?
    • Spike knock
    • Mast bumping
    • Droop
    • Flapping stop
  • 135. 133. Is droop allowed to exist?
    • No, INTENTIONAL USE IS PROHIBITED
    • Yes, 5 minute limit
    • Only momentarily, otherwise rotor RPM may become critically low
    • Yes, but rotor RPM must be at 107% RPM to compensate for droop
  • 136. 134. How is droop compensated for?
    • By lowering the collective, and turning the engine anti-ice and heater switches off
    • Once droop is encounter you must wait until the aircraft recovers from it
    • Through mechanical linkages (collective stick to governor lever), electrical connections (governor increase/decrease switch and linear actuator motor), and a pneumatic signal between the N2 governor and the gas producer fuel control passing through the dual accumulators and double check valve
    • By lowering the collective and maintaining 107% max RPM
  • 137. 135. Why is the engine mounted horizontally behind the transmission
    • To simplify the drive system, improve the air intake/exhaust arrangement, and to reduce cabin noise
    • All helicopter must have the engine horizontally mounted for weight and balance purposes
    • By the engine being mounted horizontally it will improve the autorotational capability by 40%
    • For no particular reason, it’s just the way the engineers wanted it mounted
  • 138. 136. How are three bipod mounts used to secure the engine?
    • Semi-rigid
    • Flexible for vibration reduction
    • Rigidly
    • None of the above