Commercial pilot test
Upcoming SlideShare
Loading in...5
×
 

Commercial pilot test

on

  • 1,089 views

gonzalo santiago martinez

gonzalo santiago martinez
www.facebook.com/simpleverso
golfsierramike.blogspot.mx

Statistics

Views

Total Views
1,089
Views on SlideShare
1,089
Embed Views
0

Actions

Likes
0
Downloads
2
Comments
0

0 Embeds 0

No embeds

Accessibility

Categories

Upload Details

Uploaded via as Adobe PDF

Usage Rights

© All Rights Reserved

Report content

Flagged as inappropriate Flag as inappropriate
Flag as inappropriate

Select your reason for flagging this presentation as inappropriate.

Cancel
  • Full Name Full Name Comment goes here.
    Are you sure you want to
    Your message goes here
    Processing…
Post Comment
Edit your comment

    Commercial pilot test Commercial pilot test Document Transcript

    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 09/17/2012 Bank: (Commercial Pilot) Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Use the following URL to download a complete list of associated supplement books: http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/ The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of learning statements with their associated codes. It can be located at: http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/airmen/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf 1. PLT312 COM (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the A) green arc. B) yellow arc. C) white arc. 2. PLT242 COM Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the A) force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. B) differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. C) reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber. 3. PLT166 COM To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to A) the current altimeter setting. B) 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted. C) the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted. 4. PLT215 COM Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation A) varies over time as the agonic line shifts. B) varies for different headings of the same aircraft. C) is the same for all aircraft in the same locality. 5. PLT343 COM Applying carburetor heat will A) not affect the mixture. B) lean the fuel/air mixture. C) enrich the fuel/air mixture. 6. PLT251 COM Consider a reciprocating aircraft engine. Detonation can be caused by A) a `rich` mixture. B) low engine temperatures. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank C) using a lower grade of fuel than recommended. 7. PLT343 COM At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the A) engine to overheat. B) fouling of spark plugs. C) engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased. 8. PLT141 COM (Refer to figure 60.) Sign "1" is an indication A) of an area where aircraft are prohibited. B) that the taxiway does not continue. C) of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway. 9. PLT040 COM (Refer to figure 53) GIVEN: Location -Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude 1,000 ft AGL Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time 3 p.m. local Flight visibility 1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You A) are in violation of the CFR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. B) are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing. C) may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport. 10. PLT162 COM Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? A) Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. B) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). C) Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder. 11. PLT162 COM Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? A) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. B) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized. 12. PLT161 COM Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace? A) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized. 13. PLT162 COM Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? A) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank B) The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate. C) The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. 14. PLT161 COM What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? A) Class D, which then becomes Class C. B) Class D, which then becomes Class E. C) Class B. 15. PLT064 COM When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of A) special VFR airspace. B) Class D airspace. C) Class B airspace. 16. PLT044 COM When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to A) 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. B) 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. C) 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. 17. PLT434 COM When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to A) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. B) 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. C) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. 18. PLT194 COM How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. B) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. C) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. 19. PLT208 COM When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should A) rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation. B) climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints. C) apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. 20. PLT219 COM Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. A) Power, pitch, bank, and trim. B) Thrust, lift, turns, and glides. C) Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 21. PLT103 COM When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude? A) It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. B) Not so fast. Think first. C) Follow the rules. They are usually right. 22. PLT393 COM The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when A) experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight. B) requested to contact a new controlling facility. C) climbing or descending to assigned altitudes. 23. PLT012 COM GIVEN: Wind 175° at 20 kts Distance 135 NM True course 075° True airspeed 80 kts Fuel consumption 105 lb/hr Determine the time en route and fuel consumption. A) 1 hour 28 minutes and 73.2 pounds. B) 1 hour 38 minutes and 158 pounds. C) 1 hour 40 minutes and 175 pounds. 24. PLT012 COM An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions: Airport elevation 1,000 ft Cruise altitude 9,500 ft Rate of climb 500 ft/min Average true airspeed 135 kts True course 215° Average wind velocity 290° at 20 kts Variation 3°W Deviation -2° Average fuel consumption 13 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb. A) 14 minutes, 234°, 26 NM, 3.9 gallons. B) 17 minutes, 224°, 36 NM, 3.7 gallons. C) 17 minutes, 242°, 31 NM, 3.5 gallons. 25. PLT101 COM (Refer to figure 53, point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely A) an arrival route. B) a military training route. C) a state boundary line. 26. PLT014 COM The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank that radiobeacon would be A) 150°. B) 285°. C) 330°. 27. PLT091 COM If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be A) 040°. B) 065°. C) 220°. 28. PLT090 COM An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately A) 6 miles. B) 2 miles. C) 1 mile. 29. PLT012 COM GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change 15° Elapsed time between bearing change 7.5 min True airspeed 85 kts Rate of fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr The time, distance, and fuel required to fly to the station is A) 30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons. B) 32 minutes; 48 miles; 5.58 gallons. C) 48 minutes; 48 miles; 4.58 gallons. 30. PLT014 COM If the relative bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time, the time to the station would be A) 12 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 18 minutes. 31. PLT012 COM Inbound on the 190 radial, a pilot selects the 195 radial, turns 5° to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 10 minutes. The ETE to the station is A) 10 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 20 minutes. 32. PLT012 COM Inbound on the 090 radial, a pilot rotates the OBS 010° to the left, turns 010° to the right, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot determines that the elapsed time for the CDI to center is 8 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is A) 8 minutes. B) 16 minutes. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank C) 24 minutes. 33. PLT090 COM (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument(s) show(s) that the aircraft is getting further from the selected VORTAC? A) 4. B) 1 and 4. C) 2 and 3. 34. PLT447 COM A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges? A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. B) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later. C) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year. 35. PLT220 COM If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is A) 1800 CST. B) 1959 CST. C) 1900 CST. 36. PLT386 COM Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? A) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date. B) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. C) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months. 37. PLT161 COM What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A) 156 knots. B) 200 knots. C) 230 knots. 38. PLT416 COM Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? A) Cabin door opened in-flight. B) Flight control system malfunction or failure. C) Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure. 39. PLT288 COM Which statement pertaining to the following terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) is true? TAF KMEM 091135Z 0915 15005KT 5SM HZ BKN060 FM1600 VRB04KT P6SM SKC A) Wind in the valid period implies surface winds are forecast to be greater than 5 KTS. B) Wind direction is from 160° at 4 KTS and reported visibility is 6 statute miles. C) SKC in the valid period indicates no significant weather and sky clear. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 40. PLT288 COM What does the contraction VRB in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) mean? A) Wind speed is variable throughout the period. B) Cloud base is variable. C) Wind direction is variable. 41. PLT290 COM SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous A) to all aircraft. B) particularly to heavy aircraft. C) particularly to light airplanes. 42. PLT495 COM What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms? A) Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail. B) Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. C) Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. 43. PLT021 COM GIVEN: Weight A. 135 pounds at 15 inches aft of datum Weight B. 205 pounds at 117 inches aft of datum Weight C. 85 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum? A) 100.2 inches. B) 109.0 inches. C) 121.7 inches. 44. PLT481 COM What is the proper sequence in which the instructor should employ the four basic steps in the teaching process? A) Explanation, demonstration, practice, and evaluation. B) Explanation, trial and practice, evaluation, and review. C) Preparation, presentation, application, and review and evaluation. 45. PLT103 COM Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by A) taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. B) early recognition of hazardous thoughts. C) redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. 46. PLT161 COM (Refer to figure 54, point 5) A balloon drifts over the town of Brentwood on a magnetic course of 185° at 10 knots. If wind conditions remain the same, after 1 hour 30 minutes the pilot A) with no radio aboard, must be above 2,900 feet MSL and must have an operating transponder aboard. B) must remain above 600 feet MSL for national security reasons. C) with no radio aboard, must be above 2,900 feet MSL. 47. PLT477 COM In which situation is a hazardous stall more likely to occur if inadequate airspeed allowance is made for wind velocity gradient? file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank A) During the approach to a landing. B) While thermalling at high altitudes. C) During takeoff and climb while on aerotow. 48. PLT257 COM The reason for retaining water ballast while thermals are strong, is to A) decrease forward speed. B) decrease cruise performance. C) increase cruise performance. 49. PLT123 COM Minimum sink speed is the airspeed which results in the A) least loss of altitude in a given time. B) least loss of altitude in a given distance. C) shallowest glide angle in any convective situation. 50. PLT257 COM The maximum airspeed at which abrupt and full deflection of the controls would not cause structural damage to a glider is called the A) speed-to-fly. B) maneuvering speed. C) never-exceed speed. 51. PLT304 COM What factors affect glider performance during launch? A) Density altitude at the launch airport and towline strength. B) Pressure altitude at the launch airport and the temperature sounding at 1,000 feet AGL. C) Power output of the launch mechanism and aerodynamic efficiency of the glider. 52. PLT011 COM The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind? A) Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. B) Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation. C) Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation. 53. PLT445 COM Which of the following elements should be considered when preparing to assemble a glider for flight? A) Whether seat belts and shoulder harnesses are fastened and tightened. B) Availability of water for ballast. C) Checklists that detail the appropriate assembly procedures. 54. PLT170 COM A rule of thumb for flying a final approach is to maintain a speed that is A) twice the glider's stall speed, regardless of windspeed. B) twice the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. C) 50 percent above the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. 55. PLT494 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank Which thermal index would predict the best probability of good soaring conditions? A) -10. B) -5. C) +20. 56. PLT159 COM Superheat is a term used to describe the condition which exists A) when the surrounding air is at least 10° warmer than the gas in the envelope. B) when the Sun heats the envelope surface to a temperature at least 10° greater than the surrounding air. C) relative to the difference in temperature between the gas in the envelope and the surrounding air caused by the Sun. 57. PLT295 COM What is the primary consideration in determining the length and frequency of flight instruction periods? A) Fatigue. B) Mental acuity. C) Physical conditioning. 58. PLT040 COM (Refer to figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is A) the surface. B) 700 feet AGL. C) 1,200 feet AGL. 59. PLT112 COM During level flight, if the manifold pressure is high and the RPM is low, what initial corrective action should be made? A) Decrease the throttle. B) Increase the throttle. C) Lower the collective pitch. 60. PLT420 COM What type approach should be made to a pinnacle under conditions of relatively high wind and turbulence? A) A normal approach. B) A steeper-than-normal approach. C) A shallower-than-normal approach. 61. PLT175 COM If complete power failure should occur while cruising at altitude, the pilot should A) partially lower the collective pitch, close the throttle, then completely lower the collective pitch. B) lower the collective pitch as necessary to maintain proper rotor RPM, and apply right pedal to correct for yaw. C) close the throttle, lower the collective pitch to the full-down position, apply left pedal to correct for yaw, and establish a normal power-off glide. 62. PLT420 COM A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when A) maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes. B) receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix. C) maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes. 63. PLT132 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The ratio of an airplane`s true airspeed to the speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions is A) equivalent airspeed. B) transonic airflow. C) mach number. 64. PLT310 COM A load factor of 1.2 means the total load on an aircraft`s structure is 1.2 times its A) gross weight. B) load limit. C) gust factor. 65. PLT018 COM If the airspeed is decreased from 98 knots to 85 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn, the load factor will A) remain the same, but the radius of turn will decrease. B) decrease, and the rate of turn will decrease. C) remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase. 66. PLT018 COM If the airspeed is increased from 89 knots to 98 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn, the load factor will A) decrease, and the radius of turn will decrease. B) remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase. C) increase, but the rate of turn will decrease. 67. PLT168 COM During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift A) is momentarily decreased. B) remains the same. C) is momentarily increased. 68. PLT237 COM As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane A) decreases because of lower parasite drag. B) increases because of increased induced drag. C) increases because of increased parasite drag. 69. PLT242 COM An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the A) negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the airfoil`s surface. B) vacuum below the airfoil`s surface and greater air pressure above the airfoil`s surface. C) higher air pressure below the airfoil`s surface and lower air pressure above the airfoil`s surface. 70. PLT477 COM The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by A) changes in air density. B) variations in flight altitude. C) variations in airplane loading. 71. PLT168 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank To hold an airplane in level flight at airspeeds from very slow to very fast, a pilot must coordinate thrust and A) angle of incidence. B) gross weight. C) angle of attack. 72. PLT004 COM (Refer to figure 13.) GIVEN: Aircraft weight 4,000 lb Airport pressure altitude 2,000 ft Temperature at 2,000 feet 32 °C Using a maximum rate of climb under the given conditions, how much time would be required to climb to a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet? A) 7 minutes. B) 8.4 minutes. C) 11.2 minutes. 73. PLT008 COM (Refer to figure 35.) GIVEN: Temperature 85 °F Pressure altitude 6,000 ft Weight 2,800 lb Headwind 14 kts Determine the approximate ground roll. A) 742 feet. B) 1,280 feet. C) 1,480 feet. 74. PLT134 COM The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on A) pressure/density altitude. B) cabin altitude. C) true altitude. 75. PLT012 COM (Refer to figure 11.) What would be the approximate true airspeed and fuel consumption per hour at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power? A) 103 MPH TAS, 6.3 GPH. B) 105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH. C) 105 MPH TAS, 6.6 GPH. 76. PLT002 COM (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. A) Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear and flaps down. B) In a 60° bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up. C) Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks. 77. PLT002 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2.5 G`s if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots? (Refer to figure 4. To use the chart, enter the figure from the far left vertical scale, Load Factor. Move horizontally right to the Load Factor curve. From that point, move vertically up to the intersection of the Stall Speed Increase curve. Next, move horizontally left to the vertical axis labeled Percent Increase in Stall Speed.) A) 62 knots. B) 84 knots. C) 96 knots. 78. PLT015 COM If an airplane is consuming 12.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 8,500 feet and the groundspeed is 145 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 435 NM? A) 27 gallons. B) 34 gallons. C) 38 gallons. 79. PLT015 COM If fuel consumption is 80 pounds per hour and groundspeed is 180 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 460 NM? A) 205 pounds. B) 212 pounds. C) 460 pounds. 80. PLT012 COM If an aircraft is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the groundspeed is 135 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 420 NM? A) 27 gallons. B) 30 gallons. C) 35 gallons. 81. PLT012 COM If an aircraft is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the groundspeed is 135 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 380 NM? A) 27 gallons. B) 30 gallons. C) 35 gallons. 82. PLT127 COM Density altitude is the vertical distance above mean sea level in the standard atmosphere at which A) pressure altitude is corrected for standard temperature. B) a given atmospheric density is to be found. C) temperature, pressure, altitude, and humidity are considered. 83. PLT074 COM (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the A) upper limit of the yellow arc. B) upper limit of the green arc. C) blue radial line. 84. PLT343 COM Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank A) exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit. B) a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system. C) a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater. 85. PLT343 COM An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by A) a defective bearing. B) the oil level being too low. C) operating with an excessively rich mixture. 86. PLT444 COM Who has the final authority to accept or decline any `land and hold short` (LAHSO) clearance? A) ATC approach controller. B) ATC tower controller. C) Pilot-in-command. 87. PLT140 COM Once a pilot-in-command accepts a `land and hold short` (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless A) an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. B) the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases. C) Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases. 88. PLT141 COM This sign is a visual clue that A) confirms the aircraft`s location to be on taxiway "B." B) warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B." C) indicates "B" holding area is ahead. 89. PLT141 COM The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates A) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. B) a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. C) the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side. 90. PLT141 COM The runway holding position sign is located on A) runways that intersect other runways. B) taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a runway. C) runways that intersect other taxiways. 91. PLT141 COM `Runway Holding Position Markings` on taxiways A) identify where aircraft are prohibited to taxi when not cleared to proceed by ground control. B) identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway. C) allow an aircraft permission onto the runway. 92. PLT141 COM (Refer to figure 57.) You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank should you proceed? A) Left. B) Right. C) Straight ahead. 93. PLT141 COM (Refer to figure 64.) If cleared for an intersection takeoff on runway 8, you see this sign at the intersection hold short position. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway? A) Left. B) Right. C) Need more information. 94. PLT141 COM This taxiway sign would be expected A) at the intersection of runway 04/22 departure end and the taxiway. B) near the intersection of runways 04 and 22. C) at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22. 95. PLT141 COM This sign confirms your position on A) runway 22. B) routing to runway 22. C) taxiway 22. 96. PLT141 COM From the cockpit, this marking confirms the aircraft to be A) on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone. B) on a runway, about to clear. C) near an instrument approach clearance zone. 97. PLT141 COM This signage and pavement markings confirms you are A) at the approach end of runway 22. B) about to enter a runway at the intersection of intersecting crossing runways. C) about to leave the taxiway and enter the runway at an intersection. 98. PLT162 COM Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? A) May conduct operations under visual flight rules. B) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). C) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. 99. PLT161 COM The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally A) 20 NM. B) 30 NM. C) 40 NM. 100. PLT208 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is A) maintaining a safe airspeed. B) landing directly into the wind. C) turning back to the takeoff field. 101. PLT509 COM Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? A) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. B) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. C) Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course. 102. PLT509 COM Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft? A) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation. B) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow. C) When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger. 103. PLT022 COM What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? A) Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. B) Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment. C) Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). 104. PLT103 COM Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: A) Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. B) Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. C) Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. 105. PLT022 COM An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves A) taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. B) understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.' C) obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training. 106. PLT103 COM What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? A) Dealing with improper judgment. B) Recognition of hazardous thoughts. C) Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. 107. PLT103 COM What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous? A) Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. B) Avoid developing this hazardous thought. C) Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 108. PLT104 COM While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? A) He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. B) He flies a little closer, just to show him. C) He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision. 109. PLT103 COM Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to A) assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. B) promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. C) complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.' 110. PLT272 COM What does good cockpit stress management begin with? A) Knowing what causes stress. B) Good life stress management. C) Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. 111. PLT205 COM To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about A) 1 hour. B) 3 hours. C) 4 hours. 112. PLT083 COM (Refer to figure 30.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure? A) One VOR receiver. B) One VOR receiver and DME. C) Two VOR receivers and DME. 113. PLT083 COM (Refer to figure 30) When approaching the VOR/DME-A, the symbol [2800] in the MSA circle represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A) DEANI intersection. B) White Cloud VORTAC. C) Baldwin Municipal Airport. 114. PLT083 COM (Refer to figure 27.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A) Denver VORTAC. B) Dymon outer marker. C) Cruup I-AQD DME fix. 115. PLT395 COM 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as A) speed for best rate of descent. B) speed for best angle of climb. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank C) speed for best rate of climb. 116. PLT056 COM (Refer to figure 17.) Which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will A) cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound. B) intercept the 225 radial at a 45° angle. C) intercept the 360 radial at a 45° angle inbound. 117. PLT091 COM (Refer to figure 16.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, what would be the relative bearing if the aircraft were turned to a magnetic heading of 150°? A) 150°. B) 190°. C) 250°. 118. PLT014 COM (Refer to figure 21.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 13 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station? A) 13 minutes. B) 17 minutes. C) 26 minutes. 119. PLT064 COM (Refer to figure 55) En route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection? A) One VOR receiver. B) One VOR receiver and DME. C) Two VOR receivers. 120. PLT466 COM 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as A) maximum landing gear extended speed. B) never-exceed speed. C) maximum nose wheel extend speed. 121. PLT444 COM In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services? A) On-demand, nine or less passenger, charter flights. B) Crop dusting, spraying, and bird chasing. C) On-demand cargo flights. 122. PLT444 COM Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A) File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station. B) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers. C) Verify approved position lights are not burned out. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 123. PLT400 COM Which list accurately reflects some of the documents required to be current and carried in a U.S. registered civil airplane flying in the United States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A) Proof of insurance certificate, VFR flight plan or flight itinerary, and the aircraft logbook. B) VFR sectional(s) chart(s) for the area in which the flight occurs, aircraft logbook, and engine logbook. C) Airworthiness certificate, approved airplane flight manual, and aircraft registration certificate. 124. PLT405 COM Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? A) Anticollision light system. B) Gyroscopic direction indicator. C) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator. 125. PLT444 COM Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must A) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed. 126. PLT414 COM During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft A) #2, aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1. B) #1, aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2. C) #2, aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1. 127. PLT288 COM The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than A) 6 nautical miles. B) 6 statute miles. C) 6 kilometers. 128. PLT514 COM Aviation Area Forecasts (FAs) for the contiguous U.S. are used in conjunction with inflight aviation weather advisories to interpolate A) temperatures and winds at altitude. B) conditions at airports for which no TAFs are issued. C) radar echo precipitation types and intensity levels. 129. PLT514 COM To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor A) a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver. B) the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. C) a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service. 130. PLT059 COM file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 091854Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12 A) Rain and fog are creating an overcast at 700 feet AGL; rain began at 1912Z. B) The temperature-dew point spread is 1°C; rain began at 1812Z. C) Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL. 131. PLT475 COM What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination? A) Rapid variations in windspeed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls. B) Peak gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30° or more. C) Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 132. PLT059 COM The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 5,000 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 8,000 feet MSL.) METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998 A) 2,500 feet. B) 3,500 feet. C) 4,000 feet. 133. PLT061 COM What significant cloud coverage is reported by this pilot report? KMOB UA/OV 15NW MOB 1340Z/SK 025 OVC 045/075 OVC 080/090 OVC A) Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 2,500, 7,500 and 9,000 feet. B) The top of the lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer are 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively. C) The base of the second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 9,000 feet. 134. PLT021 COM GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 957 29.07 ? Pilot (fwd seat) 140 -45.30 ? Passenger (aft seat) 170 +1.60 ? Ballast 15 -45.30 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A) -6.43. B) +16.43. C) +27.38. 135. PLT242 COM The unequal lift across the rotor disc that occurs in horizontal flight as a result of the difference in velocity of the air over the advancing half of the disc area and the air passing over the retreating half of the disc area is known as A) coning. B) disc loading. C) dissymmetry of lift. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank 136. PLT011 COM (Refer to figure 41.) GIVEN: Helicopter gross weight 1,275 lb Ambient temperature 9 °F Determine the in ground effect hover ceiling. A) 6,600 feet. B) 7,900 feet. C) 8,750 feet. 137. PLT021 COM (Refer to figure 41.) GIVEN: Helicopter gross weight 1,225 lb Ambient temperature 77 °F Determine the in-ground-effect hover ceiling. A) 6,750 feet. B) 7,250 feet. C) 8,000 feet. 138. PLT004 COM (Refer to figure 44.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature 60 °F Pressure altitude 2,000 ft What is the rate of climb? A) 705 ft/min. B) 630 ft/min. C) 755 ft/min. 139. PLT004 COM (Refer to figure 44.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature 40 °F Pressure altitude 1,000 ft What is the rate of climb? A) 810 ft/min. B) 830 ft/min. C) 860 ft/min. 140. PLT470 COM The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to A) assist in making coordinated turns. B) maintain heading during forward flight. C) counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. 141. PLT259 COM Ground resonance is less likely to occur with helicopters that are not equipped with file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank A) rigid rotor systems. B) fully articulated rotor systems. C) semi-rigid rotor systems. 142. PLT208 COM Which statement is true about an autorotative descent? A) Generally, only the cyclic control is used to make turns. B) The pilot should use the collective pitch control to control the rate of descent. C) The rotor RPM will tend to decrease if a tight turn is made with a heavily loaded helicopter. 143. PLT264 COM Under which situation is accidental settling with power likely to occur? A) A steep approach in which the airspeed is permitted to drop to nearly zero. B) A shallow approach in which the airspeed is permitted to drop below 10 MPH. C) Hovering in ground effect during calm wind, high-density altitude conditions. 144. PLT268 COM A pilot is hovering during calm wind conditions. The greatest amount of engine power will be required when A) ground effect exists. B) making a left-pedal turn. C) making a right-pedal turn. 145. PLT201 COM Which is true concerning a running takeoff? A) If a helicopter cannot be lifted vertically, a running takeoff should be made. B) One advantage of a running takeoff is that the additional airspeed can be converted quickly to altitude. C) A running takeoff may be possible when gross weight or density altitude prevents a sustained hover at normal hovering altitude. 146. PLT486 COM Which flight technique is recommended for use during hot weather? A) During takeoff, accelerate quickly into forward flight. B) During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight. C) Use minimum allowable RPM and maximum allowable manifold pressure during all phases of flight. 147. PLT466 COM 14 CFR part 1 defines VNO as A) maximum operating limit speed. B) maximum structural cruising speed. C) never-exceed speed. 148. PLT436 COM When operating a U.S.-registered civil helicopter, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft? A) A manufacturer`s Operations Manual. B) A current, approved Rotorcraft Flight Manual. C) An Owner`s Manual. 149. PLT161 COM What transponder equipment is required for helicopter operations within Class B airspace? A transponder file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]
    • Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank A) with 4096 code and Mode C capability. B) is required for helicopter operations when visibility is less than 3 miles. C) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement. 150. PLT021 COM GIVEN: WEIGHT LNG. LNG. LAT. LAT. ARM MOM. ARM. MOM. Empty weight 1700 116.1 ? +0.2 Fuel (75 gal at 6.8 ppg) ? 110.0 -- -- Oil 12 179.0 -- -- Pilot (right seat) 175 65.0 ? 12.5 Passenger (left seat) 195 104.0 ? -13.3 ? TOTALS ? ? ? ? ? Determine the longitudinal and lateral CG respectively. A) 109.35 inches and -.04 inches. B) 110.43 inches and +.02 inches. C) 110.83 inches and -.02 inches. file:///T|/AFSMigration/training_testing/testing/airmen/test_questions/media/COM.htm[10/9/2012 3:56:15 PM]