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  • 1. PCI Study Guide
  • 2. Sample Questions
  • 3. 1. Business crime losses are typically the result of:
    • a. Non-violent acts committed by insiders.
    • b. Non-violent acts committed by outsiders.
    • c. Violent acts committed by insiders.
    • d. Violent acts committed by outsiders.
  • 4. 1. Business crime losses are typically the result of:
    • a. Non-violent acts committed by insiders.
    • b. Non-violent acts committed by outsiders.
    • c. Violent acts committed by insiders.
    • d. Violent acts committed by outsiders.
  • 5. 2. Competitive intelligence acquisition is a process of the collection of information using:
    • a. Open sources and interviews.
    • b. Radio frequency transmitters.
    • c. Wiretaps.
    • d. Manipulation of safes and locks to gain access to the information.
  • 6. 2. Competitive intelligence acquisition is a process of the collection of information using:
    • a. Open sources and interviews.
    • b. Radio frequency transmitters.
    • c. Wiretaps.
    • d. Manipulation of safes and locks to gain access to the information.
  • 7. 3. The most important and generally the most expensive type of countermeasure is:
    • a. Hardware.
    • b. Software.
    • c. People.
    • d. Competitive Intelligence
  • 8. 3. The most important and generally the most expensive type of countermeasure is:
    • a. Hardware.
    • b. Software.
    • c. People.
    • d. Competitive Intelligence
  • 9. 4. A fraud called “lapping” that is committed in the accounts receivable unit involves:
    • a. Posting the payment twice to the same customer account.
    • b. Delaying the posting of a cash payment to cover a prior theft.
    • c. Posting a cash payment to the account of a confederate.
    • d. Posting a cash payment to a customer account only on a date that is agreeable to the customer.
  • 10. 4. A fraud called “lapping” that is committed in the accounts receivable unit involves:
    • a. Posting the payment twice to the same customer account.
    • b. Delaying the posting of a cash payment to cover a prior theft.
    • c. Posting a cash payment to the account of a confederate.
    • d. Posting a cash payment to a customer account only on a date that is agreeable to the customer.
  • 11. 5. Studies of workplace theft have shown that approximately:
    • a. One-third of the employees reported stealing company property, but a small number of employees take large amounts of property.
    • b. Three-fourths of the employees reported stealing company property and the vast majority take small amounts of property.
    • c. Less than one-fourth of the employees reported stealing company property but the vast majority take large amounts of property.
    • d. Less than ten percent of the employees reported stealing company property but the vast majority take large amounts of property.
  • 12. 5. Studies of workplace theft have shown that approximately:
    • a. One-third of the employees reported stealing company property, but a small number of employees take large amounts of property.
    • b. Three-fourths of the employees reported stealing company property and the vast majority take small amounts of property.
    • c. Less than one-fourth of the employees reported stealing company property but the vast majority take large amounts of property.
    • d. Less than ten percent of the employees reported stealing company property but the vast majority take large amounts of property.
  • 13. 6. The Clark and Hollinger studies of workplace theft are instructive in formulating loss prevention policies and procedures particularly in the finding that the single most predictor of theft was the employee’s:
    • a. Need for the assets.
    • b. Relative rank in the organizational hierarchy.
    • c. Perceived chance of being detected.
    • d. Marital status.
  • 14. 6. The Clark and Hollinger studies of workplace theft are instructive in formulating loss prevention policies and procedures particularly in the finding that the single most predictor of theft was the employee’s:
    • a. Need for the assets.
    • b. Relative rank in the organizational hierarchy.
    • c. Perceived chance of being detected.
    • d. Marital status.
  • 15. 7. Studies have found that, for employees who engaged in theft, the most important consideration was the:
    • a. Organizational sanctions
    • b. Informal social controls such as peer group gossip, ridicule and ostracism.
    • c. Familial social sanctions.
    • d. Media exposure.
  • 16. 7. Studies have found that, for employees who engaged in theft, the most important consideration was the:
    • a. Organizational sanctions
    • b. Informal social controls such as peer group gossip, ridicule and ostracism.
    • c. Familial social sanctions.
    • d. Media exposure.
  • 17. 8. As a result of the Clark and Hollinger studies, the overall message to organizations attempting to deter theft by employees is:
    • a. Installing multiple levels of security devices to control theft will instill a sense of satisfaction among employees.
    • b. Providing major security systems creates an environment in which theft is all but impossible.
    • c. Showing sincere concern for the individual’s contribution to the organization instills a sense of ownership and feelings of belonging.
    • d. Creating strong control systems of internal control instills a sense of well being in employees.
  • 18. 8. As a result of the Clark and Hollinger studies, the overall message to organizations attempting to deter theft by employees is:
    • a. Installing multiple levels of security devices to control theft will instill a sense of satisfaction among employees.
    • b. Providing major security systems creates an environment in which theft is all but impossible.
    • c. Showing sincere concern for the individual’s contribution to the organization instills a sense of ownership and feelings of belonging.
    • d. Creating strong control systems of internal control instills a sense of well being in employees.
  • 19. 9. Cressy’s theory holds that the following three elements must be present before a fraud or similar crime takes place:
    • a. A lack of administrative controls, inadequate supervision, and the ability to rationalize the behavior.
    • b. Substance abuse, opportunity for a trust violation, and inadequate supervision.
    • c. A non-sharable problem, an opportunity for a trust violation, and a series of rationalizations for the behavior.
    • d. An opportunity for a trust violation, a lack of administrative controls, and the ability to rationalize the trust violation.
  • 20. 9. Cressy’s theory holds that the following three elements must be present before a fraud or similar crime takes place:
    • a. A lack of administrative controls, inadequate supervision, and the ability to rationalize the behavior.
    • b. Substance abuse, opportunity for a trust violation, and inadequate supervision.
    • c. A non-sharable problem, an opportunity for a trust violation, and a series of rationalizations for the behavior.
    • d. An opportunity for a trust violation, a lack of administrative controls, and the ability to rationalize the trust violation.
  • 21. 10. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of an effective theft and fraud prevention program:
    • a. A process for screening all applicants for past trust violations.
    • b. Control consciousness fostered throughout the organization including written policies describing prohibited activities and the action required if violations are noted.
    • c. Periodic employee communications that include case histories, avoiding the use of names or other descriptors, demonstrating vulnerabilities and management actions against those who commit theft or fraud.
    • d. Periodic publicity throughout the organization of case histories of theft and fraud including the names and departments of the violators and the actions, including prosecution, taken against them.
  • 22. 10. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of an effective theft and fraud prevention program:
    • a. A process for screening all applicants for past trust violations.
    • b. Control consciousness fostered throughout the organization including written policies describing prohibited activities and the action required if violations are noted.
    • c. Periodic employee communications that include case histories, avoiding the use of names or other descriptors, demonstrating vulnerabilities and management actions against those who commit theft or fraud.
    • d. Periodic publicity throughout the organization of case histories of theft and fraud including the names and departments of the violators and the actions, including prosecution, taken against them.
  • 23. 11. Which of the following is not relevant in determining physical protection for a cargo handling facility?
    • a. Cargo packaging.
    • b. Cargo volume.
    • c. Cargo value.
    • d. Place of cargo origin.
  • 24. 11. Which of the following is not relevant in determining physical protection for a cargo handling facility?
    • a. Cargo packaging.
    • b. Cargo volume.
    • c. Cargo value.
    • d. Place of cargo origin.
  • 25. 12. Pilferage involves:
    • a. Extensive planning.
    • b. Little planning or technique.
    • c. Complex theft techniques.
    • d. Access to the shipping and storage documents for a particular shipment.
  • 26. 12. Pilferage involves:
    • a. Extensive planning.
    • b. Little planning or technique.
    • c. Complex theft techniques.
    • d. Access to the shipping and storage documents for a particular shipment.
  • 27. 13. The sole purpose of seals is to:
    • a. Prevent entry.
    • b. Indicate tampering.
    • c. Determine the honesty of employees.
    • d. Provide a record of asset movement.
  • 28. 13. The sole purpose of seals is to:
    • a. Prevent entry.
    • b. Indicate tampering.
    • c. Determine the honesty of employees.
    • d. Provide a record of asset movement.
  • 29. 14. The type of lock specifically designed to secure a truck trailer which is parked unattended overnight is:
    • a. A shrouded padlock.
    • b. A trailer pin or kingpin lock.
    • c. A double laminated lock.
    • d. A seven pin lock with a hardened shackle.
  • 30. 14. The type of lock specifically designed to secure a truck trailer which is parked unattended overnight is:
    • a. A shrouded padlock.
    • b. A trailer pin or kingpin lock.
    • c. A double laminated lock.
    • d. A seven pin lock with a hardened shackle.
  • 31. 15. The best rule to follow in the event of a loss or mysterious disappearance of goods when a transportation carrier is involved is:
    • a. Report the condition by telephone and confirm the report in writing within 24 hours to the appropriate carrier.
    • b. Notify the Department of Transportation immediately and request a conformation of the report.
    • c. Report the condition by telephone to the appropriate insurance agency and confirm the report in writing within 24 hours.
    • d. For an intrastate shipment, notify the state transportation authorities within 24 hours of the discovery; for interstate shipments, notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation within 24 hours of the discovery.
  • 32. 15. The best rule to follow in the event of a loss or mysterious disappearance of goods when a transportation carrier is involved is:
    • a. Report the condition by telephone and confirm the report in writing within 24 hours to the appropriate carrier.
    • b. Notify the Department of Transportation immediately and request a conformation of the report.
    • c. Report the condition by telephone to the appropriate insurance agency and confirm the report in writing within 24 hours.
    • d. For an intrastate shipment, notify the state transportation authorities within 24 hours of the discovery; for interstate shipments, notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation within 24 hours of the discovery.
  • 33. 16. In a marine terminal, the stevedore is accountable for the cargo until:
    • a. The terminal operator’s agent signs for the goods.
    • b. The intermodal carrier moves the goods from the dock.
    • c. The cargo reaches a “point of rest”.
    • d. The complete shipment is delivered to the terminal warehouse.
  • 34. 16. In a marine terminal, the stevedore is accountable for the cargo until:
    • a. The terminal operator’s agent signs for the goods.
    • b. The intermodal carrier moves the goods from the dock.
    • c. The cargo reaches a “point of rest”.
    • d. The complete shipment is delivered to the terminal warehouse.
  • 35. 17. When a seal is applied to a truck or a railroad car the seal number should:
    • a. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping document including the control copy.
    • b. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping document but not on the control copy.
    • c. Never be noted on any shipping document as this is sensitive information.
    • d. Be recorded only in the shipping log maintained at the originating point of the shipment.
  • 36. 17. When a seal is applied to a truck or a railroad car the seal number should:
    • a. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping document including the control copy.
    • b. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping document but not on the control copy.
    • c. Never be noted on any shipping document as this is sensitive information.
    • d. Be recorded only in the shipping log maintained at the originating point of the shipment.
  • 37. 18. A property pass is used to authorize:
    • a. Large movements of material in the normal course of business.
    • b. Regular movements of small shipments of materials.
    • c. Irregular or unusual movements of company or personal property.
    • d. The movement of scrap material.
  • 38. 18. A property pass is used to authorize:
    • a. Large movements of material in the normal course of business.
    • b. Regular movements of small shipments of materials.
    • c. Irregular or unusual movements of company or personal property.
    • d. The movement of scrap material.
  • 39. 19. The irregular or nonstandard movement of company property, personal property of employees of visitors, and customer property generally requires manual or paper processing. Which of the following is NOT a basic concept for this process:
    • a. All asset movements and all changes in asset control or responsibility must be in accordance with the policies and procedures of the organization.
    • b. The movements and control of responsibility must have prior authorization and be properly recorded.
    • c. With the exception of personal property, documents that authorize the movement of property must be pre-numbered.
    • d. The identity of the person moving the assets or assuming control of, or responsibility for, the as sets must be positively verified.
  • 40. 19. The irregular or nonstandard movement of company property, personal property of employees of visitors, and customer property generally requires manual or paper processing. Which of the following is NOT a basic concept for this process:
    • a. All asset movements and all changes in asset control or responsibility must be in accordance with the policies and procedures of the organization.
    • b. The movements and control of responsibility must have prior authorization and be properly recorded.
    • c. With the exception of personal property, documents that authorize the movement of property must be pre-numbered.
    • d. The identity of the person moving the assets or assuming control of, or responsibility for, the as sets must be positively verified.
  • 41. 20. The activities of private sector security organizations are measured in terms of:
    • a. Numbers of arrests and convictions.
    • b. Funds expended and funds or assets recovered.
    • c. The ration of uniformed to plain clothes security employees.
    • d. The number of management employees in the organization.
  • 42. 20. The activities of private sector security organizations are measured in terms of:
    • a. Numbers of arrests and convictions.
    • b. Funds expended and funds or assets recovered.
    • c. The ration of uniformed to plain clothes security employees.
    • d. The number of management employees in the organization.
  • 43. 21. The information provided by personal references in the course of a pre-employment investigation:
    • a. Is of no value because they are friends and would only say good things about the subject.
    • b. Can be relied upon without further corroboration.
    • c. Should be accepted at face value without consideration that the reference is a relative or friend.
    • d. Although apparently neutral, is often helpful indirectly as collateral information.
  • 44. 21. The information provided by personal references in the course of a pre-employment investigation:
    • a. Is of no value because they are friends and would only say good things about the subject.
    • b. Can be relied upon without further corroboration.
    • c. Should be accepted at face value without consideration that the reference is a relative or friend.
    • d. Although apparently neutral, is often helpful indirectly as collateral information.
  • 45. 22. A competent investigator writes a report so that the reader can readily understand:
    • a. What the investigator did, why it was done, and the results of the action.
    • b. The personal prejudices of the investigator.
    • c. The identity of all sources of information gathered in the course of the investigation..
    • d. What disciplinary action the organization had taken in past similar cases.
  • 46. 22. A competent investigator writes a report so that the reader can readily understand:
    • a. What the investigator did, why it was done, and the results of the action.
    • b. The personal prejudices of the investigator.
    • c. The identity of all sources of information gathered in the course of the investigation..
    • d. What disciplinary action the organization had taken in past similar cases.
  • 47. 23. The general rule in writing a summary or synopsis of a report of investigation is that:
    • a. Supporting facts are supplied for every major point covered by the report.
    • b. Each source used is fully identified.
    • c. Every major point covered by the report requires at least one sentence in the synopsis.
    • d. Conclusions are not permitted in the synopsis.
  • 48. 23. The general rule in writing a summary or synopsis of a report of investigation is that:
    • a. Supporting facts are supplied for every major point covered by the report.
    • b. Each source used is fully identified.
    • c. Every major point covered by the report requires at least one sentence in the synopsis.
    • d. Conclusions are not permitted in the synopsis.
  • 49. 24. In the narrative section of a report of investigation:
    • a. Technical terms are normally used extensively.
    • b. Lengthy explanations are used in order to completely report the actions taken.
    • c. Each step in the investigation should be covered in a separate paragraph.
    • d. Multiple steps in the investigation should be covered in a single paragraph to avoid a lengthy report.
  • 50. 24. In the narrative section of a report of investigation:
    • a. Technical terms are normally used extensively.
    • b. Lengthy explanations are used in order to completely report the actions taken.
    • c. Each step in the investigation should be covered in a separate paragraph.
    • d. Multiple steps in the investigation should be covered in a single paragraph to avoid a lengthy report.
  • 51. 25. Should the investigator wish to express an opinion or speculation these comments should be conveyed in:
    • a. Separate paragraphs in the report of investigation, identified as such.
    • b. The last paragraph of the report of investigation.
    • c. Brackets in appropriate paragraphs of the report of investigation and identified as such.
    • d. A different report or in a memorandum directed to the investigator’s supervisor.
  • 52. 26. When writing a report of investigation the:
    • a. Past, present and future tenses are always used.
    • b. Past and present tenses are always used.
    • c. Past tense is always used.
    • d. Present tense is always used.
  • 53. 26. When writing a report of investigation the:
    • a. Past, present and future tenses are always used.
    • b. Past and present tenses are always used.
    • c. Past tense is always used.
    • d. Present tense is always used.
  • 54. 27. The true criterion for the size of the in-house investigative unit is the:
    • a. Number of cases closed annually.
    • b. Size of the general employee population in the organization.
    • c. Degree to which the investigative effort pays for itself.
    • d. Number of prosecutions and number of convictions annually.
  • 55. 27. The true criterion for the size of the in-house investigative unit is the:
    • a. Number of cases closed annually.
    • b. Size of the general employee population in the organization.
    • c. Degree to which the investigative effort pays for itself.
    • d. Number of prosecutions and number of convictions annually.
  • 56. 28. When the assistance of specialists from another department or a contract investigative agency is required for a complex in-house investigation the scope and flow of the investigation is controlled by the:
    • a. Staff investigator.
    • b. Contract agency investigator.
    • c. Investigator with the most experience.
    • d. Senior company person.
  • 57. 28. When the assistance of specialists from another department or a contract investigative agency is required for a complex in-house investigation the scope and flow of the investigation is controlled by the:
    • a. Staff investigator.
    • b. Contract agency investigator.
    • c. Investigator with the most experience.
    • d. Senior company person.
  • 58. 29. The investigators in an in-house investigative unit are supervised by:
    • a. Another security professional who is competent in evaluating investigative activity and results.
    • b. A legal department management person who is competent in the prosecution of criminal cases.
    • c. The senior management person in the human resources department who is experienced in determining disciplinary actions to be taken.
    • d. A management person who has at least third level supervisory status.
  • 59. 29. The investigators in an in-house investigative unit are supervised by:
    • a. Another security professional who is competent in evaluating investigative activity and results.
    • b. A legal department management person who is competent in the prosecution of criminal cases.
    • c. The senior management person in the human resources department who is experienced in determining disciplinary actions to be taken.
    • d. A management person who has at least third level supervisory status.
  • 60. 30. The only effective production control for the more complex incident investigation is:
    • a. Periodic review of the cost of the investigation by the finance department.
    • b. Regular review of the case by the investigations supervisor.
    • c. Periodic case discussions in security staff meetings.
    • d. Regular reviews by an outside security consultant.
  • 61. 30. The only effective production control for the more complex incident investigation is:
    • a. Periodic review of the cost of the investigation by the finance department.
    • b. Regular review of the case by the investigations supervisor.
    • c. Periodic case discussions in security staff meetings.
    • d. Regular reviews by an outside security consultant.
  • 62. 31. Which of the following investigative steps would not be appropriate for a credit-life style inquiry?
    • a. A review of the enterprise’s own security files.
    • b. A check of available local law enforcement agency records.
    • c. A check of civil litigation records.
    • d. Interviews with personal references.
  • 63. 31. Which of the following investigative steps would not be appropriate for a credit-life style inquiry?
    • a. A review of the enterprise’s own security files.
    • b. A check of available local law enforcement agency records.
    • c. A check of civil litigation records.
    • d. Interviews with personal references.
  • 64. 32. The financial and lifestyle inquiry is primarily a:
    • a. Series of records checks and an analysis of the information gathered.
    • b. Detailed evaluation of an individual after interviews of personal references supplied by the subject.
    • c. Meeting with the subject’s department head to discuss the subject’s lifestyle.
    • d. Detailed neighborhood check involving interviews with at least four neighbors.
  • 65. 32. The financial and lifestyle inquiry is primarily a:
    • a. Series of records checks and an analysis of the information gathered.
    • b. Detailed evaluation of an individual after interviews of personal references supplied by the subject.
    • c. Meeting with the subject’s department head to discuss the subject’s lifestyle.
    • d. Detailed neighborhood check involving interviews with at least four neighbors.
  • 66. 33. Which of the following procedures is not recommended when using a contract investigations agency?
    • a. A letter setting forth the basis and requirements of service.
    • b. Identification to the agency of the company personnel to whom reports should be submitted.
    • c. Authorization for the agency to use the company name.
    • d. Clear instruction to the agency not to represent itself as the company.
  • 67. 33. Which of the following procedures is not recommended when using a contract investigations agency?
    • a. A letter setting forth the basis and requirements of service.
    • b. Identification to the agency of the company personnel to whom reports should be submitted.
    • c. Authorization for the agency to use the company name.
    • d. Clear instruction to the agency not to represent itself as the company.
  • 68. 34. In following investigative leads, which of the following steps would be taken first?
    • a. Observe relevant but not time-sensitive events or locations.
    • b. Interview those with the most extensive information.
    • c. Interview persons likely to be hostile.
    • d. Interview those not likely to be available later.
  • 69. 34. In following investigative leads, which of the following steps would be taken first?
    • a. Observe relevant but not time-sensitive events or locations.
    • b. Interview those with the most extensive information.
    • c. Interview persons likely to be hostile.
    • d. Interview those not likely to be available later.
  • 70. 35. An incident or “complaint” investigation is an inquiry conducted:
    • a. When a pre-employment investigation reveals an incident involving the subject in a previous employment situation.
    • b. Into any matter or condition that requires fact finding.
    • c. Into the personal habits of an applicant.
    • d. When the lifestyle of an employee appears abnormal when compared with the income of the employee.
  • 71. 35. An incident or “complaint” investigation is an inquiry conducted:
    • a. When a pre-employment investigation reveals an incident involving the subject in a previous employment situation.
    • b. Into any matter or condition that requires fact finding.
    • c. Into the personal habits of an applicant.
    • d. When the lifestyle of an employee appears abnormal when compared with the income of the employee.
  • 72. 36. In an incident investigation, a preliminary analysis of the original information is usually made by the security professional who assigns and reviews investigations. The preliminary analysis:
    • a. Produces a list of the required investigative steps and, sometimes, their sequence.
    • b. Provides a determination of whether the investigation will be cost-effective.
    • c. Provides the basis for determining if the investigation should be continued.
    • d. Always results in an interim report of investigation.
  • 73. 36. In an incident investigation, a preliminary analysis of the original information is usually made by the security professional who assigns and reviews investigations. The preliminary analysis:
    • a. Produces a list of the required investigative steps and, sometimes, their sequence.
    • b. Provides a determination of whether the investigation will be cost-effective.
    • c. Provides the basis for determining if the investigation should be continued.
    • d. Always results in an interim report of investigation.
  • 74. 37. When conducting interviews in the course of an incident investigation the investigator should:
    • a. Begin the interview shortly before a scheduled meal period to increase tension in the interviewee.
    • b. Unless urgent circumstances dictate otherwise, accommodate schedules to the convenience of the interviewee.
    • c. Schedule interviews to avoid overtime work on the part of the investigator.
    • d. Arrange to conduct the maximum number of interviews in the first day of the investigation.
  • 75. 37. When conducting interviews in the course of an incident investigation the investigator should:
    • a. Begin the interview shortly before a scheduled meal period to increase tension in the interviewee.
    • b. Unless urgent circumstances dictate otherwise, accommodate schedules to the convenience of the interviewee.
    • c. Schedule interviews to avoid overtime work on the part of the investigator.
    • d. Arrange to conduct the maximum number of interviews in the first day of the investigation.
  • 76. 38. In an undercover investigation the undercover investigator:
    • a. Conceals his or her presence.
    • b. Conceals his or her true identify.
    • c. Gathers information concerning labor organizing activities.
    • d. Attempts to pass access control points into the facility unnoticed
  • 77. 38. In an undercover investigation the undercover investigator:
    • a. Conceals his or her presence.
    • b. Conceals his or her true identify.
    • c. Gathers information concerning labor organizing activities.
    • d. Attempts to pass access control points into the facility unnoticed
  • 78. 39. Undercover investigation should be used:
    • a. In routine investigations.
    • b. In lieu of other investigative techniques when the undercover operatives are idle.
    • c. When there is a high probability that undercover operations will produce significant results and all other options have been ruled out.
    • d. When labor organizing activities are apparent and no other form of investigation is likely to identify the person or persons responsible.
  • 79. 39. Undercover investigation should be used:
    • a. In routine investigations.
    • b. In lieu of other investigative techniques when the undercover operatives are idle.
    • c. When there is a high probability that undercover operations will produce significant results and all other options have been ruled out.
    • d. When labor organizing activities are apparent and no other form of investigation is likely to identify the person or persons responsible.
  • 80. 40. Which of the following would not normally be a part of the undercover investigative team?
    • a. A corporate decision-maker.
    • b. A human resources representative.
    • c. A finance department representative.
    • d. A corporate security department representative.
  • 81. 40. Which of the following would not normally be a part of the undercover investigative team?
    • a. A corporate decision-maker.
    • b. A human resources representative.
    • c. A finance department representative.
    • d. A corporate security department representative.
  • 82. 41. With regard to testimony by an undercover investigator or operative:
    • a. All undercover investigators must be willing to testify in court or before an arbitrator.
    • b. An undercover investigator should not be expected to testify in a case that involves a labor union.
    • c. The undercover investigator should not be expected to testify when the identity of the investigator would be compromised.
    • d. The undercover investigator must be willing to testify before an arbitrator but not in court.
  • 83. 41. With regard to testimony by an undercover investigator or operative:
    • a. All undercover investigators must be willing to testify in court or before an arbitrator.
    • b. An undercover investigator should not be expected to testify in a case that involves a labor union.
    • c. The undercover investigator should not be expected to testify when the identity of the investigator would be compromised.
    • d. The undercover investigator must be willing to testify before an arbitrator but not in court.
  • 84. 42. When placing an undercover investigator in an organization:
    • a. A position should not be created for the investigator.
    • b. The investigator uses a cover story claiming to be a “friend of a friend”.
    • c. Someone of unquestioned authority in the organization commands that the investigator be hired.
    • d. The investigator uses a cover story claiming to be a relative of a very senior executive of the organization.
  • 85. 42. When placing an undercover investigator in an organization:
    • a. A position should not be created for the investigator.
    • b. The investigator uses a cover story claiming to be a “friend of a friend”.
    • c. Someone of unquestioned authority in the organization commands that the investigator be hired.
    • d. The investigator uses a cover story claiming to be a relative of a very senior executive of the organization.
  • 86. 43. As a general rule, the cover position for an undercover investigator should be one that affords the agent the:
    • a. Most latitude in the areas of importance to the investigation.
    • b. Greatest access to the general employee population.
    • c. Most latitude in scheduling work hours.
    • d. Highest pay of any grade in the department in which the position functions.
  • 87. 43. As a general rule, the cover position for an undercover investigator should be one that affords the agent the:
    • a. Most latitude in the areas of importance to the investigation.
    • b. Greatest access to the general employee population.
    • c. Most latitude in scheduling work hours.
    • d. Highest pay of any grade in the department in which the position functions.
  • 88. 44. In constructing a cover story for an undercover operative the:
    • a. Level of detail must always be highly involved.
    • b. Cover story must include at least the last five years of the investigator’s history.
    • c. Cover story must have no connection with the operative’s real past.
    • d. More intimate the personal relationship with the members of the target group, the greater the depth of the cover story.
  • 89. 44. In constructing a cover story for an undercover operative the:
    • a. Level of detail must always be highly involved.
    • b. Cover story must include at least the last five years of the investigator’s history.
    • c. Cover story must have no connection with the operative’s real past.
    • d. More intimate the personal relationship with the members of the target group, the greater the depth of the cover story.
  • 90. 45. The attorney on an undercover investigation case management team should be:
    • a. A corporate attorney with extensive experience in contract law.
    • b. An employment law specialist who has defended employers in employment claims cases.
    • c. A family law attorney with lengthy experience in domestic violence cases.
    • d. A criminal law attorney who has represented criminal defendants and assisted in the prosecution of criminal cases.
  • 91. 45. The attorney on an undercover investigation case management team should be:
    • a. A corporate attorney with extensive experience in contract law.
    • b. An employment law specialist who has defended employers in employment claims cases.
    • c. A family law attorney with lengthy experience in domestic violence cases.
    • d. A criminal law attorney who has represented criminal defendants and assisted in the prosecution of criminal cases.
  • 92. 46. The undercover operative should communicate with his or her case manager:
    • a. Daily
    • b. At least every other day.
    • c. At least twice daily.
    • d. As frequently as circumstance will allow.
  • 93. 46. The undercover operative should communicate with his or her case manager:
    • a. Daily
    • b. At least every other day.
    • c. At least twice daily.
    • d. As frequently as circumstance will allow.
  • 94. 47. The contemporary polygraph simultaneously measures:
    • a. Respiration, blood pressure and pulse, and body temperature.
    • b. Breathing pattern, blood pressure and pulse, and skin resistance to external current.
    • c. Blood pressure and pulse, eye flutter, and breathing pattern.
    • d. Voice reaction pattern, blood pressure and pulse, and breathing pattern.
  • 95. 47. The contemporary polygraph simultaneously measures:
    • a. Respiration, blood pressure and pulse, and body temperature.
    • b. Breathing pattern, blood pressure and pulse, and skin resistance to external current.
    • c. Blood pressure and pulse, eye flutter, and breathing pattern.
    • d. Voice reaction pattern, blood pressure and pulse, and breathing pattern.
  • 96. 48. Polygraph testing has been chiefly utilized for:
    • a. Criminal, pre-employment and periodic in- service tests.
    • b. Criminal, pre-employment and regression tests.
    • c. Pre-employment, periodic in-service and psychiatric tests.
    • d. Psychiatric, regression and criminal tests.
  • 97. 48. Polygraph testing has been chiefly utilized for:
    • a. Criminal, pre-employment and periodic in- service tests.
    • b. Criminal, pre-employment and regression tests.
    • c. Pre-employment, periodic in-service and psychiatric tests.
    • d. Psychiatric, regression and criminal tests.
  • 98. 49. In conducting a polygraph examination the examiner:
    • a. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked, but not the order in which they will be asked in the course of the examination.
    • b. Reviews general questions with the subject, but not the specific questions to be asked in the course of the examination.
    • c. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked and the order in which they will be asked in the course of the examination.
    • d. Does not review any questions with the subject prior to the start of the examination.
  • 99. 49. In conducting a polygraph examination the examiner:
    • a. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked, but not the order in which they will be asked in the course of the examination.
    • b. Reviews general questions with the subject, but not the specific questions to be asked in the course of the examination.
    • c. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked and the order in which they will be asked in the course of the examination.
    • d. Does not review any questions with the subject prior to the start of the examination.
  • 100. 50. A successful polygraph examination depends on the:
    • a. Truthfulness of the subject.
    • b. Intelligence of the subject.
    • c. Skill and preparation of the examiner.
    • d. Age and type of equipment
  • 101. 50. A successful polygraph examination depends on the:
    • a. Truthfulness of the subject.
    • b. Intelligence of the subject.
    • c. Skill and preparation of the examiner.
    • d. Age and type of equipment
  • 102. 51. The behavior analysis interview involves:
    • a. A systematic evaluation of a person’s verbal and nonverbal behavior in the course of a structured interview.
    • b. A psychological evaluation of person’s past verbal and physical behavior.
    • c. An evaluation conducted at the scene of an incident to determine the behavior of the participants.
    • d. An unstructured open discussion with a person to determine his or her psychological stability.
  • 103. 51. The behavior analysis interview involves:
    • a. A systematic evaluation of a person’s verbal and nonverbal behavior in the course of a structured interview.
    • b. A psychological evaluation of person’s past verbal and physical behavior.
    • c. An evaluation conducted at the scene of an incident to determine the behavior of the participants.
    • d. An unstructured open discussion with a person to determine his or her psychological stability.
  • 104. 52. A behavior provoking question is used in the course of an interview to:
    • a. Elicit an angry response from the interviewee to evaluate the interviewee’s stability.
    • b. Test the limit of an interviewee’s patience.
    • c. Signal from one interviewer to another the start of the “sweet and sour” interviewing technique.
    • d. Draw out specific verbal responses or behavior to be used to distinguish between a truthful person and one who is lying.
  • 105. 52. A behavior provoking question is used in the course of an interview to:
    • a. Elicit an angry response from the interviewee to evaluate the interviewee’s stability.
    • b. Test the limit of an interviewee’s patience.
    • c. Signal from one interviewer to another the start of the “sweet and sour” interviewing technique.
    • d. Draw out specific verbal responses or behavior to be used to distinguish between a truthful person and one who is lying.
  • 106. 53. A truthful person will typically answer a question:
    • a. Only after a delay or repetition of the question.
    • b. In a straightforward and spontaneous manner.
    • c. Very quickly, even before the question has been completed.
    • d. In a hesitating manner, as if in serious thought.
  • 107. 53. A truthful person will typically answer a question:
    • a. Only after a delay or repetition of the question.
    • b. In a straightforward and spontaneous manner.
    • c. Very quickly, even before the question has been completed.
    • d. In a hesitating manner, as if in serious thought.
  • 108. 54. In a conversation or an interview nonverbal behavior:
    • a. Normally conveys only a small portion of the meaning of the message.
    • b. Is responsible for more than half of the information and meaning of the message.
    • c. Is generally unimportant.
    • d. Is unrelated to the verbal statements made by the subject.
  • 109. 54. In a conversation or an interview nonverbal behavior:
    • a. Normally conveys only a small portion of the meaning of the message.
    • b. Is responsible for more than half of the information and meaning of the message.
    • c. Is generally unimportant.
    • d. Is unrelated to the verbal statements made by the subject.
  • 110. 55. Regarding a subject’s denial of guilt in the course of an interrogation, a basic tenet is:
    • a. Allowing a subject to make repeated denials of guilt will facilitate a later admission of guilt.
    • b. The interrogator should listen intently to repeated denials of guilt.
    • c. The more often the suspect denies guilt, the more difficult it becomes to admit guilt later.
    • d. A denial of guilt coupled with a religious reference is indicative of sincerity in the denial.
  • 111. 55. Regarding a subject’s denial of guilt in the course of an interrogation, a basic tenet is:
    • a. Allowing a subject to make repeated denials of guilt will facilitate a later admission of guilt.
    • b. The interrogator should listen intently to repeated denials of guilt.
    • c. The more often the suspect denies guilt, the more difficult it becomes to admit guilt later.
    • d. A denial of guilt coupled with a religious reference is indicative of sincerity in the denial.
  • 112. 56. An “alternative” question used in the course of an interrogation is:
    • a. A question of guilt or innocence.
    • b. A second question posed when the subject objects to how a question is phrased or asked.
    • c. A second or subsequent question on the same topic, used by the interrogator for additional emphasis or clarity.
    • d. A question in which two incriminatory choices are presented concerning some aspect of the incident or crime.
  • 113. 56. An “alternative” question used in the course of an interrogation is:
    • a. A question of guilt or innocence.
    • b. A second question posed when the subject objects to how a question is phrased or asked.
    • c. A second or subsequent question on the same topic, used by the interrogator for additional emphasis or clarity.
    • d. A question in which two incriminatory choices are presented concerning some aspect of the incident or crime.
  • 114. 57. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding a written statement from a subject in which a confession of guilt is made:
    • a. Although they may be used verbally by the subject, obscenities should be avoided.
    • b. Errors, changes or crossed out words and phrases should be initialed by the subject.
    • c. The subject’s own language, including grammatical errors and obscenities should be used.
    • d. The subject should sign each page of the statement in front of a witness.
  • 115. 57. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding a written statement from a subject in which a confession of guilt is made:
    • a. Although they may be used verbally by the subject, obscenities should be avoided.
    • b. Errors, changes or crossed out words and phrases should be initialed by the subject.
    • c. The subject’s own language, including grammatical errors and obscenities should be used.
    • d. The subject should sign each page of the statement in front of a witness.
  • 116. 58. Which of the following are NOT exempt from the provisions of the Polygraph Act prohibiting the use of the polygraph in pre-employment screening:
    • a. Any employer manufacturing, distributing or dispensing controlled substances in any of the first four schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.
    • b. Commercial security services providers whose function includes the protection of currency, negotiable instruments, precious commodities or instruments or proprietary information.
    • c. Commercial security services providers whose function includes the executive protection.
    • d. Federal, state and local government agencies.
  • 117. 58. Which of the following are NOT exempt from the provisions of the Polygraph Act prohibiting the use of the polygraph in pre-employment screening:
    • a. Any employer manufacturing, distributing or dispensing controlled substances in any of the first four schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.
    • b. Commercial security services providers whose function includes the protection of currency, negotiable instruments, precious commodities or instruments or proprietary information.
    • c. Commercial security services providers whose function includes the executive protection.
    • d. Federal, state and local government agencies.
  • 118. 59. The “control question” technique used in a polygraph examination involves:
    • a. Requiring the subject to remain rigid in the chair while the question is asked.
    • b. Asking the subject questions which are irrelevant to the subject matter.
    • c. Asking questions regarding the attitude of the subject in controlling children.
    • d. Requiring the subject to remain in the room and under the control of the examiner.
  • 119. 59. The “control question” technique used in a polygraph examination involves:
    • a. Requiring the subject to remain rigid in the chair while the question is asked.
    • b. Asking the subject questions which are irrelevant to the subject matter.
    • c. Asking questions regarding the attitude of the subject in controlling children.
    • d. Requiring the subject to remain in the room and under the control of the examiner.
  • 120. 60. The simulated use of a polygraph by an employer so as to lead an individual to believe that an actual test is being conducted is:
    • a. A violation of the Federal Polygraph Act.
    • b. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any employer.
    • c. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any multi-national employer.
    • d. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any employer whose facilities are physically located in more than one state.
  • 121. 60. The simulated use of a polygraph by an employer so as to lead an individual to believe that an actual test is being conducted is:
    • a. A violation of the Federal Polygraph Act.
    • b. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any employer.
    • c. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any multi-national employer.
    • d. Authorized as a pre-employment device for any employer whose facilities are physically located in more than one state.
  • 122. 61. The refusal of an employee or prospective employee to take a polygraph examination may:
    • a. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by any employer.
    • b. Not be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by any employer.
    • c. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by an employer manufacturing, distributing or dispensing controlled substances.
    • d. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by an employer whose primary business consists of providing armored car, security alarm or other uniformed or plainclothes security personnel.
  • 123. 61. The refusal of an employee or prospective employee to take a polygraph examination may:
    • a. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by any employer.
    • b. Not be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by any employer.
    • c. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by an employer manufacturing, distributing or dispensing controlled substances.
    • d. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse employment action by an employer whose primary business consists of providing armored car, security alarm or other uniformed or plainclothes security personnel.
  • 124. 62. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that the use of polygraph or other lie detector:
    • a. Is not an unfair labor practice under the federal labor law.
    • b. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the employee is a labor union member.
    • c. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the employee is not a labor union member.
    • d. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when used in a pre-employment situation.
  • 125. 62. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that the use of polygraph or other lie detector:
    • a. Is not an unfair labor practice under the federal labor law.
    • b. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the employee is a labor union member.
    • c. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the employee is not a labor union member.
    • d. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when used in a pre-employment situation.
  • 126.
    • End of Review