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  1. 1. T. B.C. : B-BNT-M-HHQ-A Time Allowed : Two Hours 1. . ".°‘ i 92° (‘H33 2013 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO 80 Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET Paper I GENERAL ABILITY, GENERAL MEDICINE AND PAEDIATRICS Maximum Marks : 250 INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION. YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS. ETC. IF SO. GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. PLEASE NOTE THAT IT IS THE CANDIDATE’S RESPONSIBILITY TO ENCODE AND FILL IN THE ROLL NUMBER AND TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A. B, C OR D CAREFULLY AND WITHOUT ANY OMISSION OR DISCREPANCY AT THE APPRO- PRIATE PLACES IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET. ANY OMISSIONIDISCREPANCY WILL RENDER THE ANSWER SHEET LIABLE FOR REJECT ION. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test | Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains I20 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response. mark the response which you consider the best. In any case. choose ONLY ONE response for each item. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet. you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Cenificatc. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded. you should hand over to the lnvigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Rough sheets are appended at the end of the Test Booklet. THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer. it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i. e. no answer is given by the candidate. there will be no penalty for that question. _: .__ DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
  2. 2. 1. Endemic cardiomyopathy in children is 3. linked to the deficiency of (a) zinc (b) cobalt (c) selenium (d) chromium Beta-blocker therapy after acute myo- cardial infarction is contraindicated in which of the following conditions '. ’ 1. Heart failure 2. Onhostatic hypotension 3. Peptic ulcer disease 4. Bronchial asthma Select the correct answer using the code given below : (8.) l and 2 only (b) l, 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2. 3 and 4 The following congenital heart diseases_ are associated with cyanosis except (a) complete transposition of the great arteries (b) single ventricle with or without pulmonic stenosis B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A — A (c) hypoplastic left heart (d) atrial septal defect with mitral stenosis . A 34-year old non-diabetic, normoten- sive patient presents with acute severe retrostemal pain. The ECG shows ST elevation (23 mm) in anterior chest leads. Blood for CPK-MB. Tropin-T and AST are normal. A repeat ECO after 24 hours is normal. What is the likely diagnosis ? (a) Acute pericarditis (b) Prinzmetal‘s angina (c) Acute anterior myocardial infarc- tion (d) Acute non-myocardial infarction . Which one of the following is charac- teristic of Opening Snap (on cardiac auscultation) ? (a) Low pitched. early diastolic (b) High pitched. early diastolic (c) High pitched. late diastolic (d) Low pitched. late diastolic . Sudden onset of cough followed by increased dyspnea is typical of (a) Pneumothorax (b) Lobar pneumonia (c) Collapse of lung (d) Acute plcurisy
  3. 3. 7. Multi-drug resistance tuberculosis im- (c) Hepatitis C virus plies resistance to at least (d) Hepatitis E virus (a) any two antitubercular drugs (b) lsoniazid and Ethambutol 11. Drug of choice for the treatment of Taenia solium and Taenia saginata tc) Rifampicin and Ethambutol i"f¢5i-'1ii0" is (d) lsolliazid and Rifampicin (a) Metronidazole 8. A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis is (b) Aibendazole on antitubercular therapy. He develops drug-induced hepatitis. Which of the (C) Nielosilmide following drugs is not responsible ? (d) Diloxanide furoate (a) Rifampicin (b) Euiambuiol 12. Very high serum transaminases (ALT! AST > 1000 [U/ L) are seen in the (C) pymzinmnide following conditions except (d) lsoniazid (a) Viral hepatitis 9. Which of the following is the best ‘bl “°""‘°"“° "”"""3“'3’ deterrninallt of adequacy of alveolar yenulmion? (c) Toxin-induced liver injury (a) Arterial p02 level (d) Alcoholic liver disease (b) Arterial pC02 level 13. Necrotizing papillitis is a feature in all (C) Minn“: ventilation of the following conditions except (d) Presence of cyanosis (ii) Sickle Cell disease to. Which of the following is a DNA vims '2 ii’) T“b°'°"'°”S "y°'°“""i"i“‘ (3) Hcpamis A Virus (c) Diabetes lnellitus (b) Hepatitis B virus (d) Analgesic nephropathy 3 A — B-BNT-M-HHQ-A
  4. 4. 14. The characteristic abnormality found in the urinalysis of a case of acute gloincrulonephritis is l. Granular casts 2. Red cell casts 3. Hyaline casts 4. WBC casts Select the correct answer using the code given below: (:1) I. 2 and 3 (b) l and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only 15. Most common mutation in Alport‘s syndrome is in COL4A5 gene. which is transmitted as (an) autosomal dominant (b) autosomal recessive (c) X-linked (d) variable, autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive 16. Broad casts in urinary sediments is specific for (a) acute renal failure (b) rapidly progressive renal failure B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A — A 17. 18. 190 (c) chronic renal failure (d) asymptomatic urinary abnormality Amaurosis fugax refers to transient ischaemic attack involving the region of (a) retina (b) intemal capsule (c) brain stem (d) cerebral cortex Sub—acutc combined degeneration of spinal cord results from the deficiency of which of the following vitamins ? (3) 0’) B12 (c) B, (d) 83 The following systemic diseases are typically associated with pol yneuropathy except (:1) Diabetes mellitus (b) Hyperthyroidism (c) Uniemia (d) Carcinoma bladder
  5. 5. 20. 21. 22. A young boy with history of left ear discharge develops fever. headache. vomiting and focal seizure of right upper limb. The appropriate line of manage- ment is (a) urgent CT head and antibiotics (b) urgent EEG and antibiotics (c) urgent Otoscopy and antibiotics (d) urgent CBC (complete blood counts) and antibiotics Which of the following blood disorders is not associated with a large spleen ? (a) Beta thalassaemia (b) Chronic myeloid leukaemia (c) Hairy cell leukaemia (d) Sickle cell anaemia Megaloblastic anaemia may be caused by the following drugs except (a) Phenytoin (b) Methotrexate (c) Pyrimethamine (d) Amoxycillin-Clavulinic acid (amo- xyclav) 23. Disseminate? intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by the following except (a) widespread bleeding/ thrombosis (b) prolongation of prothrombin time! partial thromboplastin time (c) high levels of fibrin degradation products (d) high platelet count . Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List 11 (Disease) (Appropriate Microbe) A. Epidemic 1. Coxiella typhus burnetti B. Murine typhus 2. R. rickettsii C. Q fever 3. R. typhi D. Rocky mountain 4. R. prowazekii spotted fever Code : rx 3? fit U) I») 5 (d) l 4 2 3
  6. 6. 25. 27. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the characteri- stics of HACEK organisms ? (a) Fustidious. fast-growing. grain- positive bacteria whose growth requires an atmosphere of L-cysteine (b) Known to cause severe systemic infections -— most often bacterial endocarditis, which can develop on either native or prosthetic valves (c) Nonnally reside in the oral cavity and has been associated with local infections in the mouth (d) The cure rates for HACEK prosthe- tic-valve endocarditis appears to be high A 50-year male quartz quarry worker presents with progressive dyspnoea on exertion. Which of the following is the likely pneumoconiosis ? (a) Asbestosis (b) Byssinosis (c) Silicosis (d) Beryliosis Splenectomised patients have an increased susceptibility to which one of the following infections ‘.7 (a) Emamoeba ltisrnlytica (b) Giunrlia lamblia (C) SIr(’p!0(‘0(‘(‘ll. € pnetunoiiiue (d) Aspergillotis niger B- BNT-M-IIIIQ-A - A 28. Match List I with List II and select the conect answer using the code given below the l. t'sts: List I List ll (C/ u.'. ‘ of (Ami retmviral dl'N_l, '.‘) agents) A. Nucleositle I. Stavudin analogue Reverse _ . 2. Nevirapme Transcriptase lnhihitor 3. Lopanavir B. Nucleotide 4_ -I-enofovir analogue Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor C. Non-Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptuse Inhibitor D. Protease Inhibitor Code : (:1) l 3 2 4 (b) l 4 2 3 L) L» 5 (C) (d) 2 4 t 3 29. Which one of the following is not clmactcristic of Vitamin-D resistant rickets? (a) X-linked inheritance (b) Renal stones (c) Reduced calcium absorption from the gut (dl Hyptiphospltutetnia
  7. 7. 30. 31. A 8-year old child present-; with itching on the scalp Ill| lmx wt‘ hztn. A eltaractenstic ‘black tl-It’ Lt| ‘l‘. '!!1IllCL‘ is seen. Winch of the Iiitlu-. mig. -. l the most likely cause " List I (0Ijt: um'sm ) (ll) Alopccia areata _ A. Borreha (hi Pcdtculosis t. "tpitis‘ burgdorfei _ _ _ B. Dengue (C) Tinea capitis C. Japanese (d) Traumatic alopecia encephalitis D. Rickettsia C outsider the fotlmxing statements p, ow_. mekii regarding leprosy : Code : 1. Lepra reactions are not a feature of tuberculoid leprosy A B 2. Erythema nodtmiiit lcpiosum often (3) l 4' occurs tollomin; institution of '7 chemotherapy (bl * 3 . . , ‘c 4 I 3. ElL’v£llt‘tl cireul-. ittng! lt. ‘el ot tumotir ( ) ne‘t ft tar 'l‘lF l: t"ted' (. ()'~. l | Ct ti ll(kL(. in '(d) 3 1 patients with liNL 4. Lucio phenmnenon occurs in untreated patients with tuherculoid leprm_ ta) Occurs Which of the statements given above are correct '7 (la) Increasing parental age enhances the risk in the child (C) If both parents are affected. the risk in their offsprings is above 90 per (d) The illness may resemble severe and persistent neurosis ta) l. 2 and 3 (b) 3. 3 and 4 cent (c) 1. 2 and 4 tdl l. 3 and J 7 A — B-BN1‘-M-HIIQ-A 32. Match List I with List ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List ll ( l»'4’r'lm’l . Aerlcs ur'g_vpIr' f) C ulex mosquito P(’dir‘lt/ tn’ homo. nis (‘urpuris . Ixodc--. ‘ tick l~J (J I‘J in 0-5-08 per cent general population 1.» 33. As regards schizophrenia. which one of the following statements is not correct 1’ of
  8. 8. 34. 35. Consider the following statements regarding organo~phosphorus poisoning : I. There is inhibition of cholinestrase function 2. In chronic exposure. there may be peripheral neuropathy 3. In acute poisoning. there may be muscular weakness 4. ln intcnnediate syndrome, sensory functions may be affected Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l. 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) l.3 and4 Which one of the following is a specific antidote for opiate overdose ? (a) Fomepizole (b) Flumazenil (c) Naloxone (d) Physostigmine Which one of the following statements conceming catheter associated urinary tract infection is correct? (a) Most catheter associated infections are symptomatic (b) Routine antimicrobial prophylaxis is indicated B- BNT-M-HHQ-A - A 37. 38. 39. (c) Microscopic bacteria conelates with significant colony count (> I05/ml) in symptomatic cases (d) Skin organisms such as staphylo- coccus and streptococcus are the most common aeteological orga- nisms Which one of the following is not a feature of Type-I renal tubular acidosis ? (a) Lower calcium tubule re-absorption of (b) Defective bicarbonate absorption in distal tubule (c) Low serum potassium level (d) Increased anion gap Which one of the following is not a feature of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease? (a) Hypertension (b) lntennittent renal colic (c) Massive proteirturia (d) Macroscopic haematuria Pin point pupil may be found in all of the following except (a) Organophosphorus poisoning (b) Morphine poisoning (c) Pontine haemorrhage (d) Paracetamol poisoning
  9. 9. -10. 41. 43. Pulmonary complications of rheumatoid arthritis include the following except (a) Pulmonary nodules (b) Mcsothelioma (e) Ftbrosing alveolitis (d) bleural effusion In a right-handed person. which of the following signs is not a characteristic feature of occlusion in the right middle cerebral artery '? (21) Left hemiplegia with left UMN VII cranial nerve palsy (b) Left hemiplegia with aphasia (c) Left hemiplegia with anosognosia right (d) Left hemiplegia with left hemi- anaesthesia Mctoclopramide suppresses which of the following neurotransmitters in vomiting ? ta) Dopamine (b) Serotonin 5-HT4 (C) Histamine (d) Acetylcholine The amyloid protein in primzuy systemic arnylodoisis belongs to which of the following classes of fibril proteins ? la) AA protein (bl AL protein (c) All protein precursor (d) [33 microglobulin protein 44. 45. 46. Match List I with List ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List ll (Globin (7:vp«*. of chains) Ilat? rll()gf! IbiIl) A. (12 [32 l. Hb A2 B. or; r2 2. Hb A C. (12 52 3. Hb F D. [32 (32 4. Hb H Code : A B C D (a) 4 . l 2 (b) 4 l 3 2 (c) 2 l 3 4 (d) 2 '4 l 4 Which one of the following is not a common feature of cystic fibrosis ? (a) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (b) Azoospennia (c) Distal gastrointestinal obstruction (d) Polyneuropathy A 60-year old male suffering from auditory hallucinations says that people staying upstairs were talking about him and conspiring against him. He filed a police complaint against them but the allegations were proved to be wrong. The most likely diagnosis is (a) depression (b) dementia (c) delusional disorder (d) schizophrenia A - 8- BNT-M-IIHQ-A
  10. 10. 47. 48. 49. 50. Each of the following is true about the idiopathic primary pulmonary hyper- tension except (at) it is usually associated with coronary artery disease (b) it is more common in females (c) it is usually asymptomatic to begin with (d) it is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance Which one of the following is not correct about Wilson’s disease ? It is an autosomal recessive dis- order (a) (b) Serum ceruloplasmin is low (c) There is hepatolenticular degenera- tion (d) Serum copper concentration is high Which one of the following is not an aetiology of transudative pleural effu- sion ? (a) Mesothelioma (b) Cognestive heart failure (c) Cirrhosis (d) Nephrotic syndrome With reference to secondary tumours of the lurig. which one of the following is not correct ? B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A — A 10 51. S2. Diagnosis is made from radio- logical examination (b) Endobronchial deposits are com- IUOII (c) These are usually multiple and bilateral (d) Quite often. there are no respiratory symptoms A patient is being investigated for chronic diarrhoea. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy shows PAS positive foamy macrophages. The diagnosis is probably (a) chronic amoebiasis (b) chronic giardiasis (c) Whipple‘s disease (d) intestinal sarcoidosis Consider the following modalities of treatment: I. Ballon dilatation 2. Heller's operation 3. Local injection of botulinutn toxin Which of the above is/ are the treatment modalities for achalasia cardia '? (a) I only (b) l and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) I. 2 and 3
  11. 11. 53. Consider susceptibility to the following pulmonary pathogens : l. M. lubercuIo. i‘is 2. R aemginosa 3. S. aureus 4. Nocardia sp. Which of the above is/ are associated with long term glucocorticoid therapy 2’ (a) 3 only (b) l and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (cl) 2. 3 and 4 Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List 1 ( Clinical condition) A. Lepra reaction B. Herpes zoster C. Psoriasis D. Pemphygus vulgaris Code : A B (a) l 4 (b) 2 l (C) 3 4 (d) 2 4 List II (Clinical man ifestation ) l . Koebner‘s phenomenon 2. Erythema nodosum 3. Nikolosky‘s sign 4. Chickenpox virus C D ‘S 2 4 3 I 2 l 3 II 55. 56. 57. In moderate severity obstructive lung disease, the expected abnormalities include the following except (a) T Residual capacity (b) J, Vital capacity (c) l FRCITLC ratio (d) FEV, /FVC < 70% Rasmussen's aneurysm is a (a) dilated vessel in a tubercular lung cavity dilation of the root of aorta in valvular stenosis (b) (c) (d) dilated aorta in syphilitic affection dilated renal vessel in hypertensive renal disease The following are important diagnostic skin manifestations of acute rheumatic fever: l. Erythema marginatum 2. Subcutaneous nodules 3. Oster's nodes 4. Butterfly rash Select the correct answer using the code given below 2 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) l and 2 only (c) 2. 3 and 4 (d) .1 and 3 A - B-BNT-M-HHQ-A
  12. 12. 58. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by 1. Wide pulse pressure 2. Angina pectoris 3. Early diastolic murmur 4. Loud lst heart sound Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2. 3 and 4 (c) I, 2 and 4 (d) I. 3 and 4 59. Match List I with List [I and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: Listl List 11 (Disease) (Association) A. Dermato— l. Heliotrope myositis rash B. Epidemic '2. Hyper- dropsy natraemia C. Arsenic 3. Hyper- poisoning pigmentation D. Diabetes 4. Dihydro- insipidus sanguirine Code : A B C D (a) l 4 3 2 (b) I 3 4 2 (c) 2 4 3 I (d) 2 3 4 l B-BNT-M-HHQ-A — A 12 60. Each of the following antibiotics can be given orally except (a) Azithromycin (b) Amikacin (c) Cefdinir (d) Linezolid 61. Consider the following statements regarding Austin Flint munnur: 1. It is heard in severe aortic regurgi- tation 2. It is produced at the anterior mitral leaflet by the regurgitant blood during diastole 3. It is an evidence of associated mitral stenosis 4. It is heard in aneurysmal dilatation of the ascending aorta Which of the statements given above are correct ‘I’ (a) 1. 2 and 3 (b) 2. 3 and 4 (c) I. 3 and 4 (d) I and 2 only 62. Two or more oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid are most often positive in (a) acute bacterial meningitis (b) multiple sclerosis (c) subarachnoid haemorrhage (d) pol yneuropathy
  13. 13. 63. 64. A 30-year old male presented with fever. dry cough and weight loss of 6 months duration. The chest X-ray shows miliary pattem. The diffcrcntiril diagnosis includes all the following except (:1) tuberculosis (b) Wcgener‘s granulomatosis (c) fungal infection (d) sarcoidosis Consider the following statements regarding a healthy adult : 1. Mean left 12-20 mm Hg 2. Left ventricular end diastolic volume is between 70-100 ml/ m2 atrial pressure is 3. Pulmonary vascular resistance is 20420 dyncs sec cm‘2 4. Left ventricular ejection fraction at rest is 0-55 to 0-80 Which of the statements given above are correct? H) (b) k) (cl) I. 2 and 3 2. 3 and 4 1. 3 and 4 l, 2 and 4 in acute hypoxaemic respiratory failure. which of the following statements is correct regarding arterial blood gas analysis '? (a) Pa02 is decreased and PaCO2 is either normal or low (b) PaO2 is decreased and Pa(. ‘O2 is high 13 67. (c) Both PaO2 and PaC02 levels are markedly reduced (d) P2102 is normal and PaCO2 is high Match List [ with List I1 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List ll (Clinical (Association) condition) A. Hypo- 1. Prolonged thyroidism P-R interval B. Rheumatic 2. Pin point cordites pupils C. Subarachnoid 3. Subhyaloid haemorrhage haemorrhage D. Morphine 4. Hung-up poisoning reflex Code : ABCl) (a)43l2 (b) 2 4 3 1 t9 La) -9- (c) l (d) 4 I 3 2 Each of the following is a sign of impaired ventricular function except (a) raised JVP (b) narrow pulse pressure (c) end-inspiratory lung crepitations (d) tapping apical impulse A - B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A
  14. 14. 68. Consider the following statements (c) HBs Ag regarding coarctation of aorta: (d) IgG Anti I-IBs l. It may be associated with Turner syndrome 71. A 2-year old child presents with 2. It most commonly occurs near generalized muscle hypotonia and me inscnjon of thc ligamemum weakness. Distal muscles are affected ancriosum more than the proximal muscle groups. Facial muscles are spared. Deep tendon 3. It is twice as common in females reflexes are diminished. Electromyo- than males graphy reveals fibrillation pattern. The most likely site of involvement is 4. It may be associated with bicuspid aortic valve (:1) anterior hom cell Which of the statements given above (1,) 9 peripheral nerve are correct . (a) I 2 and 3 (c) neuromuscular junction (b) 2' 3 and 4 (d) muscle (C) l‘ 3 and 4 72. Confirmation of the diagnosis of (d) l 2 and 4 Hirschsprung disease is by (a) barium enema 69. Which one of the following ECG findings is most likely to be seen at the (b) sigmoidoscopy time of cardiac arrest ? (c) rectal biopsy (a) Ventricular fibrillation _ (d) family history (b) Ventricular tachycardia (c) Atrial fibrillation 73. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is _ associated with which of the following (d) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia Vim] infgclions {J 70. The most reliable indicator of recent (3) Mumps Hepatitis-B infection in a convalescing _ patient is (b) Measles (a) lgM Anti HBc (C) Rubella (b) IgM Anti HBe (d) Poliomyelitis B-BNT-M-HHQ-A — A 14
  15. 15. 74. 75. 76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List ll (Disease) (CSF analysis) A. Acute pyogenic 1. Nonnal CSF "‘°"'"g"“°’ 2. Elevated 3- Tubercular proteins with meningitis no cens C. Gullian-Barre 3_ Elevated Syfldmme protein and . lls (mainly D. N - °° 4. Elevated proteins and cells (mainly lymphocytes) Code: A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 l (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 4 I 2 Pseudotumour cerebri is characterized by all of the following except (a) increase in intracranial tension (b) blurred vision and diplopia (c) focal neurological signs (d) self-limiting condition Vitamin K-dependant clotting factors include all the following except (a) Factor ll (b) Factor VIII (c) Factor IX (d) Factor X 15 77. A mother brings her 2-year old boy with short history of pallor. Examination reveals pallor. petechiae and spleno- megaly. Which of the following is the 78. most likely diagnosis ? (a) Thalassaemia (b) Acute leukaemia (c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma (d) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic pur- pura Match List I with List I] and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List ll (Disease) ( Clinical feature) A. Acute l. Recunent lymphoblastic knee joint leukaemia swelling B. Juvenile 2. Lymphadeno- rheumatoid pathy with arthritis petechiac C. Thalassaemia 3. Swelling of D. Haemophilia Code : A B (a) 4 l (b) 2 4 (C) 2 3 (d) 4 2 small joints of hands Hepatospleno- megaly with severe pallor A — B-BNT-M-HHQ-A
  16. 16. 79. Which of the following cells in peri- 83. In an infant bom to a HIV-infected pheral blood smear are necessarily mother, at what age of child the ELISA increased in all haemolytic ztnaemias C’ test can reliably diagnose HIV infec- tion ? (a) Sickle cells (a) 3 months (b) Target cells (b) 9 months (c) Bun cells (c) l2 months d R ' l ' ll ( ) encuocyte cc 5 (d) *8 months 80. Which of the following is not a naturally occumng anticoagulant in the body , , 84. The most likely diagnosis in a 2-day old neonate with indirect hyperbilirubine- (a) prom" C mia. positive direct Coombs' test and spherocytes on peripheral blood smear is Pr ’ S (b) Own (a) Cephalhematoma ‘°’ ”‘"'"""°’“b'" "' (b) ABO incompatibility (d) Von Willebrand Factor (C) Hereditary sphemcymsis 81. What is the earliest gestational age at (d) G'6'P'D deficiency which iodine trapping occurs in foetal thyroid ‘? 85. The triad of ‘diarrhoea. dementia and , dermatitis’ is characteristically seen in (3) 4 - 6 W€€l<5 the deficiency of vitamin (b) 8 — 10 weeks (a) Riboflavin (c) 12 — 14 weeks (b) Niacin (d) l6 - l8 weeks (0) Thiamine (d) Pyridoxine 82. Which of the following inbom errors of metabolism can give rise to thrombo- embolic manifestation in :1 child” 86' Hyperkalacmia can occur in 3" the following except (a) Phenylketonuria (a) Cushings Syndrome (bl) H°m°°Y5‘i"““" (b) Crush injuries (c) Galactosacmiu (C) Rem“ faflure (dl GiIUCl1eI“S diSe8S<‘- (d) lntravascular huemolysis B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A - A 16
  17. 17. 87. 88. 90. An asymptomatic 3-year old girl is brought to the emergency department after 2 hours of accidental kerosene ingestion. The appropriate management IS (a) gastric lavage (b) inducing emesis (c) chest X-ray and observation (d) charcoal haemopcrfusion A 28-year old woman suffering from sickle cell anaemia marries a 31-year old with no abnomiality. What are the respective probabilities to have (i) sickle cell disease and (ii) sickle cell trait in their offspring 1’ (a) 0% and 100% (b) 25% and 50% (c) 50% and 25% (d) 25% and 2§% What is the naturally occurring form of vitamin D in the human skin ? (a) Calciferol (b) 7 hydrocholesterol (C) 25 hydroxy cholecalciferol (d) I. 25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol Warthin-Finkelday giant cells in lym- phoid tissue are characteristic of which of the following infections‘? (:1) (b) (c) Mumps Measles Congenital cytomegalovirus infec- tion (d) HIV infection 17 91. 92. 93. 94. Some antibiotics act as ionophores, which means that they (a) interfere directly with bacterial cell wall synthesis (b) increase cell membrane permea- bility to specific ions (c) inhibit both transcription and translation (d) inhibit clectrophoretic separation of ions Polymerase Chain Reaction teclinique is used for (a) (b) (c) (d) DNA amplification DNA sequencing screening gene libraries synthesis of polymerases In the bills. the soil erosion takes place due to rapid flow of rain water. It can be most effectively controlled by (a) building dykes (b) channelizing the water (c) jhum cultivation (d) tenace cultivation The chemical substance “Taxo| " is said to have curative value for malignant tumours. It is obtained from the (a) shoots of Taacodium sp. (b) roots and fruits of Tarodium sp. (c) bark from stem of TILUIS sp. (d) roots of Taxus sp. A - B-BNT-M-HHQ-A
  18. 18. 95. 96. 97. Greenhouse gases are called as such because they (a) are used in warming plant growth chambers (b) help in maintaining atmospheric 0: and CO2 balance (c) are produced by green photo- synthesizing plants and are trapped in the Earth’s atmosphere (d) prevent the escape of heat waves reradiated from the Earth's surface Bacillus tliuringiensis is used to control (a) (b) (c) (Cl) bacterial pathogens fungal pathogens insect pests nematodes Which group of algae can provide nitro- genous nutrients to paddy cultivation under natural field conditions ? (a) Blue-green algae (b) Brown algae (c) Green algae (d) Red algae 98. Tissue culture technique can be used for 1. developing virus-free plants 2. multiplication of elite genotypes of useful trees 3. production of secondary metabo- lites of plants B-BNT-M-HHQ-A - A 18 100. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) I only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1.2 and 3 Which one of the following is an appropriate description of mangrove plants ? (a) Large wood-yielding trees of the tropical forests (b) Plants in marshy areas‘ with breathing roots (C) Succulent plants that can thrive in arid/ desert areas (d) Vast grassland aneas interspersed with deciduous trees and thorny bushes Consider the following: 1. Ethylene dibromide 2. Potassium meta-bisulphate 3. Sodium benzoate Which of the above is/ are used as food preservatives ‘P (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) l. 2 and 3
  19. 19. 101. Rayon fibre is made from (a) cellulose (b) isoprene (c) polyethylene (d) polyvinyl chloride 102. Which of the following parts/ spectra of solar radiation is/ are mostly absorbed by the leaves of green plants ? (3) Infrared (b) Red and blue (c) Violet, indigo and orange (d) Ultraviolet. green and orange I03. Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the Earth‘s atmosphere ? (a) Argon (bl Carbon dioxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Methane I04. Among the following regions of India. which one receives the highest annual average monsoon rainfall from June to September ? (a) Gangetic West Bengal (b) Eastern Utlar Pradesh (c) Western Uttar Pmdesh (d) Punjab 106. I07. 105. In which one of the following types of forests is teal: a dominant tree species ? (a) Tropical rain forest (b) Tropical deciduous forest (c) Tropical thom and scrub forest (d) Temperate forest with grasslands Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon dioxide is released from the interior of the Earth during volcanic eruption. 2. Carbon dioxide corrodes the metal surfaces. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ’. ’ (a) lonly (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 With reference to the ‘Protected Areas‘ in India, consider the following state- ments: I. In a Midlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is pemtitted. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 3. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) I only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1. 2 and 3 A - B-BN1’-M-HHQ-A
  20. 20. I08. Which one of the following pollutants causes surface deterioration of leather goods ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Hydrogen sulphide Nitrogen dioxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide 109. The Finance Commission derives its authority from the (a) (b) (C) (d) Constitution of India Parliament of India President of India Supreme Court of India 110. Which of the following regions has the lowest atmospheric humidity ? (a) 0» (c) (d) Equatorial Monsoon Prairies Polar 111. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety deals with (a) (b) (c) (d) establishing or promoting in rim conservation facilities for rare and endangered organisms . maintaining the worldwide network of gene banks for all the known flora and fauna monitoring and regulating the development of living modified organisms ensuring safe handling. safe use and safe trans-boundary movement of living modified organisms B-BNT-M-HHQ-A — A 20 112. I13. 114. 115. Which one of the secondary pollutant '2’ following is a (a) Benzene (b) Nitrogen oxide (c) Ozone (d) Sulphur dioxide A transition zone or region separating two biomes is known as (a) ecocline (b) ecological niche. (c) ecotone (d) eeotype Eutrophication of water bodies is mainly caused by (a) (b) (C) (d) carbonates and oxides hydrocarbons and metals carbonates and sulphates phosphates and nitrates Consider the following : 1. Coal pits 2. Sewers 3. Volcanic eruptions Which of the above is/ are the source! sources of H28 in the environment ? (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) (d) 1. 2 and 3 l and 3 only
  21. 21. I16. 117. Which of the following is/ are the source/ sources of methane. a green- house gas ‘I I. Cattle 2. Rice fields 3. Wetlands Select the comet answer using the code given below : (a) I only (b) 2 and 3 only (C) I and 3 only (d) I. 2 and 3 As per the Constitutional provisions, if a Panchayat is dissolved. elections are to be held within (a) I month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months ((1) I year 2] I18. 119. 120. The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes ‘? la) Crab (b) Dogfish (e) Gambusia fish (d) Snail Consider the following statements: I. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth. 2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per I00 live births during that year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I only (b) 2 only (c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 In India. sovereignty resides in the (a) Constitution of India (b) People of India (c) President of India (d) Parliament of India A — B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A
  24. 24. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK B-BN1‘-M-HHQ-A — A 24