Pharmacology  Comprehensive    Terms  List
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Pharmacology Comprehensive Terms List Document Transcript

  • 1. Pharmacology Review1. A 12yo patient was treated for a reaction to a bee sting, 10. Acetaminophen has what two clinical uses and lacks what drug provides the best coverage of what one clinical use of the NSAIDs?: Acetaminophen sympathomimetic receptors?: Epinephirine(Alpha1,2 has antipyretic and analgesic properties, but lacks and Beta 1,2) anti-inflammatory properties.2. A 57 yo heart failure pt develops cardiac 11. Acetazolamide causes?: ACIDazolamide causes acidosis decompensation, what drug will give you adequate 12. Acetazolamide- clinical uses?: glaucoma, urinary perfusion of his kidneys as well as tx for his alkalinization, metabolic alkalosis, altitude sickness Hypotension: Dopamine 13. Acetazolamide- mechanism?: acts at the proximal3. A common side effects of Interferon (INF) treatment is?: convoluted tubule to inhibit carbonic anhydrase. Neutropenia Causes self-limited sodium bicarb diuresis and4. A fellow passenger on a Carnival cruise ship looks pale reduction of total body bicarb stores. and diaphoretic, what antimuscarinic agent would 14. acetazolamide- site of action?: proximal convoluted you give them?: scopolamine tubule5. A group of pts are rushed into the ER complaining of 15. Acetazolamide- toxicity?: hyperchloremic metabolic excessive sweating, tearing, salivation, HA, N and V, acidosis, neuropathy, NH3 toxicity, sulfa allergy muscle twitching, difficulty breathing and diarrhea. 16. Adenosine- clinical use?: DOC in diagnosing and What drug would be the most effective immediate tx: abolishing AV nodal arrhythmias Atropine pts are suffering from Cholinestrase inhibitor poisining (Nerve gas/Organophosphate poisining) 17. ADH antagonists- site of action?: collecting ducts6. ACE inhibitors- clinical use?: hypertension, CHF, 18. adverse effect of Nitroprusside?: cyanide toxicity diabetic renal disease (releases CN)7. ACE inhibitors- mechanism?: reduce levels of 19. adverse effects of beta-blockers?: impotence, asthma, CV Angiotensin II, thereby preventing the inactivation of effects (bradycardia, CHF, AV block), CNS effects bradykinin (a potent vasodilator); renin level is (sedation, sleep alterations) increased 20. adverse effects of Captopril?: fetal renal toxicity,8. ACE inhibitors- toxicity?: fetal renal damage, hyperkalemia, Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste hyperkalemia, Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems, Rash, changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems, Rash, Increased renin, Lower Angiotensin II (CAPTOPRIL) Increased renin, Lower Angiotensin II (CAPTOPRIL) 21. adverse effects of Clonidine?: dry mouth, sedation, severe9. Acetaldehyde is metabolized by Acetaldehyde rebound hypertension dehydrogenase, which drug inhibs this enzyme?: -Disulfram & also sulfonylureas, metronidazole 1
  • 2. 22. adverse effects of ganglionic blockers?: severe orthostatic 36. Antiarrhythmic class IB- effects?: decrease AP duration, hypotension, blurred vision, constipation, sexual affects ischemic or depolarized Purkinje and dysfunction ventricular system23. adverse effects of Guanethidine?: orthostatic and 37. Antiarrhythmic class IB- toxicity?: local anesthetic. CNS exercise hypotension, sexual dysfunction, diarrhea stimulation or depression. CV depression.24. adverse effects of Hydralazine?: nausea, headache, 38. Antiarrhythmic class IC- effects?: NO AP duration effect. lupus-like syndrome, reflex tachycardia, angina, salt useful in V-tach that progresses to V-fib and in retention intractable SVT LAST RESORT25. adverse effects of Hydrochlorothiazide?: hypokalemia, 39. Antiarrhythmic class IC- toxicity?: proarrhythmic slight hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, lassitude, 40. Antiarrhythmic class II- effects?: decrease the slope of hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia phase 4, increase PR interval (the AV node is26. adverse effects of Loop Diuretics?: K+ wasting, particularly sensitive) metabolic alkalosis, hypotension, ototoxicity 41. Antiarrhythmic class II- mechanism?: blocking the beta27. adverse effects of Losartan?: fetal renal toxicity, adrenergic receptor leads to decreased cAMP, and hyperkalemia decreased Ca2+ flux28. adverse effects of Methyldopa?: sedation, positive 42. Antiarrhythmic class II- toxicity?: impotence, Coombs test exacerbation of asthma, CV effects, CNS effects, may29. adverse effects of Minoxidil?: hypertrichosis, pericardial mask hypoclycemia effusion, reflex tachycardia, angina, salt retention 43. Antiarrhythmic Class III- effects?: increase AP duration,30. adverse effects of Nifedipine, verapamil?: dizziness, increase ERP, increase QT interval, for use when other flushing, constipation (verapamil), nausea arrhythmics fail31. adverse effects of Prazosin?: first dose orthostatic 44. Antiarrhythmic class IV- clinical use?: prevention of hypotension, dizziness, headache nodal arrhythmias (SVT)32. adverse effects of Reserpine?: sedation, depression, nasal 45. Antiarrhythmic class IV- effects?: decrease conduction stuffiness, diarrhea velocity, increase ERP, increase PR interval33. Amiodarone- toxicity?: pulmonary fibrosis, corneal 46. Antiarrhythmic class IV- primary site of action?: AV deposits, hepatotoxicity, skin deposits resulting in nodal cells photodermatitis, neurologic effects, consitpation, CV 47. Antiarrhythmic class IV- toxicity?: constipation, (bradycardia, heart block, CHF), and hypo- or flushing, edema, CV effects (CHF, AV block, sinus node hyperthyroidism. depression), and torsade de pointes (Bepridil)34. Antiarrhythmic class IA effects?: increased AP duration, 48. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a history of recurrent increased ERP increased QT interval. Atrial and UTIs: TMP-SMZ ventricular. 49. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Gonorrhea: Ceftriaxone35. Antiarrhythmic class IB- clinical uses?: post MI and digitalis induced arrhythmias 2
  • 3. 50. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Meningococcal infection: 68. Ca2+ sensitizers- site of action?: troponin-tropomyosin Rifampin (DOC), minocycline system51. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for PCP: TMP-SMZ (DOC), 69. Can Heparin be used during pregnancy?: Yes, it does not aerosolized pentamidine cross the placenta.52. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Syphilis: Benzathine 70. Can Warfarin be used during pregnancy?: No, warfarin, penicillin G unlike heparin, can cross the placenta.53. Are Aminoglycosides Teratogenic?: Yes 71. Cautions when using Amiodarone?: check PFTs, LFTs,54. Are Ampicillin and Amoxicillin penicillinase resistant?: and TFTs No 72. classes of antihypertensive drugs?: diuretics,55. Are Carbenicillin, Piperacillin, and Ticarcillin sympathoplegics, vasodilators, ACE inhibitors, penicillinase resistant?: No Angiotensin II receptor inhibitors56. Are Cephalosporins resistant to penicillinase?: No, but 73. Clinical use of Isoniazid (INH)?: Mycobacterium they are less susceptible than the other Beta lactams tuberculosis, the only agent used as solo prophylaxis against TB57. Are Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin penicillinase resistant?: Yes 74. Clonidine is the preferred sym pathomimetic tx of HTN in pts with renal disease, why??: Centrally acting58. As an Anes you want to use a depolarizing alpha agonist, thus causing a decrease in central neuromuscular blocking drug on your pt, what do adrenergic outflow, spairing renal blood flow you use: Succinylcholine 75. Cocaine casues vasoconstriction and local anesthesia by59. Beta Blockers- BP?: decrease what mechanism: Indirect agonist, uptake inhibitor60. Beta Blockers- CNS toxicity?: sedation, sleep alterations 76. Cocaine shares is mechanism of action with what61. Beta Blockers- CV toxicity?: bradycardia, AV block, antidepressant: TCA CHF 77. Common side effects associated with Clindamycin62. Beta Blockers- site of action?: Beta adrenergic receptors include?: Pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile), and Ca2+ channels (stimulatory) fever, diarrhea63. Bretyllium- toxicity?: new arrhythmias, hypotension 78. Common toxicities associated with Fluoroquinolones?:64. Ca2+ channel blockers- clinical use?: hypertension, GI upset, Superinfections, Skin rashes, Headache, angina, arrhythmias Dizziness65. Ca2+ channel blockers- mechanism?: block voltage 79. Common toxicities associated with Griseofulvin?: dependent L-type Ca2+ channels of cardiac and Teratogenic, Carcinogenic, Confusion, Headaches smooth muscle- decreasing contractility 80. decrease Digitoxin dose in renal failure?: NO66. Ca2+ channel blockers- site of action?: Cell membrane 81. decrease Digoxin dose in renal failure?: YES Ca2+ channels of cardiac sarcomere 82. Describe first-order kinetics?: Constant FRACTION67. Ca2+ channel blockers- toxicity?: cardiac depression, eliminated per unit time.(exponential) peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, constipation 3
  • 4. 83. Describe Phase I metabolism in liver(3)?: -reduction, 102. Explain differences between full and partial oxy, & hydrolysis -H2O sol. Polar product -P450 agonists(2).: - Act on same receptor - Full has greater 84. Describe Phase II metabolism in liver(3)?: -acetylation, efficacy glucuron., & sulfation -Conjugation -Polar product 103. Explain pH dependent urinary drug elimination?: 85. Describe the MOA of Interferons (INF): Glycoproteins -Weak Acids>Alkinalize urine(CO3) to remove more from leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA -Weak bases>acidify urine to remove more and DNA synthesis 104. Explain potency in relation to full and partial 86. Digitalis- site of action?: Na/K ATPase agonists(2).: - partial agonist can have increased, decreased, /A21or equal potency as full agonist. - 87. Digoxin v. Digitoxin: bioavailability?: Digitoxin>95% Potency is an independent factor. Digoxin 75% 105. For Heparin what is the Ability to inhibit coagulation in 88. Digoxin v. Digitoxin: excretion?: Digoxin=urinary vitro: Yes Digitoxin=biliary 106. For Heparin what is the Duration of action: Acute 89. Digoxin v. Digitoxin: half life?: Digitoxin 168hrs Digoxin (hours) 40 hrs 107. For Heparin what is the Lab value to monitor: aPTT 90. Digoxin v. Digitoxin: protein binding?: Digitoxin 70% (intrinsic pathway) Digoxin 20-40% 108. For Heparin what is the Mechanism of action: Activates 91. Do Tetracyclines penetrate the CNS?: Only in limited antithrombin III amounts 109. For Heparin what is the Onset of action: Rapid (seconds) 92. Dobutamine used for the tx of shock acts on which receptors: Beta1 more than B2 110. For Heparin what is the Route of administration: Paranteral (IV, SC) 93. Does Ampicillin or Amoxicillin have a greater oral bioavailability?: AmOxicillin has greater Oral 111. For Heparin what is the Site of action: Blood bioavailability 112. For Heparin what is the Structure: Large anionic 94. Does Amprotericin B cross the BBB?: No polymer, acidic 95. Does Foscarnet require activation by a viral kinase?: No 113. For Heparin what is the Treatment for overdose: Protamine sulfate 96. Does Heparin have a long, medium, or short half life?: Short. 114. For Warfarin what is the Ability to inhibit coagulation in vitro: No 97. Does Warfarin have a long, medium, or short half life?: Long. 115. For Warfarin what is the Duration of action: Chronic (weeks or months) 98. Esmolol- short or long acting?: very short acting 116. For Warfarin what is the Lab value to monitor: PT 99. Ethacrynic Acid- clinical use?: Diuresis in pateints with sulfa allergy 117. For Warfarin what is the Mechanism of action: Impairs the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors100. Ethacrynic Acid- mechanism?: not a sulfonamide, but action is the same as furosemide 118. For Warfarin what is the Onset of action: Slow, limited by half lives of clotting factors101. Ethacrynic Acid- toxicity?: NO HYPERURICEMIA, NO SULFA ALLERGY; same as furosemide otherwise 119. For Warfarin what is the Route of administration: Oral 4
  • 5. 120. For Warfarin what is the Site of action: Liver 136. How can the toxic effects of TMP be ameliorated?: With121. For Warfarin what is the Structure: Small lipid-soluble supplemental Folic Acid molecule 137. How can Vancomycin-induced Red Man Syndrome be122. For Warfarin what is the Treatment for overdose: IV prevented?: Pretreat with antihistamines and a slow vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma infusion rate123. Foscarnet toxicity?: Nephrotoxicity 138. How do spare receptors effect the Km?: - ED 50 is less than the Km (less than 50% of receptors)124. Furosemide increases the excretion of what ion?: Ca2+ (Loops Lose calcium) 139. How do Sulfonamides act on bacteria?: As PABA antimetabolites that inhibit Dihydropteroate Synthase,125. Furosemide- class and mechanism?: Sulfonamide Loop Bacteriostatic Diuretic. Inhibits ion co-transport system of thick ascending loop. Abolishes hypertonicity of the medulla, 140. How do the Protease Inhibitors work?: Inhibt Assembly thereby preventing concentration of the urine. of new virus by Blocking Protease Enzyme126. Furosemide- clinical use?: edematous states (CHF, 141. how do we stop angina?: decrease myocardial O2 cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, pulm edema), HTN, consumption by: 1-decreasing end diastolic volume 2- hypercalcemia decreasing BP 3- decreasing HR 4-decreasing contractility 5-decreasing ejection time127. Furosemide- toxicity? (OH DANG): Ototoxicity, Hypokalemia, Dehydration, Allergy (sulfa), Nephritis 142. How do you calculate maintenance dose?: Md= (interstitial), Gout (CpxCL)/F Cp= plas. Conc. CL=clear. F=bioaval.128. Ganciclovir associated toxicities?: Leukopenia, 143. How do you treat coma in the ER (4)?: -Airway Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal toxicity -Breathing -Circulation -Dextrose (thiamine & narcan) -ABCD129. Guanethidine enhances the release of Norepi?: No, it inhibits the release of Nor Epi 144. How does a competitive antagonist effect an agonist?: -Shifts the curve to the right -increases Km130. How are Interferons (INF) used clinically?: Chronic Hepatitis A and B, Kaposis Sarcoma 145. How does a noncompetitive antagonist effect an agonist?: - Shifts the curve down -reduces Vmax131. How are Sulfonamides employed clinically?: Gram +, Gram -, Norcardia, Chlamydia 146. How does angiotensin II affect NE release?: It acts presynaptically to increase NE release.132. How are the HIV drugs used clinically?: Triple Therapy 2 Nucleoside RT Inhibitors with a Protease Inhibitor 147. How does botulinum toxin result in respiratory arrest?: Prevents the release of ACh, which results in muscle133. How are the Latent Hypnozoite (Liver) forms of paralysis. Malaria (P. vivax, P.ovale) treated?: Primaquine 148. How does dantrolene work?: Prevents the release of134. How can Isoniazid (INH)-induced neurotoxicity be calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal prevented?: Pyridoxine (B6) administration muscle.135. How can the t1/2 of INH be altered?: Fast vs. Slow 149. How does Ganciclovirs toxicity relate to that of Acetylators Acyclovir?: Ganciclovir is more toxic to host enzymes 5
  • 6. 150. How does NE modulate its own release? What other 164. How is Trimethoprim used clinically?: Used in neurotransmitter has this same effect?: NE acts combination therapy with SMZ to sequentially block presynaptically on alpha-2 receptors to inhibit its own folate synthesis release. ACh also acts presynaptically through M1 165. How is Vancomycin used clinically?: For serious, Gram receptors to inhibit NE release. + multidrug-resistant organisms151. How does resistance to Vancomycin occur?: With an 166. How would hemicholinium treatment affect cholinergic amino acid change of D-ala D-ala to D-ala D-lac neurons?: Hemicholinium inhibits the transport of152. How is Acyclovir used clinically?: HSV, VZV, EBV, choline into the nerve, thus inhibiting formation of Mucocutaneous and Genital Herpes Lesions, ACh. Prophylaxis in Immunocompromised pts 167. How would you reverse the effect of a neuromuscular153. How is Amantadine used clinically?: Prophylaxis for blocking agent?: Give an antichloinesterase - Influenza A, Rubella; Parkinsons disease neostigmine, edrophonium, etc154. How is Amphotericin B administered for fungal 168. How would you treat African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping meningitis?: Intrathecally sickness)?: Suramin155. How is Amphotericin B used clinically?: Wide spectrum 169. Hydralazine- class and mechanism?: vasodilator- of systemic mycoses: Cryptococcus, Blastomyces, increases cGMP to induce smooth muscle relaxation Coccidioides, Aspergillus, Histoplasma, Candida, (arterioles>veins; afterload reduction) Mucor 170. Hydralazine- clinical use?: severe hypertension, CHF156. How is Chloramphenical used clinically?: Meningitis (H. 171. Hydralazine- toxicity?: compensatory tachycardia, fluid influenza, N. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae), Conserative retention, lupus-like syndrome treatment due to toxicities 172. Hydrochlorothiazide- clinical use?: HTN, CHF, calcium157. How is Foscarnet used clinically?: CMV Retinitis in IC stone formation, nephrogenic DI. pts when Ganciclovir fails 173. Hydrochlorothiazide- mechanism?: Inhibits NaCl158. How is Ganciclovir activated?: Phosphorylation by a reabsorption in the early distal tubule. Decreases Ca2+ Viral Kinase excretion.159. How is Ganciclovir used clinically?: CMV, esp in 174. Hydrochlorothiazide- toxicity? (hyperGLUC, plus Immunocompromised patients others): Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis,160. How is Griseofulvin used clinically?: Oral treatment of hyponatremia, hyperGlycemia, hyperLipidemia, superficial infections hyperUricemia, hyperCalcemia, sulfa allergy.161. How is Leishmaniasis treated?: Pentavalent Antimony 175. Ibutilide- toxicity?: torsade de pointes162. How is Ribavirin used clinically?: for RSV163. How is Rifampin used clinically?: 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2. Delays resistance to Dapsone when used of Leprosy 3. Used in combination with other drugs 6
  • 7. 176. If a patient is given hexamethonium, what would 192. List some specifics of lead poisoning(4)?: -A57Blue lines happen to his/her heart rate?: It would increase to ~ in gingiva & long bones -Encephalopathy & Foot drop 100 beats/min. Both sympathetic and vagal stimulation -Abdominal colic / -Sideroblastic anemia would be knocked out, but the SA node has an intrinsic 193. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of 5 FU.: pace of 100 beats/min, which is normally checked by -S-phase anti-metabolite Pyr analogue -Colon, solid vagal stimulation. tumors, & BCC/ -Irreversible myelosuppression177. In coma situations you rule out what (7)?: -Infections 194. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of 6 MP.: -Trauma -Seizures -CO -Overdose -Metabolic -Alcohol -inhibits HGPRT (pur. Syn.) - Luk, Lymph, (ITS COMA) 195. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of178. In what population does Gray Baby Syndrome occur? Bleomycin.: -DNA intercalator -testicular & Why?: Premature infants, because they lack lymphomas -Pulmonary fibrosis mild myelosuppression. UDP-glucuronyl transferase 196. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of Busulfan.:179. Is Aztreonam cross-allergenic with penicillins?: No -Alkalates DNA -CML -Pulmonary fibrosis180. Is Aztreonam resistant to penicillinase?: Yes hyperpigmentation181. Is Aztreonam usually toxic?: No 197. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of Cisplatin.:182. Is Imipenem resistant to penicillinase?: Yes -Alkalating agent -testicular,bladder,ovary,& lung -Nephrotoxicity & CN VIII damage.183. Is Penicillin penicillinase resistant?: No - duh 198. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of184. Is toxicity rare or common whith Cromolyn used in Cyclophosphamide.: -Alkalating agent -NHL, Breast, Asthma prevention?: Rare. ovary, & lung. - Myelosuppression, & hemorrhagic185. Isopoterenol was given to a patient with a developing cystitis. AV block, why?: Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors 199. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of186. IV Penicillin: G Doxorubicin.: -DNA intercalator -Hodgkins, myeloma,187. K+ sparing diuretics- clinical use?: hyperaldosteronism, sarcoma, and solid tumors -Cardiotoxicity & alopecia K+ depletion, CHF 200. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of188. K+ sparing diuretics- site of action?: cortical collecting Etoposide.: -Topo II inhibitor(GII specific) -Oat cell of tubule Lung & prostate, & testicular -Myelosuppression & GI189. K+ sparing diuretics- toxicity?: hyperkalemia, endocrine irritation. effects (gynecomastia, anti-androgen) 201. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of190. K+- clinical use?: depresses ectopic pacemakers, Methotrexate.: -S-phase anti-metabolite folate especially in digoxin toxicity analogue -Luk, Lymp, sarc, RA, & psoriasis / -Reversible myelosuppression191. List five common glucocorticoids.: 1. Hydrocortisone 2. Predisone 3. Triamcinolone 4. Dexamethasone 5. 202. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of Beclomethasone Nitrosureas.: -Alkalate DNA -Brain tumors -CNS toxicity 7
  • 8. 203. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of 217. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Digitalis: Paclitaxel.: -MT polymerization stabilizer -Ovarian & -Normalize K+, Lidocaine, & Anti-dig Mab breast CA -Myelosupperession & hypersensitivity. 218. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Heparin:204. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of -Protamine Prednisone.: -Triggers apoptosis -CLL, Hodgkins in 219. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Iron: MOPP -Cushing-like syndrome -Deferoxamine205. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of 220. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Lead: -EDTA, Tamoxifen.: -Estrogen receptor antagonist -Breast CA dimercaprol, succimer, & penicillamine -increased endometrial CA risk 221. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Methanol &206. List the mechanism, clinical use, & toxicity of Ethylene glycol: -Ethanol, dialysis, & fomepizole Vincristine.: -MT polymerization inhibitor(M phase) 222. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Methemoglobin: -MOPP, lymphoma, Willms & choriocarcinoma -Methylene blue -neurotoxicity and myelosuppression 223. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Opioids:207. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Acetaminophen: -B51Naloxone / naltrexone (Narcan) -N-acetylcystine 224. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Salicylates:208. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Amphetamine: -Alkalinize urine & dialysis -Ammonium Chloride 225. List the specific antidote for this toxin: TPA &209. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Streptokinase: -Aminocaproic acid Anticholinesterases (organophosphate.): -Atropine & pralidoxime 226. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Tricyclic antidepressants: -NaHCO3210. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Antimuscarinic (anticholinergic): -Physostigmine salicylate 227. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Warfarin: -Vitamin K & fresh frozen plasma211. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Arsenic (all heavy metals): -Dimercaprol, succimer 228. loop diuretics (furosemide)- site of action?: thick ascending limb212. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Benzodiazepines: -Flumazenil 229. Mannitol- clinical use?: ARF, shock, drug overdose, decrease intracranial/intraocular pressure213. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Beta Blockers: -Glucagon 230. Mannitol- contraindications?: anuria, CHF214. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Carbon 231. Mannitol- mechanism?: osmotic diuretic- increase monoxide: -100% oxygen, hyperbaric tubular fluid osmolarity, thereby increasing urine flow215. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Copper: 232. mannitol- site of action?: proximal convoluted tubule, thin -Penicillamine descending limb, and collecting duct216. List the specific antidote for this toxin: Cyanide: 233. Mannitol- toxicity?: pulmonary edema, dehydration -Nitrate, hydroxocobalamin thiosulfate 234. Mg+- clinical use?: effective in torsade de pointes and digoxin toxicity 8
  • 9. 235. Mnemonic for Foscarnet?: Foscarnet = pyroFosphate 251. name four Antiarrhythmic drugs in class III.: Sotalol, analog Ibutilide, Bretylium, Amiodarone236. MOA for Penicillin (3 answers)?: 1)Binds 252. name four HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.: Lovastatin, penicillin-binding proteins 2) Blocks transpeptidase Pravastatin, Simvastatin, Atorvastatin cross- linking of cell wall 3) Activates autolytic enzymes 253. Name several common Macrolides (3): Erythromycin,237. MOA of Succinylcholine: Prevents the release of Ca from Azithromycin, Clarithromycin SR of skeletal muscle 254. Name some common Sulfonamides (4): Sulfamethoxazole238. MOA: Bactericidal antibiotics: Penicillin, (SMZ), Sulfisoxazole, Triple sulfas, Sulfadiazine Cephalosporins, Vancomycin, Aminoglycosides, 255. Name some common Tetracyclines (4): Tetracycline, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole Doxycycline, Demeclocycline, Minocycline239. MOA: Block cell wall synthesis by inhib. Peptidoglycan 256. Name the common Aminoglycosides (5): Gentamicin, cross-linking (7): Penicillin, Ampicillin, Ticarcillin, Neomycin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin Pipercillin, Imipenem, Aztreonam, Cephalosporins 257. Name the common Azoles: Fluconazole, Ketoconazole,240. MOA: Block DNA topoisomerases: Quinolones Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Itraconazole241. MOA: Block mRNA synthesis: Rifampin 258. Name the common Fluoroquinolones (6): Ciprofloxacin,242. MOA: Block nucleotide synthesis: Sulfonamides, Norfloxacin, Ofloxacin, Grepafloxacin, Enoxacin, Trimethoprim Nalidixic acid243. MOA: Block peptidoglycan synthesis: Bacitracin, 259. Name the common Non-Nucleoside Reverse Vancomycin Transcriptase Inhibitors: Nevirapine, Delavirdine244. MOA: Block protein synthesis at 30s subunit: 260. Name the common Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines Inhibitors: Zidovudine (AZT), Didanosine (ddI),245. MOA: Block protein synthesis at 50s subunit: Zalcitabine (ddC), Stavudine (d4T), Lamivudine (3TC) Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin/macrolides, 261. Name the Protease Inhibitors (4): Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Lincomycin, Clindamycin, Streptogramins Indinavir, Nelfinavir (quinupristin, dalfopristin) 262. Name the steps in drug approval(4)?: -Phase I (clinical246. MOA: Disrupt bacterial/fungal cell membranes: tests) -Phase II -Phase III -PhaseIV (surveillance) Polymyxins 263. name three ACE inhibitors?: Captopril, Enalapril,247. MOA: Disrupt fungal cell membranes: Amphotericin B, Lisinopril Nystatin, Fluconazole/azoles 264. name three Antiarrhythmic drugs in class IB.:248. Name common Polymyxins: Polymyxin B, Polymyxin E Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide249. name five Antiarrhythmic drugs in class II?: propanolol, 265. name three Antiarrhythmic drugs in class IC.: esmolol, metoprolol, atenolol, timolol Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone250. name four Antiarrhythmic drugs in class IA.: Quinidine, Amiodarone, Procainamide, Disopyramide 9
  • 10. 266. name three Antiarrhythmic drugs in class IV.: 282. Resistance mechanisms for Cephalosporins/Penicillins: Verapamil, Diltiazem, Bepridil Beta-lactamase cleavage of Beta-lactam ring267. name three calcium channel blockers?: Nifedipine, 283. Resistance mechanisms for Chloramphenicol: Verapamil, Diltiazem Modification via Acetylation268. name three K+ sparing diuretics?: Spironolactone, 284. Resistance mechanisms for Macrolides: Methylation of Triamterene, Amiloride (the K+ STAys) rRNA near Erythromycins ribosome binding site269. name two bile acid resins.: cholestyramine, colestipol 285. Resistance mechanisms for Sulfonamides: Altered270. Name two classes of drugs for HIV therapy: Protease bacterial Dihydropteroate Synthetase, Decreased Inhibitors and Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors uptake, or Increased PABA synthesis271. name two LPL stimulators.: Gemfibrozil, Clofibrate 286. Resistance mechanisms for Tetracycline: Decreased uptake or Increased transport out of cell272. Name two organisms Vancomycin is commonly used for?: Staphlococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile 287. Resistance mechanisms for Vancomycin: Terminal D-ala (pseudomembranous colitis) of cell wall replaced with D-lac; Decreased affinity273. Nifedipine has similar action to?: Nitrates 288. Ryanodine- site of action?: blocks SR Ca2+ channels274. Norepi feedbacks and inhibits the presynaptic receptor 289. Secretion of what drug is inhibited by Probenacid used by what mechanism: Binding to the presynaptic alpha to treat chronic gout?: Penicillin. 2 release modulating receptors 290. Side effects of Isoniazid (INH)?: Hemolysis (if G6PD275. Oral Penicillin: V deficient), Neurotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity, SLE-like syndrome276. preferential action of the Ca2+ channel blockers at cardiac muscle?: cardiac muscle: 291. Sotalol- toxicity?: torsade de pointes, excessive Beta block Verapamil>Diltiazem>Nifedipine 292. Specifically, how does Foscarnet inhibit viral DNA pol?:277. preferential action of the Ca2+ channel blockers at Binds to the Pyrophosphate Binding Site of the enzyme vascular smooth muscle?: vascular sm. Mus.: 293. Spironolactone- mechanism?: competitive inhibirot of Nifedipine>Diltiazem>Verapamil aldosterone in the cortical collecting tubule278. Procainamide- toxicity?: reversible SLE-like syndrome 294. Steady state concentration is reached in __ number of279. Quinidine- toxicity?: cinchonism: HA, tinnitus, half-lifes: In 4 half-lifes= (94%) T1/2 = (0.7x Vd)/CL thrombocytopenia, torsade de pointes due to increased 295. The COX-2 inhibitors (celecoxib, rofecoxib) have QT interval similar side effects to the NSAIDs with what one280. Reserpine will block the syntheis of this drug and but exception?: The COX-2 inhibitors should not have the not its precursor.: Blocks Norepi, but not Dopamine corrosive effects of other NSAIDs on the gastrointestinal lining.281. Resistance mechanisms for Aminoglycosides: Modification via Acetylation, Adenylation, or Phosphorylation 10
  • 11. 296. The MOA for Chloramphenicol is?: Inhibition of 50S 312. What are are the Sulfonylureas (general description) peptidyl transferase, Bacteriostatic and what is their use?: Sulfonylureas are oral297. These drugs acts indirectly by releasing strored hypoglycemic agents, they are used to stimulate release catecholamines in the presynaptic terminal: of endogenous insulin in NIDDM (type-2). Amphetamine and Ephedrine 313. What are common serious side effects of298. thiazides- site of action?: distal convoluted tubule (early) Aminoglycosides and what are these associated with?: Nephrotoxicity (esp. with Cephalosporins),299. Toxic effects of TMP include?: Megaloblastic anemia, Ototoxicity (esp. with Loop Diuretics) Leukopenia, Granulocytopenia 314. What are common side effects of Amphotericin B?:300. Toxic side effects of the Azoles?: Hormone synthesis Fever/Chills, Hypotension, Nephrotoxicity, Arrhythmias inhibition (Gynecomastia), Liver dysfunction (Inhibits CYP450), Fever, Chills 315. What are common side effects of Protease Inhibitors?: GI intolerance (nausea, diarrhea), Hyperglycemia,301. Toxicities associated with Acyclovir?: Delirium, Tremor, Lipid abnormalities, Thrombocytopenia (Indinavir) Nephrotoxicity 316. What are common side effects of RT Inhibitors?: BM302. Triamterene and amiloride- mechanism?: block Na+ suppression (neutropenia, anemia), Peripheral channels in the cortical collecting tubule neuropathy303. Verapamil has similar action to?: Beta Blockers 317. What are common toxic side effects of Sulfonamides?304. What additional side effects exist for Ampicillin?: Rash, (5): -Hypersensitivity reactions -Hemolysis Pseudomembranous colitis -Nephrotoxicity (tubulointerstitial nephritis)305. What anticholinesterase crosses the -Kernicterus in infants Displace other drugs from blood-brain-barrier?: physostigmine albumin (e.g., warfarin)306. What antimicrobial class is Aztreonam syngergestic 318. What are common toxicities associated with with?: Aminoglycosides Macrolides? (4): GI discomfort, Acute cholestatic307. What antimuscarinic agent is used in asthma and hepatitis, Eosinophilia, Skin rashes COPD?: Ipratropium 319. What are common toxicities associated with308. What antimuscarinic drug is useful for the tx of asthma: Tetracyclines?: GI distress, Tooth discoloration and Ipratropium Inhibition of bone growth in children, Fanconis syndrome, Photosensitivity309. What are Amantadine-associated side effects?: Ataxia, Dizziness, Slurred speech 320. What are common toxicities related to Vancomycin therapy?: Well tolerated in general but occasionally,310. What are Aminoglycosides synergistic with?: Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Thrombophlebitis, diffuse Beta-lactam antibiotics flushing=Red Man Syndrome311. What are Aminoglycosides used for clinically?: Severe Gram - rod infections. 11
  • 12. 321. What are five advantages of Oral Contraceptives 331. What are four Sulfonylureas?: 1. Tolbutamide 2. (synthetic progestins, estrogen)?: 1. Reliable (<1% Chlorpropamide 3. Glyburide 4. Glipizide failure) 2. Lowers risk of endometrial and ovarian 332. What are four thrombolytics?: 1. Streptokinase 2. cancer 3. Decreased incidence of ectopic pregnancy 4. Urokinase 3. tPA (alteplase), APSAC (anistreplase) Lower risk of pelvic infections 5. Regulation of menses 333. What are four unwanted effects of Clomiphene use?: 1.322. What are five disadvantages of Oral Contraceptives Hot flashes 2. Ovarian enlargement 3. Multiple (synthetic progestins, estrogen)?: 1. Taken daily 2. No simultaneous pregnancies 4. Visual disturbances protection against STDs 3. Raises triglycerides 4. 334. What are major side effects of Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Depression, weight gain, nausea, HTN 5. Dicloxacillin?: Hypersensitivity reactions Hypercoagulable state 335. What are Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin used323. What are five possible toxic effects of Aspirin therapy?: for clinically?: Staphlococcus aureus 1. Gastric ulceration 2. Bleeding 3. Hyperventilation 4. Reyes syndrome 5. Tinnitus (CN VIII) 336. What are nine findings of Iatrogenic Cushings324. What are five toxicities associated with Tacrolimus syndrome caused by glucocorticoid therapy?: 1. Buffalo hump 2. Moon facies 3. Truncal obesity 4. (FK506)?: 1. Significant: nephrotoxicity 2. Peripheral Muscle wasting 5. Thin skin 6. Easy bruisability 7. neuropathy 3. Hypertension 4. Pleural effusion 5. Osteoporosis 8. Adrenocortical atrophy 9. Peptic ulcers Hyperglycemia. 337. What are Polymyxins used for?: Resistant Gram -325. What are Fluoroquinolones indicated for? (3): 1.Gram - infections rods of the Urinary and GI tracts (including Pseudomonas) 2.Neisseria 3. Some Gram + organisms 338. What are signs of Sildenafil (Viagra) toxicity?: Headache, flushing , dyspepsia, blue-green color326. What are four advantages of newer vision. low-molecular-weight heparins (Enoxaparin)?: 1. Better bioavailability 2. 2 to 4 times longer half life 3. 339. What are the Anti-TB drugs?: Rifampin, Ethambutol, Can be administered subcutaneously 4. Does not Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide, Isoniazid (INH) require laboratory monitoring 340. What are the classic symptoms of cholinesterase327. What are four clinical activities of Aspirin?: 1. inhibitor poisoning (parathion or other Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti-inflammatory 4. organophosphates)?: Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Antiplatelet drug. Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Excitation of skeletal328. What are four clinical uses of glucocorticoids?: 1. muscle and CNS, Lacrimation, Sweating, and Addisons disease 2. Inflammation 3. Immune Salivation = DUMBBELS; also abdominal cramping suppression 4. Asthma 341. What are the clinical indications for Azole therapy?:329. What are four conditions in which H2 Blockers are used Systemic mycoses clinically?: 1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis 3. Esophageal reflux 4. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome330. What are four H2 Blockers?: 1. Cimetadine 2. Ranitidine 3. Famotidine 4. Nizatidine 12
  • 13. 342. What are the clinical indications for bethanechol?: 352. What are the Macrolides used for clinically?: -Upper Activates cholinergic receptors on bladder and bowel respiratory tract infections -pneumonias -STDs: Gram+ smooth muscle, alleviating post-op and neurogenic cocci (streptococcal infect in pts allergic to penicillin) ileus and urinary retention. -Mycoplasma, Legionella,Chlamydia, Neisseria343. What are the clinical indications for neostigmine?: 353. What are the major structural differences between Post-op and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, Penicillin and Cephalosporin?: Cephalosporin: 1) has myasthenia gravis, and reversal of neuromuscular a 6 member ring attached to the Beta lactam instead of junction blockade (post-op) through anticholinesterase a 5 member ring 2)has an extra functional group ( activity. attached to the 6 member ring)344. What are the clinical uses for 1st Generation 354. What are the major toxic side effects of Cephalosporins?: Gram + cocci, Proteus mirabilis, E. Imipenem/cilastatin?: GI distress, Skin rash, and coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae (PEcK) Seizures at high plasma levels345. What are the clinical uses for 2nd Generation 355. What are the major toxic side effects of the Cephalosporins?: Gram + cocci, Haemophilus Cephalosporins?: 1) Hypersensitivity reactions 2) influenza, Enterobacter aerogenes, Neisseria species, Increased nephrotoxicity of Aminoglycosides 3) P. mirabilis, E. coli, K. pneumoniae, Serratia Disulfiram-like reaction with ethanol (those with a marcescens ( HEN PEcKS ) methylthiotetrazole group, e.g., cefamandole)346. What are the clinical uses for 3rd Generation 356. What are the nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking Cephalosporins?: 1) Serious Gram - infections drugs?: Tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, resistant to other Beta lactams 2) Meningitis (most pancuronium, vecuronium, rapacuronium penetrate the BBB) 357. What are the phases of succinylcholine neuromuscular347. What are the clinical uses for Aztreonam?: Gram - rods: blockade?: Phase 1 = prolonged depolarization, no Klebsiella species, Pseudomonas species, Serratia antidote, effect potentiated by anticholinesterase; Phase species 2 = repolarized but blocked, an anticholinesterase is348. What are the clinical uses for Imipenem/cilastatin?: the antidote for this phase. Gram + cocci, Gram - rods, and Anerobes 358. What are the products and their toxicities of the349. What are the clinical uses for Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel?: metabolism of ethanol by / alcohol dehydrogenase?: Acute coronary syndrome; coronary stenting. -Acetaldehyde -Nausea, vomiting, headache, & Decreases the incidence or recurrence of thrombotic hypotension stroke. 359. What are the products and their toxicities of the350. What are the four conditions in which Omeprazole, metabolism of Ethylene Glycol by / alcohol Lansoprazole is used?: 1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis 3. dehydrogenase?: -Oxalic acid -Acidosis & Esophageal reflux 4. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome nephrotoxicity351. What are the indications for using amphetamine?: 360. What are the products and their toxicities of the narcolepsy, obesity, and attention deficit disorder (I metabolism of Methanol by / alcohol wouldnt recommend this) dehydrogenase?: -Formaldehyde & formic acid -severe acidosis & retinal damage 13
  • 14. 361. What are the side effects of Polymyxins?: Neurotoxicity, 374. What are toxicities associated with Chloramphenicol?: Acute renal tubular necrosis Aplastic anemia (dose independent), Gray Baby362. What are the side effects of Rifampin?: Minor Syndrome hepatotoxicity, Drug interactions (activates P450) 375. What are two Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?: 1.363. What are three clinical uses of the Leuprolide?: 1. Acarbose 2. Miglitol Infertility (pulsatile) 2. Prostate cancer (continuous: 376. What are two clinical uses of Azathioprine?: 1. Kidney use with flutamide) 3. Uterine fibroids transplantation 2. Autoimmune disorders (including364. What are three clinical uses of the NSAIDs?: 1. glomerulonephritis and hemolytic anemia) Antipyretic 2. Analgesic 3. Anti-inflammatory 377. What are two conditions in which COX-2 inhibitors365. What are three common NSAIDS other than Aspirin?: might be used?: Rheumatoid and osteoarthritis. Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Indomethacin 378. What are two Glitazones?: 1. Pioglitazone 2.366. What are three complications of Warfarin usage?: 1. Rosiglitazone. Bleeding 2. Teratogenicity 3. Drug-drug interactions 379. What are two indirect acting adrenergic agonists?:367. What are three possible complications of Heparin amphetamine and ephedrine therapy?: 1. Bleeding 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. 380. What are two mechanisms of action of Drug-drug interactions Propythiouracil?: Inhibits organification and coupling368. What are three possible toxicities of NSAID usage?: 1. of thyroid hormone synthesis. Also decreases peripheral Renal damage 2. Aplastic anemia 3. GI distress conversion of T4 to T3.369. What are three toxicities of Leuprolied?: 1. 381. What are two processes Corticosteroids inhibit leading Antiandrogen 2. Nausea 3. Vomiting to decreased inflammation?: 1. Phospholipase A2 is prevented from releasing arachidonic acid 2. Decreases370. What are three toxicities of Propylthiouracil?: 1. Skin protein synthesis thus lowering amount of rash 2. Agranulocytosis (rare) 3. Aplastic anemia Cyclooxygenase enzymes371. What are three types of antacids and the problems that 382. What are two toxicities associated with Cyclosporine?: can result from their overuse?: 1. Aluminum 1. Predisposes to viral infections and lymphoma 2. hydroxide: constipation and hypophosphatemia 2. Nephrotoxic (preventable with mannitol diuresis) Magnesium hydroxide: diarrhea 3. Calcium carbonate: Hypercalcemia, rebound acid increase - All may cause 383. What are two toxicities of the Glitazones?: 1. Weight hypokalemia gain 2. Hepatotoxicity (troglitazone)372. What are three unwanted effects of Mifepristone?: 1. 384. What are two toxicities of the Sulfonylureas?: 1. Heavy bleeding 2. GI effects (n/v, anorexia) 3. Hypoglycemia (more common with 2nd-generation Abdominal pain drugs: glyburide, glipizide) 2. Disulfiram-like effects (not seen with 2nd-generation drugs).373. What are toxic side effects for Metronidazole?: Disulfiram-like reaction with EtOH, Headache 14
  • 15. 385. What are two types of drugs that interfere with the 397. What drug is used during the pregnancy of an HIV+ action of Sucralfate and why?: Sucralfate cannot work mother?, Why?: AZT, to reduce risk of Fetal in the presence of antacids or H2 blockers because it Transmission requires an acidic environment to polymerize. 398. What drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?:386. What beta 2 agonist will help your 21yo Astma pt?: edrophonium (extremely short acting Albuterol, tertbutaline anticholinesterase)387. What can result due to antacid overuse?: Can affect 399. What drug is used to treat Trematode/fluke (e.g., absorption, bioavailability, or urinary excretion of Schistosomes, Paragonimus, Clonorchis) or other drugs by altering gastric and urinary pH or by Cysticercosis: Praziquantel delaying gastric emptying. 400. What drugs target anticholinesterase: Neostigmine,388. What cholinergic inhibitor acts by directly inhibiting pyridostigmine edrophonium, physostigmine Ach release at the presynaptic terminal: Botulinum echothiophate389. What cholinomimetic is useful in the diagnosis of 401. What effect would atropine have on a patient with Myasthenia Gravis: Edrophonium peptic ulcer disease?: Theoretically it could be used to390. What cholinomimetics might your pt be taking for his block the cephalic phase of acid secretion (vagal glaucoma: Carbachol, pilocarpine, physostigmine, stimulation). echothiophate 402. What effect would atropine have on the preganglionic391. What class of drug is echothiophate? What is its sympathetic activation of sweat glands? Would this indication?: anticholinesterase glaucoma person sweat?: None. No, because atropine would block the postganglionic muscarinic receptors involved392. What conditions are treated with Metronidazole?: in sweat gland stimulation. Giardiasis, Amoebic dysentery (E. histolytica), Bacterial vaginitis (Gardnerella vaginalis), 403. What enzyme does Zileuton inhibit?: Lipoxygenase Trichomonas 404. What enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of ACh393. What conditions would you use dantrolene?: In in the synaptic cleft?: Acetylcholinesterase; ACh is treatment of malignant hyperthermia, due to broken down into choline and acetate. concomitant use of halothane and succinylcholine. Also 405. What enzyme is responsible for the degredation of Ach: in neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a toxicity of Acetylcholine esterase antipsychotic drugs. 406. What enzyme is responsible for the production of Ach394. What do Aminoglycosides require for uptake?: Oxygen from Acetyl CoA and Choline: Choline395. What do you treat Nematode/roundworm (pinworm, acetyltransferase whipworm) infections with?: 407. What enzymes are inhibited by NSAIDs, acetaminophen Mebendazole/Thiabendazole, Pyrantel Pamoate and COX II inhibitors?: Cyclooxygenases (COX I,396. What drug is given for Pneumocystis carinii COX II). prophylaxis?: Pentamidine 408. What is a common drug interaction associated with Griseofulvin?: Increases coumadin metabolism 15
  • 16. 409. What is a common side effect of Colchicine used to treat 422. What is are two clinical uses of Cyclosporine?: 1. acute gout, especially when given orally?: GI side Suppresses organ rejection after transplantation 2. effects. (Note: Indomethacin is less toxic, more Selected autoimmune disorders. commonly used.) 423. What is Clindamycin used for clinically?: Anaerobic410. What is a common side effect of Misoprostol?: Diarrhea infections (e.g., B. fragilis, C. perfringens)411. What is a mnemonic to remember Amantadines 424. What is clinical use for Carbenicillin, Piperacillin, and function?: Blocks Influenza A and RubellA; causes Ticarcillin?: Pseudomonas species and Gram - rods problems with the cerebellA 425. What is combination TMP-SMZ used to treat?:412. What is a possible result of overdose of Recurrent UTIs, Shigella, Salmonella, Pneumocystis Acetaminophen?: Overdose produces hepatic necrosis; carinii pneumonia acetaminophen metablolite depletes glutathione and 426. What is combined with Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, forms toxic tissue adducts in liver. Carbenicillin, Piperacillin, and Ticarcillin to enhance413. What is a possible toxicity of Alpha-glucosidase their spectrum?: Clavulanic acid inhibitors used in type-2 diabetes?: GI disturbances. 427. What is Fluconazole specifically used for?: Cryptococcal414. What is a possible toxicity of Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel meningitis in AIDS patients and Candidal infections of usage?: Neutropenia (ticlopidine); reserved for those all types who cannot tolerate aspirin. 428. What is Imipenem always administered with?: Cilastatin415. What is a prerequisite for Acyclovir activation?: It must 429. What is Ketoconazole specifically used for?: be Phosphorylated by Viral Thymidine Kinase Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, C. albicans;416. What is a Ribavirin toxicity?: Hemolytic anemia Hypercortisolism417. What is a sign of toxicity with the use of thrombolytics?: 430. What is Metronidazole combined with for triple Bleeding. therapy? Against what organism?: Bismuth and418. What is action of insulin in the liver, in muscle, and in Amoxicillin or Tetracycline; against Helobacter pylori adipose tissue?: 1. In liver, increases storage of 431. What is Metronidazole used for clinically?: glucose as glycogen. 2. In muscle, stimulates glycogen Antiprotozoal: Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, and protein synthesis, and K+ uptake. 3. In adipose Gardnerella vaginalis Anaerobes: Bacteroides, tissue, facilitates triglyceride storage. Clostridium419. What is an acronym to remember Anti-TB drugs?: 432. What is Niclosamide used for?: Cestode/tapeworm (e.g., RESPIre D. latum, Taenia species Except Cysticercosis420. What is an additional side effect of Methicillin?: 433. What is Nifurtimox administered for?: Chagas disease, Interstitial nephritis American Trypanosomiasis (Trypanosoma cruzi)421. What is an occasional side effect of Aztreonam?: GI 434. What is the category and mechanism of action of upset Zafirlukast in Asthma treatment?: Antileukotriene; blocks leukotriene receptors. 16
  • 17. 435. What is the category and mechanism of action of 450. What is the category of drug names ending in -pril (e.g. Zileuton in Asthma treatment?: Antileukotriene; Captopril): ACE inhibitor. blocks synthesis by lipoxygenase. 451. What is the category of drug names ending in -terol (e.g.436. What is the category of drug names ending in -ane (e.g. Albuterol): Beta-2 agonist. Halothane): Inhalational general anesthetic. 452. What is the category of drug names ending in -tidine437. What is the category of drug names ending in -azepam (e.g. Cimetidine): H2 antagonist (e.g. Diazepam): Benzodiazepine. 453. What is the category of drug names ending in -triptyline438. What is the category of drug names ending in -azine (e.g. Amitriptyline): Tricyclic antidepressant. (e.g. Chlorpromazine): Phenothiazine (neuroleptic, 454. What is the category of drug names ending in -tropin antiemetic). (e.g. Somatotropin): Pituitary hormone.439. What is the category of drug names ending in -azol (e.g. 455. What is the category of drug names ending in -zosin Ketoconazole): Antifungal. (e.g. Prazosin): Alpha-1 antagonist440. What is the category of drug names ending in -barbital 456. What is the category, desired effect, and adverse effect (e.g. Phenobarbital): Babiturate. of Isoproterenol in the treatment of Asthma?:441. What is the category of drug names ending in -caine Nonspecific beta-agonist; desired effect is the (e.g. Lidocaine): Local anesthetic. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle (Beta 2).442. What is the category of drug names ending in -cillin (e.g. Adverse effect is tachycardia (Beta 1). Methicillin): Penicillin. 457. What is the category, desired effect, and period of use of443. What is the category of drug names ending in -cycline albuterol in the treatment of Asthma?: Beta 2 (e.g. Tetracycline): Antibiotic, protein synthesis agonist; desired effect is the relaxation of bronchial inhibitor. smooth muscle (Beta 2). Use during acute exacerbation.444. What is the category of drug names ending in -ipramine 458. What is the category, desired effect, and possible (e.g. Imipramine): Tricyclic antidepressant. mechanism of Theophylline in treating Asthma?: Methylzanthine; desired effect is bronchodilation, may445. What is the category of drug names ending in -navir cause bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, (e.g. Saquinavir): Protease inhibitor. enzyme involved in degrading cAMP (controversial).446. What is the category of drug names ending in -olol (e.g. 459. What is the category, mechanism of action, and effect of Propranolol): Beta antagonist. Ipratroprium in Asthma treatment?: Muscarinic447. What is the category of drug names ending in -operidol antagonist; competatively blocks muscarinic receptors, (e.g. Haloperidol): Butyrophenone (neuroleptic). preventing bronchoconstriction.448. What is the category of drug names ending in -oxin (e.g. Digoxin): Cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent).449. What is the category of drug names ending in -phylline (e.g. Theophylline): Methylxanthine. 17
  • 18. 460. What is the category, mechanism of action, and 474. What is the clinical utility of clonidine?: Treatment of particular use of beclomethasone and prednisone in hypertension, especially with renal disease (lowers bp Asthma treatment?: Corticosteroids; prevent centrally, so flow is maintained to kidney). production of leukotrienes from arachodonic acid by 475. What is the clinical utility of cocaine?: The only local blocking phospholipase A2. Drugs of choice in a anesthetic with vasoconstrictive properties. patient with status asthmaticus (in combination with 476. What is the definition of zero-order kinetics? Example?: albuterol.) -Constant AMOUNT eliminated per unit time. -Etoh &461. What is the category, method of use, and adverse effects ASA of Salmeterol in Asthma treatment?: Beta 2 agonist; 477. What is the difference between the affinity for beta used as a long-acting agent for prophylaxis. Adverse receptors between albuterol/terbutaline and effects are tremor and arrhythmia. dantroline?: Dobutamine has more of an affintiy for462. What is the chemical name for Ganciclovir?: DHPG beta-1 than beta-2, and is used for treating heart (dihydroxy-2-propoxymethyl guanine) failure and shock. Albuterol and terbutaline is the463. What is the clincial use for Misoprostol?: Prevention of reverse, and is used in treatment of acute asthma. NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintains a PDA. 478. What is the difference in receptor affinity of epinephrine464. What is the clinical use for Ampicillin and Amoxicillin?: at low doses? High doses?: Prefers betas at low doses, Extended spectrum penicillin: certain Gram + bacteria but at higher doses alpha agonist effects are and Gram - rods predominantly seen.465. What is the clinical use for Clomiphene?: Treatment of 479. What is the effect of epinephrine infusion on bp and infertility. pulse pressure?: Increased systolic and pulse pressure,466. What is the clinical use for Heparin?: Immediate decreased diastolic pressure, and little change in mean anticoagulation for PE, stroke, angina, MI, DVT. pressure.467. What is the clinical use for Nystatin?: Topical and Oral, 480. What is the effect of guanethidine on adrenergic NE for Oral Candidiasis (Thrush) release?: It inhibits release of NE.468. What is the clinical use for Penicillin?: Bactericidal for: 481. What is the effect of norepinephrine on bp and pulse Gram + rod and cocci, Gram - cocci, and Spirochetes pressure?: Increases mean, systolic, and diastolic bp, while there is little change in pulse pressure.469. What is the clinical use for Sildenafil (Viagra)?: Erectile dysfunction. 482. What is the effect of TCAs on the adrenergic nerve?: They inhibit reuptake of NE at the nerve terminal (as470. What is the clinical use for Sucralfate?: Peptic ulcer does cocaine). disease. 483. What is the effect of the Glitazones in diabetes471. What is the clinical use for Warfarin?: Chronic treatment?: Increase target cell response to insulin. anticoagulation.472. What is the clinical use of Mifepristone (RU486)?: Abortifacient.473. What is the clinical use of Tacrolimus (FK506)?: Potent immunosuppressive used in organ transplant recipients. 18
  • 19. 484. What is the enzyme inhibited, the effect of this 496. What is the mecanism of action, effective period, and inhibition, and the clinical use of the antiandrogren ineffective period of use for Cromolyn in treating Finasteride?: Finasteride inhibits 5 Alpha-reductase, Asthma?: Prevents release of mediators from mast this decreases the conversion of testosterone to cells. Effective only for the prophylaxis of asthma. Not dihydrotestosterone, useful in BPH effective during an acute attack.485. What is the formula for Clearance (CL): CL= (rate of 497. What is the mechanism of action and clinical use of the elimination of drug/ Plasma drug conc.) antiandrogen Flutamide?: Flutamide is a nonsteroidal486. What is the formula for Volume of distribution (Vd): competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone Vd= (Amt. of drug in body/ Plasma drug conc.) receptor, used in prostate carcinoma.487. What is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness 498. What is the mechanism of action and clinical use of the of Heparin therapy?: The PTT. antiandrogens Ketoconazole and Spironolactone?: Inhibit steroid synthesis, used in the treatment of488. What is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness polycystic ovarian syndrome to prevent hirsutism. of Warfarin therapy?: The PT. 499. What is the mechanism of action of Acetaminophen?:489. What is the loading dose formula?: Ld= (CpxVd)/F Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS. Cp=plasma conc. F= Bioaval. Inactivated peripherally.490. What is the main clinical use for the thrombolytics?: 500. What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol used to Early myocardial infarction. treat chronic gout?: Inhibits xanthine oxidase,491. What is the major side effect for Ampicillin and decresing conversion of xanthine to uric acid. Amoxicillin?: Hypersensitivity reactions 501. What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin?: Acetylates492. What is the major side effect for Carbenicillin, and irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX I and Piperacillin, and Ticarcillin?: Hypersensitivity COX II) to prevent the conversion of arachidonic acid reactions to prostaglandins.493. What is the major toxic side effect of Penicillin?: 502. What is the mechanism of action of Clomiphene?: Hypersensitivity reactions Clomiphene is a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in494. What is the mecanism of action of Sucralfate?: the pituitary gland. Prevents normal feedback Aluminum sucrose sulfate polymerizes in the acid inhibition and increses release of LH and FSHfrom the environment of the stomach and selectively binds pituitary, which stimulates ovulation. necrotic peptic ulcer tissue. Acts as a barrier to acid, 503. What is the mechanism of action of Colchicine used to pepsin, and bile. treat acute gout?: Depolymerizes microtubules,495. What is the mecanism of action of the COX-2 inhibitors impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation. (celecoxib, rofecoxib)?: Selectively inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) isoform 2, which is found in inflammatory cells nad mediates inflammation and pain; spares COX-1 which helps maintain the gastric mucosa. 19
  • 20. 504. What is the mechanism of action of Cyclosporine?: 514. What is the mechanism of action of the H2 Blockers?: Binds to cyclophilins (peptidyl proline cis-trans Reversible block of histamine H2 receptors isomerase), blocking the differentiation and activation 515. What is the mechanism of action of the Sulfonylureas?: of T cells mainly by inhibiting the production of IL-2 Close K+ channels in Beta-cell membrane leading to and its receptor. cell depolarization causing insulin release triggered by505. What is the mechanism of action of Heparin?: Heparin increase in Calcium ion influx. catalyzes the activation of antithrombin III. 516. What is the mechanism of action of the thrombolytics?:506. What is the mechanism of action of Mifepristone Directly of indirectly aid conversion of plasminogen to (RU486)?: Competitive inibitor of progestins at plasmin which cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots. (It is progesterone receptors. claimed that tPA specifically converts fibrin-bound507. What is the mechanism of action of Misoprostol?: plasminogen to plasmin.) Misoprostol is a PGE1 analog that increases the 517. What is the mechanism of action of Ticlopidine, production and secretion of the gastic mucous barrier. Clopidogrel: Inhibits platelet aggregation by508. What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs other than irreversibly inhibiting the ADP pathway involved in the Aspirin?: Reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX I binding of fibrinogen. and COX II). Block prostaglandin synthesis. 518. What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin509. What is the mechanism of action of Omeprazole, (Coumadin)?: Warfarin interferes with the normal Lansoprazole?: Irreversibly inhibits H+/K+ ATPase in synthesis and gamma-carboxylation of vitamin stomach parietal cells. K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, Protein C and S via vitamin K antagonism.510. What is the mechanism of action of Probenacid used to treat chronic gout?: Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid. 519. What is the mechanism of Azathioprine?: Antimetabolite derivative of 6-mercaptopurine that interferes with the511. What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil (Viagra)?: metablolism and synthesis of nucleic acid. Inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase, casuing increased cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus 520. What is the mechanism of Leuprolide?: GnRH analog cavernosum, increased blood flow, and penile erection. with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion and antagonist properties when used in continuous512. What is the mechanism of action of the fashion, causing a transient initial burst of LH and FSH Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?: Inhibit intestinal bursh border Alpha-glucosidases; delayed hydrolysis of 521. What is the mechanism of Tacrolimus (FK506)?: Similar sugars and absorption of sugars leading to decresed to cyclosporine; binds to FK-binding protein, inhibiting postprandial hyperglycemia. secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines.513. What is the mechanism of action of the glucocorticoids?: 522. What is the memory aid for subunit distribution of Decrease the production of leukotrienes and ribosomal inhibitors?: Buy AT 30, CELL at 50 protaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2. 20
  • 21. 523. What is the memory key for Isoniazid (INH) toxicity?: 537. What is the MOA for Metronidazole?: Forms toxic INH: Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes metabolites in the bacterial cell, Bactericidal524. What is the memory key for Metronidazoles clinical 538. What is the MOA for Nystatin?: Binds ergosterol, uses?: GET on the Metro Disrupts fungal membranes525. What is the memory key for organisms treated with 539. What is the MOA for Rifampin?: Inhibits DNA Tetracyclines?: VACUUM your Bed Room dependent RNA polymerase526. What is the memory key for the action of Sildenafil 540. What is the MOA for the Aminoglycosides?: Inhibits (Viagra)?: Sildenafil fills the penis formation of Initiation Complex, causes misreading of527. What is the memory key for the effect of aluminum mRNA, Bactericidal hydroxide overuse?: AluMINIMUM amount of feces. 541. What is the MOA for the Azoles?: Inhibit Ergosterol528. What is the memory key for the effect of magnesium synthesis hydroxide overuse?: Mg = Must go to the bathroom. 542. What is the MOA for the Cephalosporins?: Beta lactams529. What is the memory key involving the 4 Rs of - inhibit cell wall synthesis, Bactericidal Rifampin?: 1. RNA pol inhibitor 2. Revs up P450 3. 543. What is the MOA for the Fluoroquinolones?: Inhibit Red/orange body fluids 4. Rapid resistance if used DNA Gyrase (topoisomerase II), Bactericidal alone 544. What is the MOA for the Macrolides?: Blocks530. What is the memory key to remember which pathway translocation, binds to the 23S rRNA of the 50S (extrinsic vs. intrinsic) and which lab value Warfarin subunit, Bacteriostatic affects?: WEPT: Warfarin affects the Extrinsic pathway 545. What is the MOA for the Tetracyclines?: Binds 30S and prolongs the PT. subunit and prevents attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA,531. What is the MOA for Acyclovir?: Inhibit viral DNA Bacteriostatic polymerase 546. What is the MOA for Trimethoprim (TMP)?: Inhibits532. What is the MOA for Amphotericin B?: Binds bacterial Dihydrofolate Reductase, Bacteriostatic Ergosterol, forms Membrane Pores that Disrupt 547. What is the MOA for Vancomycin?: Inhibits cell wall Homeostatis mucopeptide formation, Bactericidal533. What is the MOA for Ampicillin and Amoxicillin?: 548. What is the MOA of Amantadine?: Blocks viral Same as penicillin. Extended spectrum antibiotics penetration/uncoating; may act to buffer the pH of the534. What is the MOA for Carbenicillin, Piperacillin, and endosome Ticarcillin?: Same as penicillin. Extended spectrum 549. What is the MOA of Aztreonam?: Inhibits cell wall antibiotics synthesis ( binds to PBP3). A monobactam535. What is the MOA for Clindamycin?: Blocks Peptide 550. What is the MOA of Foscarnet?: Inhibits Viral DNA Bond formation at the 50S subunit, Bacteriostatic polymerase536. What is the MOA for Methicillin, Nafcillin, and 551. What is the MOA of Ganciclovir?: Inhibits CMV DNA Dicloxacillin?: Same as penicillin. Act as narrow polymerase spectrum antibiotics 552. What is the MOA of Griseofulvin?: Interferes with microtubule function, disrupts mitosis, inhibits growth 21
  • 22. 553. What is the MOA of Imipenem?: Acts as a wide spectrum 566. What microorganisms are clinical indications for carbapenem Tetracycline therapy?: Vibrio cholerae Acne554. What is the MOA of Isoniazid (INH)?: Decreases Chlamydia Ureaplasma Urealyticum Mycoplasma synthesis of Mycolic Acid pneumoniae Borrelia burgdorferi (Lymes) Rickettsia Tularemia555. What is the MOA of Polymyxins?: Bind cell membrane, disrupt osmotic properties, Are Cationc, Basic and act 567. What microorganisms is Aztreonam not effective as detergents against?: Gram + and Anerobes556. What is the MOA of Ribavirin?: Inhibits IMP 568. What musculo-skeletal side effects in Adults are Dehydrogenase (competitively), and therefore blocks associated with Floroquinolones?: Tendonitis and Guanine Nucleotide synthesis Tendon rupture557. What is the MOA of the RT Inhibitors?: Inhibit RT of 569. What neurotransmitter does Amantadine affect? How HIV and prevent the incorporation of viral genome into does it influence this NT?: Dopamine; causes its the host DNA release from intact nerve terminals558. What is the most common cause of Pt noncompliance 570. What organism is Imipenem/cilastatin the Drug of with Macrolides?: GI discomfort Choice for?: Enterobacter559. What is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocking 571. What organisms does Griseofulvin target?: agent?: Succinylcholine Dermatophytes (tinea, ringworm)560. What is the possible mechanism and effect of Metformin 572. What parasites are treated with Pyrantel Pamoate in treating diabetes?: Mechanism unknown; possibly (more specific)?: Giant Roundworm (Ascaris), inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases glycolysis; Hookworm (Necator/Ancylostoma), Pinworm effect is to decrease serum glucose levels (Enterobius)561. What is the receptor affinity and clinical use of 573. What parasitic condition is treated with Ivermectin?: isoproterenol?: It affects beta receptors equally and is Onchocerciasis (river blindness--rIVER-mectin) used in AV heart block (rare). 574. What patients are at risk for life threatening562. What is the specific clinical use of Indomethacin in hypotension when taking Sildenafil (Viagra)?: Those neonates?: Indomethacin is used to close a patent patients who are taking nitrates. ductus arteriosus. 575. What physiological effects was the Anes using Atropine563. What is treated with Chloroquine, Quinine, to tx: SLUD (salivation, Lacrimation, urination, Mefloquine?: Malaria (P. falciparum) Defecation)as well as airway secretion, GI motility, acid secretions564. What is used to reverse the action of Heparin?: Protamine Sulfate is used for rapid reversal of 576. What populations are Floroquinolones contraindicated heparinization (positively charged molecule that binds in? Why?: Pregnant women, Children; because animal to negatively charged heparin). studies show Damage to Cartilage565. What microorganisms are Aminoglycosides ineffective 577. What process does Zafirlukast interfere with?: against?: Anaerobes Leukotrienes increasing bronchial tone. 22
  • 23. 578. What reversal agent could a Anes give to reverse the 590. When is HIV therapy initiated?: When pts have Low effects of Atropine: Bethanechol, Neostigmine, CD4+ (< 500 cells/cubic mm) or a High Viral Load physostigmine 591. When is Rifampin not used in combination with other579. What should not be taken with Tetracyclines? / Why?: drugs?: 1. Meningococcal carrier state 2. Milk or Antacids, because divalent cations inhibit Chemoprophylaxis in contacts of children with H. Tetracycline absorption in the gut influenzae type B580. What side effect of using atropine to induce pupillary 592. Where does Griseofulvin deposit?: Keratin containing dilation would you expect?: Atropine would also block tissues, e.g., nails the receptors in the ciliary muscle, causing an 593. Which Aminoglycoside is used for Bowel Surgery ?: impairment in accommodation (cycloplegia). Neomycin581. What Sulfonamides are used for simple UTIs?: Triple 594. Which antimicrobial classes inhibit protein synthesis at sulfas or SMZ the 30S subunit? (2): 1) Aminoglycosides =582. What sympathomimetic would you not prescribe for bactericidal 2) Tetracyclines = bacteriostatic hypotension in a pt with renal artery sclerosis.: 595. Which antimicrobials inhibit protein synthesis at the Norepinephrine (Alpha1,2 and beta 1) 50S subunit? (4): 1) Chloramphenical = bacteriostatic583. what two vasodilators require simultaneous treatment 2) Erythromycin = bacteriostatic 3) Lincomycin = with beta blockers to prevent reflex tachycardia and bacteriostatic 4)cLindamycin = bacteriostatic diuretics to prevent salt retention?: Hydralazine and 596. Which antimuscarinic agents are used in producing Minoxidil mydriasis and cycloplegia?: atropine, homatropine,584. What type of gout is treated with Allopurinol?: Chronic tropicamide gout. 597. Which cancer drugs effect nuclear DNA (4)?:585. What type of gout is treated with Colchicine?: Acute -Alkalating agents+cisplatin gout. -Doxorubicin+Dactinomycin -Bleomycin -Etoposide586. What type of gout is treated with Probenacid?: Chronic 598. Which cancer drugs inhibit nucleotide synthesis(3)?: - gout. Methotrexate - 5 FU - 6 mercaptopurine587. What type of neurological blockade would 599. Which cancer drugs work at the level of mRNA(2)?: hexamethonium create?: Hexamethonium is a -Steroids -Tamoxifen nicotinic antagonist, and thus is a ganglionic blocker. 600. Which cancer drugs work at the level of proteins(2)?:588. What type of patient should not take Misoprostol and -Vinca alkaloids(inhibit MT) -Paclitaxel why?: Misoprostol is contraindicated in women of 601. which diuretics cause acidosis?: carbonic anhydrase childbearing potential because it is an abortifacient. inhibitors, K+ sparing diuretics589. What would be the effect on blood pressure with 602. which diuretics cause alkalosis?: loop diuretics, thiazides infusion of the alpha -2 agonist clonidine?: Initially 603. which diuretics decrease urine Ca2+?: thiazides, vasoconstriction would increase bp, but then it acts on amiloride central alpha-2 receptors to decrease adrenergic outflow resulting in decreased bp. 23
  • 24. 604. which diuretics increase urine Ca2+?: loop diuretics, 620. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Extrapyramidal side spironolactone effects (3)?: -Chlorpromazine -thioridazine605. which diuretics increase urine K+?: all except the K+ -haloperidol sparing diuretics Spironolactone, Triamterene, 621. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Fanconis Amiloride syndrome?: -Tetracycline606. which diuretics increase urine NaCl?: all of them 622. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Focal to massive607. Which drug increases Sys BP w/o affecting Pulse hepatic necrosis (4)?: -Halothane -Valproic acid Pressure: Epinephrine -acetaminophen -Amantia phalloides608. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Adrenocortical 623. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: G6PD hemolysis(8)?: Insufficiency: -Glucocorticoid withdrawal -Sulfonamides -INH -ASA -Ibuprofen -primaquine -nitrofurantoin /-pyrimethamine -chloramphenicol609. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Agranulocytosis (3)?: -Cloazapine -carbamazapine -colchicine -PTU 624. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Gingival hyperplasia?: -Phenytoin610. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Anaphylaxis?: -Penicillin 625. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Gray baby syndrome?: -Chloramphenicol611. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Aplastic anemia (5)?: -Chloramphenicol -benzene -NSAIDS -PTU -phenytoin 626. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Gynecomastia (6)?: -Cimetidine -ketoconazole -spironolactone -digitalis612. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Atropine-like side -EtOH -estrogens effects?: -Tricyclic antidepressants 627. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Hepatitis?: -Isoniazid613. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Cardiac toxicity?: -Daunorubicin & Doxorubicin 628. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Hot flashes?: -Tamoxifen614. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Cinchonism (2)?: -Quinidine -quinine 629. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Neuro and Nephrotoxic?: -polymyxins615. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Cough?: -ACE inhibitors (Losartan>no cough) 630. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Osteoporosis (2)?: -Corticosteroids -heparin616. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Cutaneous flushing (4)?: -Niacin -Ca++ channel blockers -adenosine 631. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Oto and -vancomycin Nephrotoxicity (3)?: -aminoglycosides -loop diuretics -cisplatin617. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Diabetes insipidus?: -Lithium 632. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: P450 induction(6)?: -Barbiturates -phenytoin -carbamazipine -rifampin618. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Disulfram-like -griseofulvin -quinidine reaction (4) ?: -Metronidazole -certain cephalosporins -procarbazine -sulfonylureas 633. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: P450 inhibition(6)?: -Cimetidine -ketoconazole -grapefruit juice619. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Drug induced -erythromycin -INH -sulfonamides Parkinsons (4) ?: -Haloperidol -chlorpromazine -reserpine -MPTP 24
  • 25. 634. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Photosensitivity(3)?: 647. Which of the following would atropine administration -Tetracycline -amiodarone -sulfonamides cause? Hypothermia, bradycardia, excess salivation,635. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Pseudomembranous dry flushed skin, or diarrhea: Dry flushed skin, due to colitis?: -Clindamycin inhibition of sympathetic post-ganglionic blockade on muscarinic receptors of sweat glands. All others are636. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Pulmonary opposite of what would be expected. fibrosis(3)?: -Bleomycin -amiodarone -busulfan 648. Which of these three drugs will cause a reflex637. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: SLE-like syndrome?: bradycardia in your pt (Norepi, Epi, or -Hydralazine -Procainamide -INH -phenytoin Isoporterenol): Norepinephrine638. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Stevens-Johnson syn. 649. Which receptors does phenylephrine act upon?: alpha-1 (3)?: -Ethosuxamide -sulfonamides -lamotrigine > alpha-2; used as a pupil dilator, vasoconstrictor, and639. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Tardive dyskinesia?: for nasal decongestion -Antipsychotics 650. Which RT inhibitor causes Megaloblastic Anemia?: AZT640. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Tendonitis and 651. Which RT inhibitors cause a Rash?: Non-Nucleosides rupture?: -Fluoroquinolones 652. Which RT inhibitors cause Lactic Acidosis?:641. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Thrombotic Nucleosides complications?: -Oral Contraceptives 653. Which Tetracycline is used in patients with renal642. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Torsade de pointes failure? / Why?: Doxycycline, because it is fecally (2)?: -Class III antiarrhythmics (sotalol) -class IA eliminated (quinidine) 654. While at a tail gait party, you bite into a sandwich that a643. Which drug(s) cause this reaction: Tubulointerstitial yellow jacket is also enjoying. Knowing your allergy Nephritis (5)?: -Sulfonamides -furosemide -methicillin to this creature, what should you do?: Epinephrine to -rifampin -NSAIDS (ex. ASA) treat anaphylaxis. Also useful if you have open angle644. Which H2 Blocker has the most toxic effects and what glaucoma, asthma, or hypotension. are they?: Cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of P450; it 655. Why are albuterol and terbutaline effective in tx of also has an antiandrogenic effect and decreases renal acute asthmatic attacks?: These B-2 agonists cause excretion of creatinine. Other H2 blockers are relatively respiratory smooth muscle to relax. free of these effects. 656. Why are Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin645. Which individuals are predisposed to penicillinase resistant?: Due to the presence of a Sulfonamide-induced hemolysis?: G6PD deficient bulkier R group individuals 657. Why are the Sulfonylureas inactive in IDDM (type-1)?:646. Which of epi, norepi, or isoproterenol results in Because they require some residual islet function. bradycardia?: Norepinephrine 25
  • 26. 658. Why does atropine dilate the pupil?: Blocking 667. Why would you give a drug like pancuronium or muscarinic receptors in the circular fibers of the eye, succinylcholine?: Useful in muscle paralysis during results in unopposed action of radial muscles to dilate. surgery or mechanical ventilation.659. Why does NE result in bradycardia?: NE increases bp, 668. Why would you use pralidoxime after exposure to an which stimulates baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and organophosphate?: Pralidoxime regenerates active the aorta. The CNS signals through vagal stimulation to cholinesterase. decrease heart rate. 669. Will Hemicholinum affect the release of stored Ach660. Why is carbachol and pilocarpine useful in treatment of during Cholinergic Stimulation: No, hemicholinum glaucoma?: They activate the ciliary muscle of the eye block the uptake of Choline and thus Ach synthesis (open angle) and pupillary sphincter (narrow angle). 670. Would blockade of muscarininc receptors in the bladder661. Why is Cilastatin administered with Imipenem?: To be useful in treating urinary retention?: No. Atropine inhibit renal Dihydropeptidase I and decrease is used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis. So it would Imipenem inactivation in the renal tubules aggravate the urinary retention.662. Why is pyridostigmine effective in the treatment of 671. Your patient wants an effective drug to treat his motion myasthenia gravis?: As an anticholinesterase it sickness, what would you prescribe: Scopolamine increases endogenous ACh and thus increases strength.663. Why is reserpine effective in treating HTN?: Reserpine inhibits dopamine transport into vesicles, attenuating its conversion to NE by dopamine beta-hydroxylase.664. Why is there a drop in systolic, mean, and diastolic bp with infusion of isoproterenol?: Stimulating beta receptors stimulates heart rate, but beta receptor induced vasodilation reduces peripheral resistance.665. Why would a patient with cog-wheel rigidity and a shuffling gait be given benztropine?: Parkinson patients benefit from antimuscarinic agents through its inhibitory action within the indirect pathway.666. Why would dopamine be useful in treating shock?: Receptors = D1=D2>beta>alpha, thus increasing heart rate (beta) and blood pressure (alpha vasoconstriction) while maintaining kidney perfusion (dopamine receptors) 26