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  • 1. A CMM 1 B CMM 2 C CMM 0 D All of Above A Equvivance partitioning B Fault injection C Code Coverage D None of above A LOC B Test Metric C Product Metric D Process Metric A Perfomance Testing B White Box Testing C Black Box Testing D Alpha Testing A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are 1 Phase defination is covered in 2 Which is a black box testing method? 5 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Documentation Fault 3 A Metrics used to measure the charestric of documentation and code is called 4 A Non Functional Testing is called SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 is not D All of them are valid reasons for failure A Component testing should be performed by development B Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing C Component testing should have completion criteria planned D Component testing does not involve regression testing A Management report B Interim Test report C Project status report D Final test report A Is unlikely to be completed on scheduleB Is likely to be fault-free C Is unlikely to cause a failure D Is likely to be liked by the users A At most 0.81 B Equal to 0.9 C Greater than 0.9 D At least 1/0.81 6 Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? 9 In unit testing of a module, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. The reliability of module is ? 7 Function/Test matrix is a type of 8 A reliable system will be one that: SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET
  • 2. A 50% B 60% C 30% D 70% A A white box testing technique appropriate for component testin B A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing C A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing D A black box testing technique used only by developers A Proxy B Driver C Stub D None of the above Equivalence partitioning is: A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail 40% times. The program P can fail ? To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data. 10 11 12 A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of 13 SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET A 4000 B 5000 C 4333 D 4667 A 234.25 B 933.45 C 142.50. D 230.25 A Capture test cases B Capture requirements 15 Use Case is used for 14 A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its newest inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The company needs to determine the effort in person-months needed to develop which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of lines of code (LOC) developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC developed with L1. the product will have to be maintained for five years. Various parameters for the company are given in the table below. Parameter Language L1 Language L2 Man years needed for development LOC / 10000 LOC / 10000 Development Cost per year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000 Maintenance time 5 years 5 years Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000 Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is the LOC for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of the project using L2? SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET
  • 3. C Capture design specification D all of the above. A Static testing B State Transition Testing C Dynamic Testing D none of the above. A ability of system to run without failure B ability of system to support users C The poit at which system break down D all of the above. A Testing tool B Test Methedology C Test Metric D all of the above. A estimating testing effort B perfoming LCSAJ testing C Defect calculation D None of above Code review is for16 17 Stress testing measures 19 Metric based technique is for 18 QTP is SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET C Defect calculation D None of above A No B Yes C May be yes D None of the above. A Unit Testing B Integration Testing C System Testing D None of the above. A By repetating test case, remove errorsB correct errors C update errors D None of the above. A Prototype Method B Agile Method C Waterfall Method D all of the above. A SpiralModel B Waterfall model C V- Model D all of the above. 20 Is it possible to have a software product with "Zero defect"? 23 Face to face Communication is in 22 Pesting Paradox in testing testcase is 21 A Testing which detect the defects in fully functional software is 25 Test Planning includes 24 W - model is updation of SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET
  • 4. A Test Strategies B Test methods C Test Bed Creation D all of the above. A QTP B Silktest C Selenium D all of the above. A Load Runner B BugZilla C Qtp D all of the above. A alpha testing B Hardening testing C System Testing D all of the above. A Integration testing B Alpha Testing C stress testing D Unit testing 26 Example of Testing Tool 29 Data independence means 28 To Detect cracks and Holes in the networks by 27 Non functional testing tool SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET C stress testing D Unit testing A Common Testing System B Commercial off the shelf C Code and Test system D None of above A Autocad B Flash C Mcafee D all of the above. A Understanding of testing tools B understanding of functional domain C Expertise team lcontromonitoring an D all of the above. A Reliablility B Reusablility C Portability D all of the above. A Black Box Testing B White Box Testing 32 Required Skill of Test Manager 31 COTS example is 30 COTS is 34 Which testing devides input domain into class for testcase? 33 COTS is for SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET
  • 5. C Equvivance Testing D Boundry Value Analysis A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Recorder B Author C Moderator D Reviewer A Analysis phase B Design Phase C Code Phase D Testing Phase 35 Types of review 38 SRS is an artifact of 37 The person who records the procedding of review meeting is 36 Group Activity can be seen in 39 Nonfunctional requirement is SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET A Reliability B usability C maintainability D All of above A Varification B Testing C Validation D all of the above. A Less iteration B Error detection at later stage C Not applied to real time system D All of above A Waterfall model B Spiral Model C Prototype Model D all of the above. A User Get Idea about system B Low cost C Fast Development D All of above 41 Disadvtage of prototype model is 40 Evaluting Software during various phases of SDLC is called 39 Nonfunctional requirement is 44 Important aspect of coding is 43 advtage of prototype model is 42 Risk Analysis phase is in SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET
  • 6. A productivity B efficiency C reliability D all of the above. A Architectural design B data design C Interface design D All of above A IBM B Microsoft C Motorola D Intel A Abstraction B Information Hiding C refinement D 90-120 days A n B n*(n-1)/2 C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 47 Which of the following is in design stage… 46 RAD model was proposed by 45 Data structure of application is in 48 If n number of programmers are in team , then number of paths is SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 A 10% B 20% C 5% D 0 A Data Element B Behaviour element C Class based element D Scenario based element A cardinality B modality C directionality D Both (A) and (B) A Flow base element B Class base element C Scenario base element D Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dic A Well defined process B Data element Hiarchy C Specification design D Obeservable mode of behaviou 50 Which of these is not element in object oriented analysis model 49 if 99% code is written in C and 1% code is written in assembly lenguage then increse in execution time compare to 1% code written in assembly language is 53 Behaviour modeling is for 52 UML diagram is useful in representing 51 Relationship shown in data model is for SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET
  • 7. A transorm data element B Show relationship between data C Reaction to external event D all of the above. A 45% B 100% C 90% D 50% A 30% B 70% C 10% D 20% A Method B Tools C Manufacturing D Process 56 A program P has p1 and p2 sub programs. Probability of p1 fails is 50% and p2 fails is 40%. What about the probability os P fails 55 In unit testing of a module, the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.5. The reliability of module is ? 54 State diagram is for 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 57 Which of this is not software engineering layers SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET A analysis , Design, Code, maintenance,test B communication,planning,modellin g,construction,deployment C communication,risk management, design,code,test D Analysis,planning,design,code,test A iterative in nature B not produce throw away C accommodate changes easily D all of above A complex project B small project C develop core module D all of above A Test bed B Traceablity Matrix C Test Metric D All of above A Retesting B Regresssion testing C Adhoc Testing D perfomance testing 59 Evolutionary model is 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 62 Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as 61 The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases 60 Incremental model approach in software development is useful in SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET
  • 8. A Sometimes B Many Times C Always D None A Testing and validation B Reverse engineering C Identification of faults D Development A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Input B Output 65 The first item defined for a new system is its 64 Top down approach is used for 63 Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution 67 The first item defined for a new system is its 66 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A TRUE B FALSE C D A Are delivered on time and under budget B Have complete documentation C Are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer D Have measurable specification for process outputs A Analysis, design, testing B Definition, development, support C What, how, where D Programming, debugging, maintenance A Dependence matrix B SRS C Cause-effect graph D Chart 68 To test competing product in to the market comparision testing is done 71 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a 70 What are the three generic phases of software engineering? 69 A key concept of quality control is that all work products SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET
  • 9. A Scope, constraints, market B Business and marketing concerns C Technology, finance, time, resources D Technical prowess of the developers A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Level 1 B Level 2 C Level 3 D Level 4 74 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is 73 The first item defined for a new system is its 72 Software feasibility is based on which of the following . 76 75 The process is at least documented in CMM SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET A P and R B Q and R C P and S D Q and S A the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index B the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index. C it is on a set of fields that form a candidate key D it is on a set of fields that include the primary key 77 An index is clustered, if 76 Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query? P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause 78 Function point metric of a software also depends on the SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET
  • 10. A Number of function needed B Number of final users of the software C Number of external inputs and outputs D all of above A Stamp coupling B Content coupling C Control coupling D Data coupling A Software functions B Process activities C Information domain values D Project schedule A Inheritance B abstraction 80 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on 79 The worst type of coupling is 81 Cohesion is closely bound to SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET C coupling D None of above A Control coupling B Content coupling C message coupling D None of above A Cyclomatic complexity B Function count C LOC D Program length A Software design B Testing C Software requirement specification D Both (A) and (B A ISO 9000 B ISO 9003 C ISO9002 D ISO 9001 A Customer Myths B Management Myths 83 Which is not a size metric? 82 Which coupling is high ? 86 Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on 85 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is 84 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET
  • 11. C Practitioner Myths D all of above A RAD B Prototype C SpiralModel D None of above A content coupling B stamp coupling C messsage coupling D control coupling A Spiral Model B Prototype Model C Water Fall Model D all of above A step-wise refinement B modularity C flow charting D loop invariants 89 For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and user-friendliness are extremely important), one will use 88 Data structure coupling is also know as 87 What is an incremental software process model that emphasize an extremely short development cycle? 90 Top-down design does not require SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET C flow charting D loop invariants A Cyclomatic number B Hamiltonian circuit C Eulerian cycle D None of the above A Stress testing B Unit testing C Beta testing D Mutation testing A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Error correction B Establishing scope C Adaptation D Enhancement A Adaptive maintenance B Perfective maintenance C Corrective maintenance D None of above 92 One of the fault base testing techniques is 91 Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing? 95 Emergency fixes known as patches are result of 94 Which one of these are not software maintenance activity 93 Reliability of software is directly dependent on SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET
  • 12. A Adaptive maintenance B Corrective maintenance C Perfective maintenance D Preventative maintenance A Size measurement B Design recovery C Cost measurement D All of the above A Analysis Modelling B Requirement Gathering C Formulation D User Interface Prototyping A Highly Coheshive B Comprehenshive C Loosly coupled D All of above 98 Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks? 97 Reverse engineering is the process which deals with 96 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called 99 As use-cases are organised to functional packages.Each functional Package must be SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET C Loosly coupled D All of above A Content B maintainability C links D Nevigation A Forms B cookies C browser D links A Reusable B Organized C Repeatable D Ad hoc A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Yes B No C Can't Say D May be yes 101 Which of the following is not the WebApp Interface Mechanism? 100 Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp 104 Graph based testing is only applied to object oriented system? 103 Reliability of software is directly dependent on 102 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET
  • 13. A OO software B Application Software C System Software D None of above A SRS B input C output D Software Metric A Analysis Effort method B Function Point Analysis C COCOMO D All of Above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 30 FP D None of above Methods for estimation in software engineering include: if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the project effort is 106 ____ a measure of some property of a piece of software or its specifications 108 107 105 Use case provide useful input for design of black-box test for SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET C 30 FP D None of above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 40 person-month D None of above A version control B naming convention (programming) C software archival agreements D all of above A the project's progress B Project's scheudle C Project's planning D None of above A ISO 9000 B ISO 9001 110 Software Configuration Management include 109 if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the software size is 112 Risk management is associated with 111 The purpose of project monitoring and control is to keep the team and management up to date on SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET
  • 14. C ISO 31000 D None of above A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B Risk event x Probability of Occurrence C Constant (3.0) D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D Risk retention 113 Composite Risk Index value = 116 115 Self Insurance falls under 114 sprinklers are designed to put out a fire to reduce the risk of loss by fire is called SUJJECT CODE: 14/19 PGCET A we can always design test data to execute the controlled statement B the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is undecidable C the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is intractable D none of the above A an infinite number of test cases B 2^ 48 test cases C 2^164 test cases D None of above A error in code as negative values remain negative B The code finds absolute value of y C error in code as positive values remain negative D None of above 116 In an if statement 117 Jacob has written a program to complete the roots of the quadratic equation ax2+bx+c=0. Assuming a 16 bit computer to exhaustively test his program for all integer values for a, b and c he requires 118 Consider the code below begin If (y<=0) then y = 0-y; abs = y End; 119 Ashok rewrites part of the code in some production code making it more efficient. This maintenance activity is called SUJJECT CODE: 14/19 PGCET
  • 15. A perfective B adaptive C corrective D none of above A perfective B adaptive C corrective D none of above A Testing can show the presence of bug but never absence B Testing can always find the bug C If we test enough we can find all bugs D None of above A By Analyst B By programmer 120 An error is detected in some production code. The maintenance effort to fix the error is called 121 Choose the correct statement 122 Testing is best done SUJJECT CODE: 15/19 PGCET C By Software Engineer D By independent test team A The tests he generates may give nonrepeatable results B The tests will always given repeatable results C He will find the bug for all runs of the program D None of the above. 124 Ramesh wants to test the folowing program by generating random test values for x and y. The error in the program is z = 22 should be there read (x); read ( y); If (x== y) then z = 2; else z = 0; end If; 123 Clinton wants to test his module where he had forgotten to initialize x If x = 0 then Write ("abnormal") Else Write ("normal"); End if; SUJJECT CODE: 15/19 PGCET
  • 16. A Random testing is insufficient as the bug may never detected B Random testing will always find the bug C Random testing always generates equal value of x and y D None of above A Ramesh's testing is much better B Suresh's testing may be better than Ramesh C 200 test cases would have been enough D None of the above A His method of edge coverage is not enough B His testing is exhaustive as he will find all the bugs C His test data has to be carefuly designed and will work for all flow graphs D None of above 125 Suresh and Ramesh design test cases for a fragment of code. Suresh runs 100 test cases but Ramesh runs 200 test cases 126 Mohit writes test data which will exercise each edge of the flow graph for his program 127 Consider the above modules Ca and Cb where a and b are the sizes. Then SUJJECT CODE: 16/19 PGCET A E (a + b) > Ea + Eb B E (a + b) < Ea +Eb C E (a + b) > =Ea + Eb D None of the above A 01:10 B 01:02 C 01:05 D 01:20 A 01:03:05 B `1:10:100 C 01:03:10 D 01:02:05 A Ea < Eb B Ea > Eb 128 Variation in debugging : coding ability has been reported to be 129 Form the detailed design speciication. If the coding is done in C++ : C : assembler the resulting code sizes will be on the average. 130 Consider two modules A and B, both utility programs in the same organization developed by the same team of programmers, where a and b are the sizes, respetively. The cost to develop each module is Ca and Cb. The efforts are Ea and Eb. if Ca > Cb then SUJJECT CODE: 16/19 PGCET
  • 17. C Ea = Eb D both (A) and (C) A Data abstraction B modularity C concurrency D data hiding A content,common,control,stamp B common,content,control,stamp C stamp,control,content,common D None of above A feasibility B Testing C Design D Maintenance 132 The rating of coupling of modules for strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) are 131 Informational cohesion is a realization of 133 The largest %cost of software life cycle is in SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET C Design D Maintenance A Process B Method C Architectue D None of above A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program 135 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of 134 Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering? 137 Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ? 136 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET
  • 18. A Software does not wear out B Software is flexible C Software is not manufactured D Software is always correct A B Productivity C Reliability D Size A Functionality B Productivity C quality D Efficiency A Rupee B Person C Person - Months D Month 138 Which of the following is not a product matrix ? 141 Match the following 140 Efforts is measured in terms of ? 139 Which of the following is not a process metric ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B A 10 programmers B 8 programmers C 13 programmers D 100/13 programmers A 10 B 13 C 5 D 8 144 If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 143 If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 142 To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET
  • 19. A 9 B 8 C D 0.9 A Robustness B Recovery from error C Security D None of above A 100 B 48 C 40 D 36 A uncover problem araes before they " go critical " B track potential risks C assess the status of an ongoing project D All of above 147 Project indicator enables a software project manager to ? 146 Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ? 145 Stress testing measures 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET A Partition teting B Random testing C Fault based testing D All of above A Technical B Management C Both A and B D None of above A Provide batch totals B Provide for a check digit C Provide hash totals D all of above 150 To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ? 149 In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ? 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET
  • 20. 1 What is the grammar for generating strings like a=b=c? A right→leƩer=right|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z B right→leƩer=leƩer letter→a|b|..|z C right→leƩer=leƩer|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z D right→right=leƩer|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z 2 Out of the following grammars, which one is right associative grammar? A string→string+string|0|1|2|3 B stmt→if (expr) stmt else stmt C right→leƩer=right|leƩer letter→a|b|..|z D list→list+digit|digit digit→0|1|2|3 A synthesized B inherited C syntax D parsed A scanning B parsing C stack D analysis A left-to-right B top-down C right-to-left D Bottom-up A Linear,Hierarchical,Semantic B linear,portable,bottom-up C Linear,nonlinear,synthesis D linear,nonlinear,top-down A lexical analysis B semantic analysis C syntax analysis D synthesis A syntax tree B semantic tree C directed acyclic graph D graph A macro preprocessor B rational preprocessors C language extensions D File inclusion 6 In compiler, analysis consists of which three phases? 9 Who allows a user to define shorthands for longer constructs? 7 Hierarchical analysis is also called ___________ 8 __________ is the compressed representation of the parse tree. 3 An attribute is said to be ____ if its value at a parse tree node is determined from attribute values at the children of the node. 4 __________is the process of determining if a string of tokens can be generated by a grammar. 5 __________ can handle large class of grammars and translation schemes. SUJJECT CODE: 1/16 PGCET
  • 21. A hypothetical machine code B relocatable machine code C pass code D register transfer code A backtracking B forwarding C backpatching D looping A parsing rule B syntax directed definition C operator precedence D semantic actions A token B context free grammar C lexeme D regular expression A semantic analyzer B lexical analyzer C code generator D parser A parsing,semantic analysis B regular expression,context free grammar C scanning,lexical analysis D code generator,code optimization A enhanced writability B enhanced portability C enhanced readability D enhanced security A lexeme B identifier C pattern D symbol A fi (a==f(x))… B a=(b C a=b c D all of the above 16 The advantage of separating analysis phase into lexical analysis and parsing is ______________ 17 const pi=3.1416, pi in lexical analysis is called _______ 18 Which error will not be identified by lexical analyzer? 13 ___________ is used to describe patterns 14 Which part of the compiler strip out comments from the source programme? 15 Lexical analyzers are divided into cascade of which two phases? 10 The output of the second pass of assembler is called what? 11 The technique of merging intermediate and target code generation into one pass is called __________. 12 In a translation scheme, ______ are embedded within the right sides of the production. SUJJECT CODE: 2/16 PGCET
  • 22. A ahmedabad B med C bad D abad A gjrt B jar C gja D rag A gjrt B rjg C jug D rgu A balanced constructs B nested constructs C repeating strings D all of the above A misspelling an identifier B operator applied to incompatible operand C arithmetic expression with unbalanced parantheses D infinitely recursive calls A phrase level B panic mode C error production D global correction A canonical derivation B left derivation C derived derivation D constant derivation A rightmost derivation B leftmost derivation C top down derivation D bottom-up derivation A context free B context sensitive C ambiguous D regular 20 Which is the substring of string gujarat? 19 Which is the prefix of the string ahmedabad? 23 Out of the following , which one is the syntactic error? 24 synchronizing token is used in which type of error recovery? 21 Which is the subsequence of the string gujarat? 22 What can not be described by regular expressions? 27 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is said to be 28 A left recursive grammar can cause a recursive descent parser with backtracking to go into ____________ 25 Rightmost derivations are sometimes called _________ 26 E→-(E+E)→-(id+E)→(-id+id) , this is the example of SUJJECT CODE: 3/16 PGCET
  • 23. A infinite loop B panic mode C recovery mode D execution mode A input buffer,stack,parsing table,output stream B input string, stack, transition diagram, output stream C input buffer,stack,regular definition,output stream D input buffer,stack, error recovery, output stream A nonterminal B terminal C synchronizing token D casesensitive character A both B and C B hard to read C difficult to use for translation process D none of the above A handle B right sentential form C left sentential form D handle pruning A handle B viable suffixes C viable prefixes D suffixes A number of symbols of lookahead B number of iterations C number of symbols on stack D number of sets A left most derivative B left-to-right scanning C left recursion D left factoring A right-to-left scanning B right side of the production C right most derivation in reverse D right recursion 31 Left recursion elimination and left factoring make the resulting grammar ______________ 32 A rightmost derivation in reverse can be obtained by what? 29 Which four components are there in table driven predictive parser? 30 FOLLOW function can be used as what during panic mode recovery? 35 In LR(k) parsing, "L" refers to _________ 36 In LR(k) parsing, "R" refers to 33 The set of prefixes of right sentential forms that can apper on stack of a shift reduce parser are called ______________ 34 In LR(k) - k refers to ___________ SUJJECT CODE: 4/16 PGCET
  • 24. A synthesized B Nonterminal C terminal D inherited A dependency graph B directed graph C parse tree D syntax tree A run time allocation B static allocation C heap allocation D stack allocation A pointer reference B dangling reference C null reference D deallocated reference A top down parser B bottom up parser C predictive parser D recursive descent parser A SLR parsing table B Canonical LR parsing table C LALR parsing table D None of the above A Keeping track of variable declaration B Checking for the correct use of L values and R values C both A and B D None of these A syntax tree B post fix notation C three address code D all of these A shorter and slower B shorter and faster C longer and slower D longer and faster 39 Which storage allocation strategy manages the run time storage? 40 When there is a reference to storage that has been deallocated, the reference is called ___________________ 37 Which attribute value at a node in a parse tree is defined in terms of attributes at the parent and/or siblings of that node? 38 The directed graph that depicts interdependencies among the inherited and synthesized attributes at the nodes in the parse tree is called ____ 43 Inherited attribute is a natural choice in 44 An intermediate code form is 41 Shift reduce parsers are 42 YACC builds up 45 Instructions involving register operands are usually _______ and ______ than those involving operands in memory. SUJJECT CODE: 5/16 PGCET
  • 25. A lexeme,pattern B pattern,lexeme C pattern,token D token,lexeme A predictive parser B recursive descent parser C Both a and b D Canonical LR parsing A LR(1) B LALR(1) C LL(1) D operator precedence A LL B LR C both a and b D neither a nor b A Expansion,control stacks B copying, control stacks C Activation,control stacks D None of these A Run time,compile time B link time,compile time C compile time,run time D link time,link time A starvation,dangling references B memory leaks,dangling references C starvation,memory leaks D starvation,heap allocation A Runtime B Peephole C Algorithmic D logical A Dead code B Hibernating code C static code D dynamic code 47 Non backtracking top-down parsers are also called ___________ 48 All SLR(1) grammars are also ________________. 46 A ____ is a rule that describes that set and a _____ is a sequence of characters matching the patterns 51 Static binding is performed at ____ while dynamic binding is performed at _____ 52 _____ and _____ are disadvantages of manual deallocation. 49 S-attributeddefinition can be implemented using ________ parsers. 50 The execution of a procedure body is called ___ of the procedure maintained on _____. 55 What will be the precedence relation id __ + __id 53 Eliminating redundant load is an example of ____ optimization. 54 Instructions that compute a value that is never used is called ____. SUJJECT CODE: 6/16 PGCET
  • 26. A >,< B <,> C >,= D <,= A kernel item B nonkernel item C itemset D initial item A nonterminal,value B value,storage location C storage location,value D terminal,storage location A value B address of the memory location C name D none of the above A global B environment C control D local A weakly typed B static type C strongly typed D none of the above A "[a-zA-Z0-9]" B "[a-zA-Z]" C "[^"n]*["n] D "[a-zA-Z0-9]"n A make y.tab.c B make y.tab.c and y.tab.h C make y.tab.c and link to lex library D make y.tab.c and lex.yy.c A "+" and "-" appears on the left side of production B "+" appears to the left of "-" C "+" has a higher precedence than "-" D "+" and "-" are left associative 61 What is the regular expression for matching quoted strings? 62 What is the prurpose of -d option when following command is executed? yacc -d ch3-01.y 63 What is the interpretation of following YACC declaration? %left '+' '- ' 56 Initial item S'→.S is considered _________ 59 The stack holds all the ____ variables defined within a function during its activation. 60 What type of language is "C"? 57 The term l-value refers to the _________ of an expression and r-value refers to the ____ of an expression. 58 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. SUJJECT CODE: 7/16 PGCET
  • 27. A match one,two or three occurences of letter A B match if the string contains A,1,2 and 3. C match one to three occurences of letter A D match if the string contains A,1 and 3. A id1:=id2+id3*60 B temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+id3*60.0 C temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+temp1 D temp1:=id3*60.0 id1:=id2+temp1 A expr→termexpr' expr'→+termexpr'|Є B expr→expr' expr'→term+expr C expr→termexpr' expr'→+termexpr' D expr→termexpr' expr'→Є A num→digit(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+)? B num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+) C num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+)?digit+)? D num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|- )?digit+)? A value B position C address D sata A value B program counter machine register C address D function definition A data constraints B heap constraints C stack constraints D addressing constraints 70 The storage layout for data object is strongly influenced by the_______of the target machine 71 what is true in case of static allocation 67 What is the regular definition of unsigned numbers? 68 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual parameter is passed to the function. 69 In case of procedure calls in C, what is saved on the stack? 64 What is the meaning of regular expression A{1,3} 65 What will be the output of the code optimizer, if the following input is given? temp1:=inttoreal(60),temp2:=id3*temp1,temp3:=id2*temp2,id1:=temp3 66 What will be the output if we remove the left recursion? expr→expr+term|term SUJJECT CODE: 8/16 PGCET
  • 28. A the size of the data object must be known at compile time B recursive procedure are unrestricted C data structure can be created dynamically D all of these A fields whose sizes are not fixed early B fields whose sizes are defined at run time C fields whose sizes are not proper D fields whose sizes are fixed early A logical error B syntactical C lexical D semantic A (a,((a,a),(a,a))) B (a,(a,a),(a,a))) C (a,((a,a,(a,a))) D (a,((a,a,a,a))) A grammer generates all relational expression B grammer generates all logical expression C grammer generates all mathematical expression D grammer generates all boolean expression A not ambiguous B not a valid grammar C ambiguous D none of the above A LALR(1) B operator precedence C SLR(1) D undefined 76 This grammar is R → R' | 'R | RR | R* | (R) | a|b ______________ 77 What type of grammer is this ? S → Aa | bAc | dc | bda A → d 73 Use of dangling references, is what type of error? 74 consider the grammer S → (L) | S L → L, S | S which string we can generate out of above grammer ? 75 consider the grammer bexpr → bexpr or bterm | bterm bterm → bterm and bfactor | bfactor bfactor → rootbfactor | (bexpr) | true | false 72 what is placed in the middle in case of activation records ? SUJJECT CODE: 9/16 PGCET
  • 29. A ab B aabb C abab D all of these A {a} B {Є} C {b} D {a,b} A {$,a,b} B {} C {a,b} D {Є} A 6 a's B 3 a's C 4 a's D 8 a's A produce a lexical analyzer from a regular-expression B use context free grammar C use directed acyclic graph D use heap storage A logical operations B speed of lexical analysis C stack implementation D ease of operations A DO is a keyword B DO is not a keyword C lexical error D lexical analyzer does panic mode recovery A to push scanned characters back in the input stream B To stop taking the input C to push lookahead characters back in the input stream D To read next character 85 what is the purposr of function ungetc if used with lexical analyzer ? 82 how lexical analyzer can be implemented ? 83 out of following what is the most concerned part for compiler design ? 84 what does the lexical analyzer do in case of following input ? DO 5 I = 1.25 79 S → AaAb | BbBa A → Є B → Є what is in the FIRST(A) ? 80 S → AaAb | BbBa A → Є B → Є what is in the FIRST(S) ? 81 Which string is not generated by the following grammer ? S → aSa | aa 78 consider the grammer S → aSbS | bSaS |Є which string can be generated by the above grammer ? SUJJECT CODE: 10/16 PGCET
  • 30. A a-a B [a-a] C a+ D a* A bracket is not important B order of regular expression is not important C concatenation is associative D regular expression r,s,t are equal A r+ B (r|Є)* C (r|0)* D r+0 A To check whether the entered text is tring or integer B To convert the value to integer C to hold the lexical value returned D undefine the value A integer telling how long the lexeme is B string telling the value of the lexeme C number of digits in lexeme D number of alphabets in lexeme A each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the beginning B both buffer half holds a sentinel character at the end and beginning C each buffer half does not hold a sentinel character at the end D each buffer half holds a sentinel character at the end A delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim B delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim* C delim → blank | tab | newline ws → delim+ D ws → blank | tab | newline 91 in the input buffering in lexical analysis where the sentinel character is kept ? 92 what regular expression lexical analyzer will use to strip out white spaces ? 88 what is the alternate representation for r* 89 for what purpose yylval is in LEX tool ? 90 for what purpose yyleng is in LEX tool ? 86 how can we specify pattern of zero or more a's in lexical analysis ? 87 what does the following rule specify if we write (rs)t = r(st) where r and s are regular expressions. SUJJECT CODE: 11/16 PGCET
  • 31. A optional_fraction → (.digits) B optional_fraction → (.digits) + C optional_fraction → (.digits) * D optional_fraction → (.digits) ? A I={E→E'+.T} B I={E→E'+T} C I={E→E'.+T} D I={E→E'+T.} A not SLR(1) B SLR(1) C ambiguous D right recursive A evaluating B decorating C analyzing D traversing A directed acyclic graph B directed graph C syntax tree D parse tree A active B breadth first C top down D depth first A definition of a procedure - activation of the procedure B declaration of a name-binding of the name C scope of a declaration - lifetime of binding D all of these A as a hash indexed on the lexeme B as a pointer to the lexeme 100 How symbol table is stored in compiler? 97 What identifies the common subexpression in the expression? 98 The flow control in a program corresponds to _____ traversal of the activation tree. 99 Match the static notation and its dynamic counterpart in context of compiler. 94 I={E→E'.+T} then goto(I,+) consists of ____________ 95 What type of grammar is this? S→L=R S→R L→*R L→id R→L 96 The process of computing the attribute values at the nodes is called ______ the parse tree. 93 what regular expression lexical analyzer will we to find optional fractional part of decimal number ? SUJJECT CODE: 12/16 PGCET
  • 32. C as a pattern index D as an array of values A labs B bat C ball D bracket A egrep -n -e '[$p-s]' B egrep -n -e '[p|s]' C egrep -n -e '[^p-s]' D egrep -n -e '[p-s]' A nonrecursive call B nondeterminism in transition diagram C recursive procedure call D determinism in transition diagram A translation interleaved with parsing B parse tree method C rule based method D all of these A state B state symbol on the top of the stack and current input symbol C current input symbol D FOLLOW set A reduce - reduce conflict B shift-reduce conflict C shift - shift conflict D reduce-shift conflict what is the syntex directed definition for the following ? 1. D → TL 2. T → int 3. T → real 4. L → L1, id 5. L → id 103 In which case we cannot build predictive parser? 104 Which methods can be used to compute the attributes of different symbols in syntax directed definition? 105 106 in upon constructing LR(1) sets of items following grammer generates which type of conflict ? S' → S S → aAd | bBd | aBe | bAe A → c B → c Who determines the shift reduce parsing decision? 107 101 Which pattern will match if following command is executed? egrep -n -e '[^b]a' 102 What regular expression will be written if we want to match any input line where letter p or q or s exist? SUJJECT CODE: 13/16 PGCET
  • 33. A 1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) B 1. L.in := T.type 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) C 1. T.type := L.in 2. T.type := integer 3. T.type := real 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) D 1. T.type := integer 2. T.type := real 3. L.in:=T.type 4. L1.in := L.in addtype(id.entry, L.in) 5. addtype(id.entry, L.in) A I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, c C → ●d, d B I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, c|d C → ●d, c|d C I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, C C → ●d, d D I0:S' → ●S,$ S → ●CC, $ C → ●cC, C C → ●d, C A Quadruples B Indirect triples C Triples D none of these A E→TR R→addop T{print(addop.lexeme)}R1 | Є B E→TR R→addop T R1 | Є C E→TR R→addop {print(addop.lexeme)} T R1 | Є D E→TR R→addop T R1 {print(addop.lexeme)} | Є 108 what is the initial set of items in case of LR(1) items for the following augmented grammer ? S' → S S → CC C → cC | d 109 Which type of three address code requires lesser space? 110 Out of the following, which translation scheme maps infix expression to corresponding postfix expression? SUJJECT CODE: 14/16 PGCET
  • 34. A X.x B Z.z C Y.y D A.a A value of local names must be retained when activation ends B A called activation outlives the caller C both of these D none of these A S→ iEtSS' S'→eS E→b B S→ iEtS' S'→eS|Є E→b C S→ iEtSS' S'→S|Є E→b D S→ iEtSS' S'→eS|Є E→b A grammar is not left recursive B S→ Aa|b A→cA'|adA'|Є C S→ Aa|b A→bdA'|A' A'→cA'|adA'|Є D cannot remove left recursion A recognize all programming language construct B most general nonbacktracking shift reduce parsing C superset of predictive parsers D all of these A difficult to understand B too much work to construct LR parser by hand C No drawback D No tool available to generate parser 117 114 What is the result if left recursion is removed from the grammar? S→ Aa|b A→Ac|Sd|Є 115 Why LR parser is attractive? 116 What is the drawback of LR parser? 111 For the semantic rule A.a:=f(X.x,Y.y,Z.z) is associated with the production A→XYZ. Before XYZ is reduced to A,which aƩribute will be on the top of the stack? 112 In which case stack allocation strategy cannot be used? 113 What is the result if left factoring is done on the grammar? S → iEtS | iEtSeS |a E→b What is the three address code for the statement if x<y goto lbl SUJJECT CODE: 15/16 PGCET
  • 35. A lbl LT x y B lbl x y LT C LT x y lbl D none of these A common subexpression B dead code elimination C copy propagation D Loop optimization A common subexpression B code motion C copy propagation D Loop optimization A while(limit-2>=i) B while (i>limit-2) C t=limit-2 while(i<=t) D for(i=0;i<=limit-2;i++) 118 f:=g is related to which issue of the code optimization in compiler? 119 Which method decreses the amount of code in a loop? 120 What is the code motion equivalent of the statement while (i<=limit-2) SUJJECT CODE: 16/16 PGCET
  • 36. A counter,registers and variables B counter,interrupt,functions C functions,stack,program counter D local and global variables A create B fork C system D process A interrupt array B interrupt routine C interrupt address D interrupt vector A deadlock B mutual exclusion C mutual awareness D mutual denial A shared heap B shared region C crtitical section D not accessible data A Turnaround B response time C throughput D all of these A preemptive scheduling B process starvation C premature leaving D process observation A too many process switches B too few process switches C increases CPU efficiency D too many sleeps A assembly program B thread C executable program D processs 1 process is an executing program, including the current values of the ____, _________ and ___________. 2 In UNIX process is created by which system call? 5 The part of the program, where the shared memory is accessed is called _____________ 6 Which criteria constitutes a good scheduling policy? 3 Which data structure contains the address of interrupt service procedure? 4 What term is used to indicate that if one process is using shared variable or file , the other processes will be excluded from doing the same thing. 9 A ___________ can be thought of as a program in execution. 7 Allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended that type of scheduling is called _____________ 8 In round robin scheduling , what is the effect of setting the two short quantum? SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET
  • 37. A tasks,threads B processes,threads C jobs,user programs D jobs,tasks A stack B program counter C data section D heap A array B heap C vector D stack A running,ready,waiting B running,terminated,waiting C waiting,running,ready D ready,waiting,running A accumulators B index registers C stack pointers D all of these A memory management information B cPU registers C process state D accounting information A CPU and real time used B process priority C page tables D list of I/O devices A vector B linked list C tree D array 12 What does a process include that is memory that is dynamically allocated during processes run time? 13 Only one process can be ______ on any processor at any instant. Many processes may be ______ and ___________. 10 A batch system executes _____, wheareas a time-shared system has ____________. 11 A process includes the ________, which contains temporary data(such as function parameters,return addresses and local variables) 16 What is included as part of accounting information in case of process control block? 17 What data structure is used to store all processes? 14 The CPU registers in a process control block include which of the following? 15 Page tables and segment tables are part of which piece of information in process control block? 18 What does a ready queue header contain? SUJJECT CODE: 2/13 PGCET
  • 38. A pointer to first process control block B pointer to final process control block C pointer to first and final process control block D do not contain any thing A process B particular I/O device C CPU D thread A process scheduler B short term scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler A process scheduler B short term scheduler C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler A slow B inefficient C fast D improper A interrupt processes B I/O bound processes C CPU bound processes D memory bound processes A all processses are interrupt processes B all processses are I/O bound processes C all processses are CPU bound processes D all processses are memory bound processes A real time system B batch system C time sharing system D single process system A context switch B process switch C memory switch D task switch 20 What type of scheduler is needed for batch system? 21 What type of scheduler is needed for processes that are ready to execute? 19 The list of processes in a device queue is waiting for a _______ 24 In which case short term scheduler has little work to do? 25 Which type of systems do not have long term scheduler? 22 short time scheduler is _________ 23 _________ uses more of its time doing computations. 26 The task of performing the state save of currrent process and state restore of a different process is called __________ 27 context switch time is overhead for the operating system because _____ SUJJECT CODE: 3/13 PGCET
  • 39. A system goes in wait mode B system does useful work C system creates many new processes D system does no useful work A ps B execute C process D ls A root B parent C init D login A process pointer B process tag C process identifier D process table A cooperating B CPU sharing C memory sharing D I/O sharing A shared memory,vactor passing B shared memory,message passing C segmented memory,message passing D page memory,message passing A page memory B shared memory C message passing D segmented memory A intermediate amount of data B larger amounts of data C D smaller amounts of data A sending process is blocked until the message is received by receiving process B sending process is blocked until the message is not received by receiving process 28 On UNIX, listing of processing can be obtained using which command? 29 Which process in UNIX, serves as a root parent process for all processes? 32 Which two models can be used for interprocess communication? 33 Which concept is easier to implement for intercomputer communication? 30 each process in UNIX is identified by __________ 31 A process is _____ if it can affect or be affected by the other processes executing in the system. 34 message passing is useful for _______ 35 In which case send() call of message passing is considered blocking send? SUJJECT CODE: 4/13 PGCET
  • 40. C sending process is blocked until the communication is established D sending process is blocked until the shared memory is defined A shmget() B shmat() C shmctl() D shmcreate() A undefined B many C one D none A sockets B remote procedure calls C Java's remote method invocation D all of these A allows a state of an object to be written to an array B allows a state of an object to be written to a vector C allows a state of an object to be written to a byte stream D allows a state of an object to be written to a file A time consuming and resource intensive B time consuming and resource starvation C time sharing and deadlock D time consuming and memory starvation A kernel threads B user threads C message threads D memory threads A entire process will block if a thread makes a computation B entire process will block if a thread makes a blocking system call C entire process will block if a thread makes an exit D no problem 36 shared memory segment can be removed with the help of which system call? 37 A system has one network address and it has ____ port 40 Which two problems are faced by process creation method? 41 Which types of threads are managed directly by the operating system? 38 Communication in client server system may use 39 Java provides an interface java.io.serializable. What is the use of object serialization? 42 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is many to one? SUJJECT CODE: 5/13 PGCET
  • 41. A overhead of data B overhead of creating user threads C overhead of starting Operating system D overhead of creating kernel threads A increased responsiveness to user B resource sharing within the process C economy D all of these A tunaround time B throughput time C average time D wait time A time during which a process executes B time during which a process does I/O C spends waiting in the ready queue D all of these A real time system B interactive C time sharing D batch system A cycles of CPU execution B cycle of I/O wait C both A and B D none of these A minimize B maximize C average D none of these A process control block B process table C process identifier D free memory block 44 The benefits of multithreading include 45 The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is the ____ time. 43 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads is one to one? 48 Process execution consists of ___________ 49 To guarantee that all users get good service, _____ the maximum response time. 46 The criteria of waiting time in CPU scheduling includes 47 In which type of system turnaround time may not be best criteria for CPU scheduling? 50 When a process enters the ready queue, what is linked onto the tail of queue? 51 What type of scheduling is first come first served? SUJJECT CODE: 6/13 PGCET
  • 42. A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling C maximum output sceduling D minimum wait scheduling A real time system B interactive C time sharing D batch system A short term CPU scheduling B long term CPU scheduling C both of these D none of these A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling C both of these D none of these A unavailable I/O B unavailable memory C unavailable CPU D starvation A time limits,memory requirements,the number of open files, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst B time limits,memory requirements, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst C time limits,memory requirements,the previous priority, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst D time limits,memory requirements,the number of processes in ready queue, the average of I/O burst to average CPU burst A 10 to 20 milliseconds B 10 to 100 milliseconds C 1 to 10 milliseconds D 10 to 50 milliseconds A n-1 B q C (n-1)xq D nxq 52 first come first served scheduling algorithm is troublesome for ____ systems 53 shortest job first scheduling algorithm cannot be implemented at the level of ______ 56 What criteria can be used to define priority in priority scheduling? 57 What is the time quantum in case of round robin scheduling? 54 shortest job first scheduling algorithm is 55 What is a major problem with priority scheduling? 58 In round robin scheduling , if there are n processes in the ready queue and time quantum is q What is the maximum waiting time for a process until its next time quantum? SUJJECT CODE: 7/13 PGCET
  • 43. A nonpreemptive B preemptive C both of these D none of these A multiuser B interactive C batch D real time A counting B infinite C binary D none of these A resources a process will request and use during lifetime B memory usage pattern C resources a process will request D cannot avoid deadlock A read only files B printer C both of these D none of these A 1,2 B 2,3 C 1,2,3,4 D 1,2,4 A 300040 120900 B 300000 120940 C 300041 110999 D 300940 120000 A compile B run C execution D all of these 65 If program can logically access all addresses from 300040 through 420940(inclusive) then what value is hold by base register and limit register? 66 If the processs can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to another , binding must be delayed until ____ time. 67 What is the role of memory management unit? 62 Deadlock avoidance require which information in advance? 63 Which of the following resource cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes? 64 A deadlock can occur if which of the following conditions hold simultaneously? 1. mutual exclusion 2. hold and wait 3. nopreemption 4. circular wait 59 Which type of kernel is free from race conditions? 60 preemptive kernel is suitable for which kind of process? 61 Which type of semaphores are known as mutex locks? SUJJECT CODE: 8/13 PGCET
  • 44. A run time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses B load time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses C compile time maaping from virtual to physical adddresses D all of these A resident operating sytem,user processes B resident operating sytem,kernel processes C resident operating sytem,loader D resident operating sytem,compiler A allocate the first hole big enough B allocate smallest hole C allocate contiguous blocks D allocate largest hole A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C both of these D none of these A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C both of these D none of these A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation C paging D none of these A internal,entire B external, last C internal,0 D external,0 A 4300 B 4353 C 4302 D 4355 74 In memory allocation, segment 2 is 400 bytes long and begins at location 4300. Reference to byte 53 of segment 2 is mapped onto location ____ 75 In which situation Direct access files are of great use? 71 There is a memory allocation scheme with a hole of 18464 bytes. If a processes requests 18462 bytes. Then 2 bytes are left with a hole if exact requested block is allocated. This is called ___________ 72 _____________ is a memory management scheme that permits the physiacl address of a process to be noncontiguous. 73 If a process needs npages plus 1 byte. It would be allocated n+1 frames, resulting in an _____ fragmentation of _____ frame. 68 The memory is divided into which two partitions? 69 What is worst fit strategy to select a free hole from the set of available holes in case of dynamic storage allocation problem? 70 first fit and best fit strategies of memory allocation suffer from ____ SUJJECT CODE: 9/13 PGCET
  • 45. A For indirect access to small amount of information B For immediate access to indirect information C For immediate access to small amounts of information D For immediate access to large amounts of information A implement identity dependent access B implement group identity C implement role dependent access D implement file list A grep B egrep C nice D cal A indefinite blockage of low priority process in priority scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling in First come first served scheduling C preemptive scheduling in shortest job first D nonpreemptive scheduling in shortest job first A 1 and 3 B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3 A 1 and 3 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 2 D 1,2 and 3 A The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate init process B The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate itself in an orderly fashion 76 For what purpose access control list is used in operating system? 78 aging is the solution to which problem? 79 When a process creates a new process which two possibilities exist in terms of execution? 1. parent continues to execute concurrently with children 2. The parent waits until some or all of its children have terminated. 3. The parent exits so children gets memory for execution 77 Which command can be used in Linux to set priority in priority based scheduling? 80 When a new process is created, which are the two possibilities in terms of the address space? 1. The child process is a duplicate of the parent process 2. The child process has a new program loaded into it. 3. The parent,child process are shifted to new memory area. 81 What is deferred cancellation in case of cancellation of a target thread? SUJJECT CODE: 10/13 PGCET
  • 46. C The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate memory operations D The target thread allows itself an opportunity to terminate I/O operations A random number greater than 0 B 1 C 1356 D 0 A physical and virtual memory B open files C I/O buffers D all of these A 1,2,3 B 1,2 C 2,3 D 1,3 A assembler B loader C object module D none of these A a new shared memory segment is created. B a new shared memory segment is created with read permission. C a new shared memory segment is created with write permission D a new shared memory segment is created in private memory are. A shared memory is detached B user selects the location where the shared memory will be attached 87 What is the meaning of NULL in the system call shmat(id,NULL,0)? 84 In which case parerent may terminate the execution of one of its children? 1. The child has exceeded its usage of some of the resources that it has been allocated. 2. The task assigned to the child is no longer required. 3. The parent is exiting and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if its parent terminates. 85 The assembler generates object modules for loader who is a consumer in this? 86 What does IPC_PRIVATE in case of system call shmget(IPC_PRIVATE,size,S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR) 83 Which resources are deallocated by operating system when a process terminates? 82 When fork() is used to create a child process, what is the pid for the child process? SUJJECT CODE: 11/13 PGCET
  • 47. C operating system selects the location where the shared memory will be attached D process selects the location where the shared memory will be attached A servicing a request with an existing thread is usually faster than writing to create thread. B A thread pool limits the number of threads that exist at any one point. C A and B D none of these A When a process switches from running to waiting state B When a process switches from running to ready state C When a process switches from waiting to ready state D all of these A 24 milliseconds B 27 milliseconds C 10 milliseconds D 17 milliseconds A 6 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 5 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 6 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds D 6 milliseconds 93 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of nopreemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 94 The five processes A,B,C,D,E has burst time 10,1,2,1,5 and priority 3,1,4,5,2 respectively. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of priority scheduling algorithm is ____ 90 In First come First serve scheduling policy, the burst time for processes A,B,C is 24,3,3. burst time in milliseconds. If the processes arrive in orser B,C,A - the average waiting time 91 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 6,8,7,3. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of simple shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 92 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of preemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____ 88 Thread pools offer which benefit? 89 What is the reason for CPU scheduling decisions? SUJJECT CODE: 12/13 PGCET
  • 48. A 6.9 milliseconds B 8.2 milliseconds C 7.75 milliseconds D 6.3 milliseconds A 10 milliseconds B 7.4 milliseconds C 6.2 milliseconds D 5.66 milliseconds A First come first served B shortest job first C priority D none of the above A design a protocol that the process can use to cooperate B design a protocol that the process can use to access kernel thread C design a protocol that the process can use to access shared memory D design a protocol that the process can use to access CPU A 30 hours B 32 hours C 28 hours D 24 hours A 10% B 9% C 0.10% D 0% A in = out B ((in+1)%BUFFER_SIZE)=out C buffer cannot be full D in + 1 =out 100 The shared buffer is implemented in a circular array with two logical pointer in and out. The variable in points to the next free position in the buffer; out points to the first full position in the buffer. In which situation buffer is full? 98 In priority scheduling, if priorities range from 127(low) to 0(high) anf if priority of waiting process is increased by 1 every 15 minutes, then how many hours will be taken for a priority 127 to reach to priority 0. 97 What is a critical section problem? 99 If short term scheduler takes 10 milliseconds to decide to execute a process for 100 milliseconds then _____ percent of the CPU is being used for scheduling the work. 96 If time quantum is too large, round robin scheduling degenerates to which scheduling policy? 95 If three processes A,B,C arrive at time 0 and length of the CPU burst in milliseconds is 24,3,3 respectively and if the time quantum is of 4 milliseconds then average waiting time in round robin scheduling is _____. SUJJECT CODE: 13/13 PGCET
  • 49. 7 Regular Grammar is subset of A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar C Unrestricted Grammar D All of these 1 A Relation R is called Equivalence Relation if R is A Reflexive B Symmetric C Transitive D All of these 2 A function is called “onto” or “surjective” A If domain and co- domain are same B If the range and co- domain are same C If the range and domain are same D None of these 3 For Language L following is not true A L+ = L*L B L+ = L L* C L+ = L*L* D All are true 4 In which machine all of the moves for an alphabet must be specified? A Finite Automata B NFA C NFA – Λ D All of these 5 Turing Machine is more powerful than Finite Automata because A It has no finite state control B It has the capabilities to remember arbitrary long sequence of input symbols C Tape movement is confined to one direction only D None of these 6 Push Down Automata uses A Tape B Queue C Stack D Tree
  • 50. 8 (00 + 01 + 10)(0+1)* represents A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length C Strings not starting with 11 D None of these 9 (00 + 01 + 10 + 11)* represents A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length C Strings starting with 00 D None of these 10 The regular expression 0*1(0*10*1)* represents strings with A Even no. of 1’s B Odd no. of 1’s C Odd no. of zeroes D None of these 11 Finite Automata can not have A Accepting State B Starting State C Transition Function D More than one transitions for same input from a state 12 A BC Rule is not allowed in A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar C Regular Grammar D CNF 13 Starting Symbol of a Grammar is subset of A Terminal Symbols B Non Terminal Symbols C Alphabet D Language 14 Following is not a primitive operation of a Regular Language A L1 ∩ L2 B L1 ∪ L2 C L1.L2 D L1* 15 The Regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's is A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ) B (0 +10) * C (0 +11) * D None of these 16 The set of strings over {a, b}* that contain the substring aa is. A a(a*ba*b)*a* B (a)*(b+a)(b) C (aa + bb)* D (a + b)*aa (a + b)*
  • 51. 17 The regular expression (a + b)* abb denotes: A all possible combinations of a’s and b’s B set of all strings ending with abb C set of all strings starting with and ending with abb D None of these 18 Given two DFA’s M1 and M2” They are equivalent if: A M1 and M2 has the same number of states B M1 and M2 has the sane number of final states. C M1 and M2 accepts the same language i.e. L(M1)= L(M2) D None of these 19 Given a finite automata M =(Q, Σ, δ, qo’ F), If δ maps Q x Σ to 2Q then: A M is NFA B M is DFA C M is NFA with ε-moves D None of these 20 Which of the following phase of compilation process is an optional phase : A Lexical analysis phase B Syntax analysis phase C Code generation phase. D Code optimization phase 21 Which of the following statement is negation of the statement? A 2 is even and -3 is not negative B 2 is odd or -3 is not negative C 2 is odd and -3 is not negative D 2 is even or -3 is not negative 22 Which of the following are the aspects of the high level languages? A Ease of understanding B Naturalness C portability D All of Above 23 In a Finite State Machine, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a function which maps A Q ∑ X Q B Q X ∑ Q C Q A D Q X q0 ∑ 24 In an NFA, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a function which maps A Q X ∑ Q B Q X ∑ Q2 C Q X ∑ 2Q D Q X ∑* Q
  • 52. 25 By Kleens theorem we prove that A Any language is accepted by FA B Any Regular Language is accepted by FA C Any CFG is accepted by FA D None of these 26 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1 ∪ L2 then A Only A1 is accepting State B Only A2 is accepting State C We must add new accepting States D Both A1 and A2 are accepting State 27 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1. L2 then A Only A1 is accepting State B Only A2 is accepting State C We must add new accepting States D Both A1 and A2 are accepting State 28 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting languages L1 and L2 If we find L1.L2 then A q1 is starting State B q2 is starting State C We must add new starting State D None of these 29 If f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) = x3 , then (f O g)(x) is A (cos(x))3 B cos (3x) C x3(cosx) D Cos(x3 ) 30 P q is logically equivalent to (here ~ is Negation Sign) A ~q p B ~p q C ~p Λ q D ~p Ѵ q 31 Let the classes of Languages accepted by finite state machines be L1 and the class of Languages represented by regular expressions be L2 then, A L1 is subset of L2 B L2 is subset of L1 C L1 = L2 D L1 ∩ L2 = ф 32 Tautology is A Always True B Always False C Partially True D None of these 33 δ* of Finite Automata is
  • 53. A Transition Function B Extended Transition Function C Non Recursive Function D None of these 34 Following is an Ambiguous Grammar A S S + S | S * S | a B S aSa | Λ C S aS | Λ D None of these 35 CFG stands for A Compile Free Grammar B Content Free Grammar C Context Free Grammar D None of these 36 In a Push Down Automata, Which of the following Stack operations can not be performed on a particular move? A PUSH B PEEP C POP D None of these 37 Recursive Languages are recognizable by A FA B NFA C NFA - ᴧ D Turing Machine 38 Minimum length of the string formed by Regular Expression (a+b)* abac*(a+b)+ A 3 B 6 C 4 D 8 39 (a+b)* represents A Null String B All Strings of a’s and b’s C String starting with a D None of these 40 If the language L is Recursive language then L is finite or infinite is A Decidable B Un-decidable C Still an open question D None of these 41 Turing Machine can’t solve Halting Problem is A True B False C Still an open question D None of these 42 If P = NP then A P and NPC are different B NP and NPC are different C P,NP and NPC are same D None of these
  • 54. 43 The Coloring Problem is A NP Hard Problem B NP Complete Problem C P Problem D None of these 44 Conversion from NFA to DFA is done by A Subset construction B Kleen’s Theorem C Minimization Algorithm D Cook’s Theorem 45 Pumping Lemma is used to decide whether Language L is A Context Sensitive B Context Free C Recursive D Not a Regular 46 Which of the following is true? A (a+b)* = (a+b)(a+b)* B (a+b)* = a*b* C (a+b)* = (a*b*)* D None of these 47 (1+0)*0 represents A Binary number that are multiples of 2(two). B String starting with 1 C String starting with 0 D None of these 48 CFG : S SS+ | SS* | a , generates A Prefix Expression B Postfix Expression C Infix Expression D None of these 49 CFG: S aSb | Λ , generates language A (ab)n B ab(a+b)* C (a+b)*(ab)n D an bn 50 The Regular Sets are closed under A Union B Concatenation C Kleen’s Closure D All of Above 51 The output of a moore machine is A Depend on present state and present input B Depend only on the present state C Depend only on present input D All of these
  • 55. 52 In a Context Sensitive Grammar, no. of Grammar symbols on the left side of a Production can’t be greater than the no. of A Grammar Symbols on right side B Terminals on the right side C Non Terminals on right side D All of these 53 A given grammar is called ambiguous if A 2 or more productions have same non terminal on the left hand side B A derivation tree has more than on associated sentence C Brackets are not present in the grammar D There is a sentence with more than one derivation tree. 54 Let L be a language recognizable by a Finite Automata, then reverse of the language is a A Regular Language B Context Free Language C Context Sensitive Language D Recursively Enumerable Language 55 The logic of Pumping Lemma is a good example of A Pigeon – Hole principle B Divide & Conquer Technique C Recursion D Iteration 56 The no. of Auxiliary memory required for a Push Down Automata to behave as a Finite Automata is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 57 A Push Down Automata behaves like a Turing Machine when no. of Auxiliary memory it has is A 2 B 1 C 0 D 4 58 Context Free Grammar is not closed under A Concatenation B Union C Complementation D Kleens 59 For two regular languages L1 = (a+b)*b and L2 = b(a+b)*, then L1 ∩ L2 is given by A (a+b)*ab B ab(a+b)* C a(a+b)*b D b(a+b)*a 60 If L is a language recognizable by a Finite Automata then subset of the Language is A Regular Language B Context Free Language
  • 56. C Context Sensitive Language D Recursively Enumerable Language 61 Which of the following is not accepted by any deterministic Push Down Automata? A String ending in particular alphabet B Strings in which a given symbol is present atleast twice C Even palindromes D None of these 62 If S be an infinite set and S1 ∪ ܵ2 … ∪ ܵ݊ = S, then A Atleast one of the set Si is a finite set B Atleast one of the sets Si is an infinite set C Not more than on of the set Si can be finite D None of these 63 A Grammar that produces more than one Parse tree for same sentence is A Ambiguous B Unambiguous C Regular D None of these 64 Which of the following Regular Expressions denotes a language comprising all possible strings over the alphabet (a,b) A a*b* B (a+b)* C (ab)+ D (a+b*) 65 An Finite Automata can be considered to be a Turing Machine of finite length A Rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement B Without rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement C Rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement D Without rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement 66 Palindromes can’t be recognized by any Finite Automata because A FA can’t deterministically fix the mid-point B FA can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information C Both A and B D None of these 67 If ∑ = (a,b,c,d,e,f), then no. of string in ∑ of length 4 such that no symbol is used more than once in a string is A 60 B 360 C 240 D 720 68 If L = x*(x + yx), then which of the following is not a legal string within L? A yx B xyx
  • 57. C x D xyxyx 69 If every string of a language can be determined, whether it is legal or illegal in finite time, the language is called A Decidable B Undecidable C Interpretive D Non-determinstic 70 Can a DFA simulate NFA? A No B Yes C Sometimes D Depends on NFA 71 Regular Expression (a+b) denotes the set A {a} B {є, a,b} C {a,b} D {ab} 72 Regular Expression (a+b)(a+b) denotes the set A {a,b,ab,aa} B {a,b,ba,bb} C {a,b} D {aa,ab,ba,bb} 73 Which of the following regular expression denotes zero or more instances of a or b? A a + b B (ab)* C (a+b)* D a* +b 74 The automata is a ____ device and a grammar is a _____ device A generative,cognitive B generative,acceptor C acceptor,cognitive D cognitive, generative 75 The Regular sets are closed under A Union B Concatenation C Kleens’ Closure D All of these 76 To accept strings with N characters the Finite Automata contains minimum A N states B N + 1 States C N + 2 States D N - 1 States 77 Number of Articulation Points in a Rectangle is A 0 B 1 C 2 D 4 78 For a simple connected graph G with n vertices and n edges(n>2), which of the following statement are true? A G has no cycles B G is a Spanning Tree
  • 58. C G has atleast one cycle D None of these 79 Finite State Machine can recognize A Any Grammar B Only Context Free Grammar C Any Unambiguous Grammar D Only Regular Grammar 80 S aSa | bSb | Λ recognizes A Even Palindrome in (a,b)* B Odd Palindrome (a,b)* C Any Palindrome in (a,b)* D None of these 81 Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization A P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3 B P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 C P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 D P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 82 Find a regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of consecutive 0's. A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ ) B (0 +10) * C (11 +010) * D None of these 83 Which phase detects and ignores the comments? A Lexical B Syntax C Semantic D Code Generator 84 The set of strings over {a, b} that contain the substring aa. A (ab)*a B (a + b)*aa (a + b)* C a*(a+b)* D None of these 85 The Left Linear Grammar is A Regular Grammar B CNF C Not a Regular Grammar D None of these 86 Modification of Simple Turing Machine(TM) can be done by
  • 59. A Multi-Tape TM B Multi-Head TM C Universal TM D All of these 87 Regular Grammar is A Type – 0 B Type – 1 C Type – 2 D Type – 3 88 “Dangling else” is a phenomenon related to A Regular Grammar B Unambiguous Grammar C Ambiguous Grammar D None of these 89 For minimization of Finite Automata we find A Equivalent States B Unreachable State C Finite States D None of these 90 Any Regular Expression is easily converted to A FA B NFA C NFA - Λ D None of these 91 Λ - closure (Null Closure) of a state in NFA - Λ contains A The state itself B All states obtained from Λ - transitions from the state C Both A and B D None of these 92 (11+101)(1+0)* represents A String starting with 11 and 101 B String starting either with 11 or 101 C Strings always starting with 11 D None of These 93 f:R+ R, f(x) = x2 function is A Both onto and one-to- one B Not onto but one-to-one C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one 94 f:R+ R+ , f(x) = x2 function is A Both onto and one-to- one B Not onto but one-to-one C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one
  • 60. 95 If NFA contains n states then by subset construction the equivalent DFA contains maximum of A n2 states B 2n states C n3 states D 2n states 96 Recursively Enumerable Grammar falls in A Type – 0 B Type – 1 C Type – 2 D Type – 3 97 For simplification of CFG following can be done A Eliminate Null Production B Eliminate not reachable Variables C Eliminate Unit Production D All of these 98 In case of Turing Machine(TM) by reading input x, TM A May go to infinite loop B May go to halt-non final state C May go to halt-final state D All of these 99 Recursively Enumerable Languages are A A proper subset of CFLs B Always recognizable by PDA. C Also called type-0 languages D All of these 100 Any language generated by a Unrestricted Grammar is A Regular Language B Recursively Enumerable Language C Context Free Language D None of these 101 Which of the following properties of Recursively Enumerable sets are decidable? A Emptiness B Finiteness C Regularity D None of these 102 Finite State Machine can recognize A Only Context Free Grammar B Only Regular Grammar C Any unambiguous Grammar D Any Grammar 103 Which of the following problem is not NP-Hard? A Travelling Salesman Problem B 0/1 Knapsack Problem
  • 61. C Graph Coloring D None of these 104 In a Grammar : S aSa | bSb | Λ For recognizingstring “abba” the number of productions used are A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 105 Finite Automata do not find application in A Syntax Checking B Recognition of Tokens C Checking string ending with some alphabets D None of these 106 “NFA can be simulated by a DFA.” The statement is A True B False C Depends on NFA D Depends on DFA 107 Universal Turing Machine influenced the concept of A Stored program computers B Interpretive implementation of programming language C Computability D All of these 108 Following is not a proof method A Contradiction B Contra-positive C Recurrence D Principle of Mathematical Induction 109 “Finite Automata is a particular case of NFA”. The statement is A False B True C Partially true D Depends upon NFA 110 In NFA, a particular state can have A Zero Transition on an alphabet B One Transition on an alphabet C More than One Transition on an alphabet D All of above 111 (00+11+01+10)* represents A Strings of odd length B Strings of even length C Strings starting with 00 D Strings ending in 10 112 For the language (00)*(11)* drawing/designing ____ is easier. A FA B NFA
  • 62. C NFA - Λ D Universal TM 113 Which of the following is not true with respect to regular expression? A (a+b)* = (b+a)* B (ab)* = a*b* C (ab+ba)* = (ba+ab)* D (a+b)+ = (a+b)(a+b)* 114 Bottom Up Parsing have A Shift operation B Reduce Operation C Both A and B D None of these 115 With respect to Grammar, Following is the part of actual string of a Language A Variables B Start Symbol C Non Terminal Symbol D Terminal Symbol 116 Grammar: S [S] | {S} | SS | Λ represents A Strings with Λ symbols B Strings with Unbalanced Brackets C Strings with Balanced Brackets D Strings like {SSSS}… 117 L={xcxr / x Є (a,b)* } can be recognized by A FA B NFA C NFA - Λ D Push Down Automata 118 A function f is called bijection if f is A onto B surjective C Both onto and surjective D None of these 119 0(1+0)*0 represents all strings A Starting with 0 B Ending in 0 C Contains substring 00 D Starting with and ending in 0 120 Total no. of substrings of the letter “TOC” (without considering NULL) equal to A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6
  • 63. 7 An algorithm is made up of 2 modules Ml and M2. If order of M1 is f(n) and M2 is g(n) then the order of the algorithm is A max (f (n) ,g (n)) B min (f (n) ,g (n) ) C f (n) + g (n) D f (n) x g (n ) 1 The depth of a complete binary tree is given by A Dn = n log2n B Dn = n log2n+1 C Dn = log2n D Dn = log2n+1 2 Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and- conquer type? A Bubble sort B Insertion sort C Quick sort D All of above 3 The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by A Counting microseconds B Counting the number of key operations C Counting the number of statements D Counting the kilobytes of algorithm 4 The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when A Item is somewhere in the middle of the array B Item is not in the array at all C Item is the first element in the array D Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all 5 The Average case occur in linear search algorithm A When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array B When Item is not in the array at all C When Item is the last element in the array D When Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all 6 The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is A O(n) B O(log n) C O(n2 ) D O(n log n)
  • 64. 8 There are 4 different algorithms AI, A2, A3, A4 to ·solve a given problem with the order Iog(n), log(log(n)), nIog(n) ,n / log(n) respectively. Which is the best algorithm? A A1 B A2 C A3 D A4 9 The time complexity of an algorithm T(n), where n is the input size, is given by T( n) = T( n - 1) + (1/n) if n > 1 The order of this algorithm is A log n B n C n2 D nn 10 The running time of an algorithm is given by T(n) = T(n - 1) + T(n - 2) - T(n - 3), if n > 3 n, otherwise. A n B log n C nn D n2 11 Which of the following algorithms solves the all-pair shortest path problem? A Dijkstra's algorithm B Floyd's algorithm C Prim's algorithm D Warshall's algorithm 12 For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m + n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m + n) D O(log(m) + log(n)) 13 Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick sort algorithm? A Dynamic programming B Backtracking C Divide and conquer D Greedy method 14 The correct matching for the following pairs is (A) 0/1 Knapsack (1) Greedy (B) Quick sort (2) Depth-first search (C) Minimum weight (3) Dynamic programming (D) Connected Components (4) Divide and conquer
  • 65. A A-2 , B-4 , C-1, D-3 B A-3 , B-4 , C-l , D-2 C A-3 , B-4 , C-2 , D-1 D A-4 , B-1 , C-2 , D-3 15 In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a single linked list of length n for a given element is A log(n) B n/2 C log(n/2)-1 D n 16 For the bubble sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? (assume that the computation stops as soon as no more swaps in one pass) A best case: O(n) worst case: O(n*n) B best case: O(n) worst case: O(n*log(n)) C best case: O(1) worst case: O( n ) D best case: O(n*log(n)) worst case: O(n*n) 17 When we say the order of a tree is M, we mean A Every non-leaf node must have M subtrees B Every non-leaf node must have M keys C Every non-leaf node can have at most M subtrees D The Height of the tree is M. 18 Worst case Time Complexity of Merge Sort is A O(n2 ) B O(n log(n) ) C O(2 log(n) ) D O(n2 log(n) ) 19 The number of edges in a Minimum Spanning Tree of a connected Graph G with n vertices is A n log(n) B n! C n*(n-1)/2 D n - 1 20 Time Complexity of Tower of Hanoi Problem (Recursive) with n disks is A n2 B 2n C 3n D n3 21 Total Degree of a Triangle is A 6 B 4 C 3 D 2 22 Travelling Salesman Problem is A NP Problem B P Problem
  • 66. C Halting Problem D All of Above 22 For the Quick sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the best/worst case? A best case: O(log(n)) worst case: O(n2 ) B best case: O(n2 ) worst case: O(n log(n)) C best case: O(n log(n) ) worst case: O(n2 ) D best case: O(n2 ) worst case: O(n2 log(n) ) 23 A Bi-connected Graph Certainly does not contain any A Cycle B Path C Parallel Edges D Cut Vertex 24 N-Queens Problem can be solved easily by A Dynamic Programming B Backtracking Method C Greedy Method D Divide and Conquer Method. 25 Max Heap Tree has following Property. A Right Child > Parent B Both Children > Parent C Both Children < Parent D None of above 26 Heap Tree is A Complete Binary Tree B Cyclic Graph C 3-way Search Tree D Forest 27 Dynamic Programming Method is not suitable to solve A 0/1 Knapsack Problem B Making Change Problem C Binomial Co-efficient D Fractional Knapsack Problem 28 Krushkal’s Algorithm uses A Greedy Method B Divide and Conquer Method. C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound Method 29 NP Problem is A Polynomial Problem B Non Deterministic Polynomial Problem C Easy to Solve problem D All of Above 30 For a same problem If Time Complexity of Recursive algorithm is x and Time Complexity of Iterative algorithm is y, then A x < y B x > y
  • 67. C x = y D can not be said 31 for(i=1 ; i<=n ; i++) printf(“**”) ; The above C code has Time Complexity of A 1 B log(n) C n log(n) D N 32 Binary Search Method has Worst Case Time Complexity of A 2n B nlog(n) C log(n) D n*n 33 The number of ways to multiply 4 Matrices in a Chained Matrix Multiplication A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 34 Worst case Time Complexity of Linear Search is A O(n) B O(log(n)) C O(1) D O(nlog(n)) 35 Breadth First Search method uses A Stack B Queue C Hash Table D None of these 36 Minimum no. of states to Search/Recognize string “nano” with Finite Automata is A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 37 Following is a NP Problem related to Graph A To find Longest Path B To find Shortest Path C To find Minimum Spanning Tree D To find a Cycle 38 The “Principle of Optimality” is used in A Greedy Method B Backtracking C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound 39 Worst case Time Complexity of Multiplication of two n X n Matrix is A n2 B n2 log(n) C n log(n) D n3 40 Worst case Time Complexity of Addition of two n X n Matrix is A n2 B n2 log(n) C n log(n) D n3
  • 68. 41 The running time of the following sorting algorithm depends on whether the partitioning is balanced or unbalanced A Insertion sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort 42 The average case complexity of Insertion Sort is A O(2n ) B O(n2 ) C O(n3 ) D O(2n) 43 The spanning tree of connected graph with 10 vertices contains A 9 edges B 10 edges C 11 edges D 11 vertices 44 Worst case Time Complexity of Heap Sort Algorithm is A O(log(n))2 B O(n) C O(n2 ) D O(nlog(n)) 45 In a heap tree bottom level should be filled A From left to right. B From right to left. C Completely. D None of these 46 The height of heap tree of N data is A O(N) B O(N log(N)) C O(log(N) ) D O(2N) 47 A sorted array in ascending order is A MAX Heap B MIN Heap C Not a Heap Tree D None of these 48 Which of the following algorithm do not have a time complexity of O(n2 ) A Bubble Sort B Shell Sort C Radix Sort D Quick Sort 49 Consider the Array: 26, 35, 11, 49, 54, 30, 80. How array will look like after 2 (two) iterations of Bubble Sort? A 26, 11, 35, 49, 54, 30, 80 B 26, 11, 35, 49, 30, 54, 80 C 11, 26, 35, 30, 49, 54, 80 D None of these
  • 69. 50 In a Selection Sort of n elements, how many times is the swap function called in the complete execution of the algorithm? A 1 B n-1 C n log(n) D n2 51 Which of the following sorts have a O(n log(n)) Worst case performance? A Insertion Sort B Quick Sort C Heap Sort D None of these 52 An hash table with chaining as a collision resolution technique degenerates to a A Stack B Queue C Linked List D Tree 53 Consider the following statements. I. An algorithm is a no. of steps to be performed to solve a problem. II. To a given problem there may be more than one algoritm. A Only I is correct B Only II is correct C Both I and II are false D Both I and II are correct 54 Analyzing of an algorithm involves A Evaluating the complexity only B Validating the algorithm Only C Both Validating the algorithm and Evaluating the Complexity D None of these 55 The running time of an algorithm means A No. of Primitive Operations(Steps) executed in a machine- independent manner B Time taken on a Standard Computer to execute the program C Time taken by the algorithm on a particular input size. D None of these 56 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these
  • 70. 57 f(n) = (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these 58 f(n) = O (g(n) ) is A g(n) is asymptotic upper bound for f(n) B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound for f(n) C g(n) is asymptotic lower bound for f(n) D None of these 59 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) implies A f(n) = O (g(n) ) only B f(n) = (g(n) ) only C f(n) = O (g(n) ) and f(n) = (g(n) ) D None of these 60 T(n) = 2 T(n/2) + k.n , where k is constant, then T(n) is equal to A O(n log(n)) B O( log(n) ) C O(n ) D O(n2 ) 61 Time Complexity of Recursive Fibonacci algorithm is A O(n2 ) B O(n3 ) C O(n2 log(n) ) D O(Cn ), where C is a constant 62 Assume the input array is nearly sorted. Then performance of Quick sort is A Better than Average case B Worst than Average case C Same as in Average case D None of these 63 At least how many comparisons are required for merging two sorted lists of n elements each? A 2n -1 B n-1 C 2n+1 D n 64 Which of the following data structure may be used to aid implementation of radix sort? A Stack B Heap C Binary Search Tree D Queue 65 What is the preferred form of representation of Dense graph? A Adjacency Matrix B Adjacency List
  • 71. C Incidence Matrix D None of these 66 What is the running time of an efficient algorithm to find an Euler Tour in a graph if one exists? A O( |V| ) B O( |E| ) C O( |V| |E| ) D O( |V|2 ) 67 Following Problem(s) is NP Complete A Vertex Cover B SAT(Satisfiable) C K-Colouring D All of these 68 Graphs are represented using A Adjacency tree B Adjacency linked list C Adjacency Graph D Adjacency Queue 69 Infinite recursion leads to A Overflow of run-time stack B Underflow of registers usage C Overflow of I/O cycles D Underflow of run-time stack 70 The running time for creating a heap of size n is A O (n) B O (log n) C O (n log n) D O (n2 ) 71 Recursive procedures are implemented by using ____ data structure. A Queues B Stacks C Linked Lists D Strings 72 A technique for direct search is A Binary Search B Linear Search C Tree Search D Hashing 73 For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the degree of each vertex is equal to A 2n B (2n-1)/2 C 2e D e2 /2 74 Which of the following sorting methods would be most suitable for sorting a list which is almost sorted A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
  • 72. 75 A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left. The output sequence will be in A Ascending order B Descending order C Bitomic sequence D No specific order 76 Quick sort is also known as A merge sort B heap sort C bubble sort D None of these 77 An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities f (n) and g (n). Then the complexities of the algorithm is in the order of A f(n) x g(n) B Max ( f(n),g(n)) C Min (f(n),g(n)) D f(n) + g(n) 78 The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes A O(1) time B O(n2 ) time C O( log n ) time D O(n log n ) time 79 The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e edges is A O(e) B O(n) C O(e2 ) D O(n2 ) 80 Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use A Hash Tables B Linear lists of Records C Binary Search Tables D Binary Search Trees 81 For merging two sorted lists of size m and n into a sorted size of m+n, we require comparisons of A O(m) B O(n) C O(m+n) D O(log(m) + log(n )) 82 The running time T(n) is given as T(n) = c + T(n-1) , if n >1 = d , if n<=1 The order of the algorithm is
  • 73. A n2 B n C n3 D nn 83 Which of the following shows the correct relationship? A O(nlog(n) ) < O(n) B O(2n ) < O(n2 ) C O(n3 ) < O(n2 log(n) ) D O(log(n) ) < O(n) 84 Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is a method to traverse A Graph using shortest path B All successors of a visited node before any successors of any of those successors C A single path of the graph as far as it can go D None of these 85 The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks them up one by one , is an example of A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort C Insertion Sort D Merge Sort 86 The concept of Order (Big O) is important because A It can be used to decide the best algorithm that solves a given problem B It determine the Maximum space occupied by the algorithm C It is the lower bound of the growth rate of the algorithm D None of these 87 The common implementation of a heap is A Array B Linked List C Multilinked Structure D Doubly Linked List 88 The depth-first search A Uses a queue B Uses a stack C Searches a tree D Searches a linked list 89 For NP-Complete problem A Several Polynomial time algorithms are available. B Polynomial Time algorithms are not exist, hence can not be discovered
  • 74. C No Polynomial Time algorithm is discovered yet D None of Above 90 If P(n) = n2 then what is correct? A P(n) = n3 B P(n) = n4 C P(n) = n2 D All of the above 91 An algorithm A Is a finite set of instructions B Any well defined computational procedure C Zero or more quantities are externally supplied and at least one quantity is produced. D All are correct 92 Which of the following is type of amortized analysis? A Aggregate Method B Accounting Method C Potential Method D All of these 93 Divide and Conquer is a general design paradigm does not consist the following part A Divide B Recursion C Iteration D Conquer 94 f(n) =n2 , g(n) = n3 ,then which of the following is not correct? A g(n) = (n) B g(n) = O(n2 ) C g(n) = O(n3 ) D g(n) = (f(n)) 95 In the division method for creating hash function, which of the following hash table size is appropriate? A 2 B 4 C 7 D 8 96 Greedy Algorithms have following characteristic. A Objective function B Feasible solution C Selection function D All of these 97 Divide and Conquer method is not suitable to solve Problem like A Merge Sort B Finding Minimum Spanning Tree
  • 75. C Exponentiation D Binary Search 98 “Chained Matrix Multiplication” can be solved by A Dynamic Programming B Greedy Method C Branch & Bound D Backtracking 99 “Longest Common Subsequence” Problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Dynamic Progamming C Backtracking D None of these 100 What is the minimum number of Stacks of size n required to implement a Queue of size n? A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 101 Maximum number of edges in a n node graph is A n(n-1)/2 B n2 C n2 log(n) D n+1 102 Level Ordered Traversal of a Rooted Tree can be done by starting from the root and performing A In-order traversal B Preorder traversal C Breadth First Search D Depth First Search 103 Which of the following Pairs of traversals define Binary Tree uniquely? A Pre-order and Post- order B In-order and Pre-order C Level –order and Post- order D None of these 104 The Time Complexity of finding Transitive Closure of a Binary Relation on a set of n elemtns is known to be A O (n3 ) B O (n) C O (n2 log n) D O (n2 ) 105 In a binary max heap containing n elements, the smallest element can be found in A θ (1 ) B θ (n ) C θ (log(n) ) D θ (nlog(n) ) 106 Which of the following sorting algorithm has minimum worst case time complexity?
  • 76. A Selection Sort B Bubble Sort C Quick Sort D Merge Sort 107 Which of the following is not a Graph Traversal technique? A In-order Traversal B BFS C DFS D None of These 108 Greedy algorithms have following characteristics A Objective function B Feasible solution C Selection Function D All of these 109 Divide & Conquer can’t solve Problems like A Merge Sort B Exponentiation C Minimum Spanning Tree D Binary Search 110 Chained Matrix Multiplication problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Dynamic Programming C Backtracking D None of these 111 Longest Common Subsequence Problem can be solved by A Greedy Method B Divide & Conquer C Dynamic Programming D None of these 112 If there is an NP-Complete Language L whose Complement is in NP, Then the Complement of any Language in NP is in A P B NP C Both A and B D None of these 113 Both P and NP are closed under the operation of A Union B Intersection C Concatenation D Kleene’s 114 Binary Search method uses as input A Unsorted Array B Linear Linked List C Sorted Array D Hash Table 115 Which of the method is used to solve Recurrences?
  • 77. A Substitution Method B Recursive Tree Method C Master Method D All of these 116 Applying Krushkal’s algorithm to find Minimum Spanning Tree is more suitable for A Sparse Matrix B Dense Graph C Sparse Graph D None of these 117 Applying Prim’s algorithm to find Minimum Spanning Tree is more suitable for A Sparse Matrix B Dense Graph C Sparse Graph D None of these 118 Algorithm analysis is useful for finding A Space Complexity B Time Complexity C Correctness D All of these 119 Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm? A There must be mechanism to delete or insert elements in the list B there should be the direct access to the middle element in any sublist C The list must be sorted D None of these 120 In Hamiltonian Cycle for n vertices, we A Can visit to same vertex two times B Can’t visit same vertex more than one time C Can omit one vertex D None of these 121 “Preconditioning” term is used with A Linked List B Dequeue C Graph D Priority Queue 122 Min-max Principle is used for A Gaming B Finding Minimum Spanning Tree C Finding Non Leaf Node D Divide and Conquer 123 The approach used by linear search is A Greedy B Divide & Conquer C Probabilistic D Brute-Force
  • 78. 124 One NP-Complete Problem can be reduced to another problem of NP in What time? A Polynomial Time B Exponential Time C Linear Time D Logarithmic Time 125 Which of the following functions are often referred as “exponential growth function”? A 2n , log(n) B 2n , n! C n!, nlog(n) D n!, log(n) 126 Branch & Bound Technique uses A Lower Bound B Upper Bound C Both Lower Bound & Upper Bound D None of these 127 Simple Merge merges A Two sorted array B Two unsorted array C Two Trees D None of these 128 In Dynamic Programming after table is created of m rows and n columns, finding a particular solution takes order of A log(m) B m*n C m+n D n2 129 Feasible Solution in Greedy Method is A Satisfying constraints B Always optimal C Not a solution D None of these 130 Which of the following is not a property of algorithm? A Finiteness B Effectiveness C Unambiguousness D None of these
  • 79. A C is middle level language B C has no I/O statements C C supports bit-wise operators D All of the above A / B % C * D None of the above A - (hyphen) B _ (underscore) C & (ampersand) D | (pipe) A It is definition B It is function declaration C it is declaration D It is error A '1' B "1" C 1 D None of the above A 32 bits B 64 bits C 80 bits D 128 bits A long int B long float C long double D All are correct A %ld B %li C Both A and B D None of the above A bits B bytes C words D double words A != B ! 3 Which of the following symbol is permitted in C variable name? 4 What is true for the following C statement? extern int x; 1 Which of the following is true? 2 Which of the C operator finds the remainder of integer division? 9 The sizeof operator gives the size of data in 7 Which of the following is not valid? 8 Which is correct format specifier for long integer? 5 Which of the following is character constant in C? 6 The size of long double in ANSI C is 10 Which of the following is not a logical operator in C? SUJJECT CODE: 1/21 PGCET
  • 80. C && D || A sizeof B ! C ~ D bitwise & A ?? B $$ C ## D None of the above A short int B unsigned short int C unsigned char D char A 0 to 128 B 0 to 255 C -128 to +127 D None of the above A 4 B 8 C 16 D 32 A -4.5 B 78 C 3.15 D All are valid A 'f' B 'r' C 'a' D None of the above A max1 B max$ C max_1 D max_high A auto B extern C static D volatile 14 The range of 'unsigned char' in C is 15 What is the value of C expression 16 >> 2? 12 Trigraph character in C starts with 13 Which is the best data type for 8-bit integer? 11 Which of the following is not an unary operator in C? 20 What is the value of x after executing following statement? x = (a=5, b=10, a+b); 18 Which of the following is not a valid variable name in C? 19 Value of which type of C variable can be changed by external source? 16 Which of the following is not a valid floating point constant? 17 Which of the following character constant is used for bell? SUJJECT CODE: 2/21 PGCET
  • 81. A 15 B 10 C 5 D None of the above A Character A B ASCII value of A C error D None of the above A for B while C do-while D All A for B while C do-while D All A structure B union C bit-fields D bitwise operators A sizeof B . (dot) C , (comma) D All are operators A Procedural B Object oriented C Object based D None of the above A 0 B 1 C 0 or 1 D User defined A 23 B 45 C 0 D Can't say A = B . (dot) C () D None of the above 21 What is the output of printf("%d",'A'); ? 26 C is ................ Langauge. 27 The array index in C starts from 24 Which of the C feature indicates it is middle level language? 25 Which of the following is not C operator? 22 Which loop executes at least once? 23 Which of the following loop is an exit control loop? 30 Which C function is appropriate for inputting a string? 28 For C array, int a[5] = {23,45}, the value of a[3] is 29 ............. Operator is used to access the structure member in C. SUJJECT CODE: 3/21 PGCET
  • 82. A gets() B getch() C getche() D All A ; (semicolon) B continue C break D newline A for( ; ; ) { } B while(1) { } C Both A and B D None of the above A $ B Null ('0') character C # D ? A adding two pointers B adding an integer to pointer C assigning pointer to same type D All are possible A int pointer a; B int *a; C *int a; D int a*; A int B none C void D auto A local B auto C static D All of the above A local B register C static D global A End of main() B End of last function C depends on input D None of the above 32 Which of the following is an example of infinite loop? 33 A string always ends with ............. 31 C uses ................ Statement to separate the cases in switch? 38 Which of the variable type is accessible to all the functions in a file? 39 The logical end of C program is 36 if function does not return value, its return type is 37 Which of the following variable type is used to retain value even after function is over? 34 Which of the following operation can not be performed on pointer? 35 Which of the following is correct pointer declaration in C? SUJJECT CODE: 4/21 PGCET
  • 83. A structure B union C bit-fields D array A Allocating memory at run time B Allocating memory at compile time C Both A and B D None of the above A group of variables of same types B group of variables of different types C group of integer types D None of the above A ampersand (&) B dot (.) C arrow (->) D Any of the above A Logical B Relational C Bit-wise D Arithmetic A Character array B Ends with NULL C Stored as ASCII values D All of the above A declaring a function B defining a function C calling a function D All of the above A return type B name of function C parameters D All of the above A a group of variables B a variable C same as structure D None of the above 44 The && is ................ Operator. 45 What is true regarding C string? 42 A structure in C is 43 Which of the following operator is used to access structure member if pointer to structure is used? 40 Which of the following C data type allocates memory in bits? 41 Dynamic memory allocation in C means 48 An union in C is 49 Which of the following represents the address of variable x? 46 Writing a prototype of a function is same as 47 The function header includes SUJJECT CODE: 5/21 PGCET
  • 84. A *x B %x C &x D !x A x = &a; B x = NULL; C x = 0; D x = 3456; A p1 = p2 B p1 = = p2 C p1 != p2 D All are valid A global B static global C Both A and B D None of the above A global B static C register D None of the above A It must return a value B It must have at least one parameter C Both A and B D None of the above A str = "Hello"; B strcpy(str, "Hello"); C str + "Hello"; D All are valid A value like simple variable B address of another variable C Both A and B D None of the above A It is pointer to pointer B It can store address of an integer variable C It can store address of a pointer to an integer D Both A and C 50 If x is declared as an integer pointer, which of the following incorrect? 51 Assume that p1 and p2 are structure variables of same type, which of the following is valid operation? 56 A pointer variable stores 57 What is true regarding following declaration? int **p; 54 Which is true for a function in C? 55 Assume that a string is defined in C with name str, which of the following is valid operation? 52 Which of the following variable type is not accessible to other files? 53 Which of the following variable has life same as local variable? SUJJECT CODE: 6/21 PGCET
  • 85. A %u B %o C %x D %h A left-justified B right-justified C centre-justified D User defined A main B auto C int D register A All cases must have break B use any variable with switch C default case must be present D None of the above A x++ B x += 1 C x = +1 D x = x + 1 A %= B && C <= D *= A to convert data type B to create new data type C to convert data to desired form for use in expression D All of the above A - + / * = B / * - + = C + - * / = D * / + - = A true B false C always evaluated D None of the above 62 Which one of the following C statement differs from others in effect? 63 Which of the following operation is not valid for float data type? 60 Which of the following is not a C keyword? 61 What is true regarding switch statement? 58 Which of the following specifier is used in C to read number in Hex? 59 By default, the number is ................ in given field width. 66 Right side expression of || operator is not evaluated, if the left side expression is 67 Right side expression of && operator is not evaluated, if the left side expression is 64 Why type casting is used? 65 In which order, following C expression is evaluated? z = x - y + c / 2 * e; SUJJECT CODE: 7/21 PGCET
  • 86. A true B false C always evaluated D None of the above A Both defines new values B both define new pointers C Both defines new data types D None of the above A bit-fields are allowed inside structure only B bit-fields are allowed inside union only C Both A and B D None of the above A nested structure B recursive structure C self-referential structure D Any of the above A nested structure B recursive structure C self-referential structure D Any of the above A delete() B remove() C deallocate() D free() A int B int * C int ** D int & A words B bits C bytes D double words A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16 68 What is similarity between structure and enum in C? 69 Which of the following statement is correct? 74 malloc() allocates memory in terms of …………. 75 How many bytes are used by near pointer in DOS? 72 Which function is used to deallocate the memory? 73 Consider following C statements int *p; p = (???) malloc(100); The ??? Is replaced with which of the following? 70 if a structure inside structure is used, it is called 71 If a structure contains variable of itself as member, then it is called 76 How many bytes are used by far pointer in DOS? SUJJECT CODE: 8/21 PGCET
  • 87. A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16 A (++*ptr) B (*ptr++) C Both A and B D None of the above A 50 B 51 C error D None of the above A 50 B 51 C error D None of the above A 1 B 0 C -1 D Error A 1 B 0 C -1 D Error A 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 B 10 C Error D None of the above 80 If str1 and str2 are same, what is return value of strcmp(str1,str2); 81 If str1 lexically comes before str2, what is return value of strcmp(str1,str2); 78 Consider the following C statements. int y=50; const int x=y++; printf("%dn", x); What is output? 79 Consider the following C statements. int y=50; const int x=++y; printf("%dn", x); What is output? 77 If p is an pointer to integer, which of the following increments the value of variable pointed by p? 82 What will be output of following? for(i=0;i<10;i++); printf("%d ",i); 83 What will be output of following? for(i=0;i<10;); printf("%d ",i); SUJJECT CODE: 9/21 PGCET
  • 88. A 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 B 10 C 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 D No output as printf never execute A Hello B Fine C Compile error D HelloFine A max(x, max(y,z)); B max(max(x,y),z); C max(max(x,y),max(y,z)); D All of the above A exch(x,y); B exch(&x,&y); C exch(); D exch(5,y); A ptr is a function returning an integer B ptr is a pointer to function returning an integer C ptr is a function returning a pointer to integer D None of the above A Hello B Hello World C Hello World D Hello World A printf("n"); B printf("n"); C printf("n"); D printf("/n"); A 7 B 5 C 6 D 0 86 For the following function prototype, which of the call is correct? void exch(int *, int *); 87 What is the meaning of following statement? int *ptr(a,b); 84 What would be output of following? int x = 5; If (x = 5) printf("Hello"); else printf("Fine"); 85 if function max() finds the maximum of two numbers, which of the following determines maximum of three numbers? 90 What would be the output of following statements? char str[] = "0World"; printf("%s",strlen(str)); 88 What would be the output of following statements? char str[] = "Hello0World"; printf("%s",str); 89 Which of the following prints 'n'? SUJJECT CODE: 10/21 PGCET
  • 89. A reserve word B library function C user defined function D All of the above A 0 B 9 C 18 D None of the above A used to break block B used to break the loop C used to return from function D None of the above A local variable B static variable C global variable D None of the above A All the elements are of same type B Array name is an address of first element C Array index starts from 0 D All of the above A char **ptr[5]; B char *ptr[5]; C char (*ptr)[5]; D None of the above A All the elements B only first element C address of first element D None of the above A 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 A Hello B Hello World C World D NULL 92 In C expression (5/10)*(f - 32), if f = 50, what would be value of expression? 93 Which of the following is true regarding break statement? 91 The main() in C is 98 How many bytes are occupied in memory by following string? char str[]="Computer"; 99 if for a scanf("%s",str); input is "Hello World", the str stores 96 Which of the following declaration is true for "array of 5 pointers to char" 97 When an array is passed as argument to function, what is actually passed? 94 The life of local variable declared in main() is same as 95 Which of the following is true for C array? 100 How can we declare generic pointer in C? SUJJECT CODE: 11/21 PGCET
  • 90. A Not possible B generic *ptr; C NULL *ptr; D void *ptr; A dangling pointer B dealign pointer C null pointer D nomemory pointer A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 A #define B const C enum D Any of the above A Defining a local and a global variables with same name B Defining a local variable inside a function with same name as function argument C Defining a global variable as static D Defining a function argument as register A file B program C function D block A if x is 6, (y = = 4) is not evaluated B if x is 4, (y = = 4) is evaluated C Both (x > 5) and (y = = 4 ) are evaluated always D All are correct A if x is 6, (y = = 4) is not evaluated B if x is 4, (y = = 4) is not evaluated C Both parts of && are always evaluated D All are incorrect A x = y, y = 10 B y = 10, x = y Which of the following results into an error in C? 102 Consider the following C statements. enum COLOR {RED, BLACK, GREEN, BLUE}; What would be the value of GREEN? 103 Which of the following is best to define multiple named constants in C? 104 101 If a pointer points to memory location which deallocated, it is called 105 If a variable is declared inside a loop, its scope is 108 For C expression x = y = 10; which of the following order is true? 106 For following C expression, what is incorrect statement? (x > 5) || (y = = 4) 107 For following C expression, what is correct statement? (x > 5) && (y = = 4) SUJJECT CODE: 12/21 PGCET
  • 91. C x = 10, y = x D None of the above A It is a variable B occupies memory equal to size of its largest member C It is a group of variable D None of the above A 1 2 3 4 B 2 4 C 1 3 5 D 1 2 3 4 5 A 1 2 3 4 B 1 3 5 C 1 3 D 1 2 3 4 5 A 64 B 128 C 256 D Operating system dependent A argument control B argument count C argument counter D None of the above A x = *p + 1; B *p = *p + 1; C (*p)++; D All of the above A counts from 0 to 9 B counts odd values in array C counts even values in array D counts zero values in array 114 Consider the following C statements. int x = 10; int *p = &x; Which of the following increments x by 1? 115 What the following code performs? int count = 0; for(i=0;i<10;i++) if(a[i]%2) count++; 112 What is the total size of all the command line arguments including spaces? 113 The command line argument 'argc' means 110 int a[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; for(i=0;i<4;i++) printf("%d ",a[++i]); What would be output of above? 111 int a[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; for(i=0;i<4;i++) printf("%d ",a[i++]); What would be output of above? 109 Which of the following is not valid for C union? SUJJECT CODE: 13/21 PGCET
  • 92. A counts from 0 to 9 B counts odd values in array C counts even values in array D counts zero values in array A Another pointer B An integer C Not valid operation D Can't say A a[0] B a[3] C a[6] D a[9] A p = a[0]; B p = &a; C p = &a[0]; D None of the above A It does not use tag B It is not possible to define more variable of this structure at other place in program C It defines one structure variable D All of the above 120 Consider the following C structure. struct { int r_no; char name[20]; } s; Which of the following is true? 118 Consider the following C statements. int a[10], *p; p = a; The expression p+3 points to ....... Element. 119 Consider the following C statements. int a[10]; int *p; p = a; The last statement p = a; is same as 116 What the following code performs? int count = 0; for(i=0;i<10;i++) if(!(a[i]%2)) count++; 117 Assume that p and q are pointers to integers, what will the value of p - q ? SUJJECT CODE: 14/21 PGCET
  • 93. A 20 B 22 C 24 D 26 A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 A p = p + 2*2; B p = p + 2*4; C p = p + 2 * sizeof(int); D All of the above A length of a string B number of character in string C number of bytes occupied D All of the above A 17 B 49 C 25 D Invalid A 17 B 49 C 25 D Invalid A run time B during compilation C before compilation D None of the above 121 Consider the following C structure. struct std { int r_no; char name[20]; } s; What is output of sizeof(struct std) if integer is of 32-bits? 126 Consider the following macro definition. #define SQR(x) ((x)*(x)) The z = SQR(5+2) results into 127 The C statements starting with # are processed at 124 If p points to start of a string and q points to '0' at the end of the string, p - q gives 125 Consider the following macro definition. #define SQR(x) (x*x) The z = SQR(5+2) results into 122 If a structure needs 4 bytes and ptr is a pointer to that structure, the the expression ptr = ptr + 4; internally incremented by ............ Bytes. 123 If p is a pointer to an integer, p = p + 2; is same as SUJJECT CODE: 15/21 PGCET
  • 94. A 0 1 2 B 0 0 1 1 2 2 C Error D None of the above A 0 1 2 B 0 1 2 4 C 0 1 2 3 4 D None of the above A 2 B 4 C 8 D None of the above A 0 1 2 4 B 0 1 2 3 4 C No output D Error 130 How many bytes are allocated to variable of following union? union data { int x; float y; double z; }; 131 Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(i = 3) continue; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? 128 Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<3;i++) { printf("%d",i); break; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? 129 Consider the following C statements. for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(i = = 3) continue; printf("%d",i); } What would be the output of above? SUJJECT CODE: 16/21 PGCET
  • 95. A sum of odd numbers of a[] B sum of even numbers of a[] C sum of all the numbers of a[] D None of the above A unconditional break B unconditional continue C unconditional return in middle of function body D All of the above A 2.0 and 2.5 B 2 and 2 C 2 and 2.5 D 2.5 and 2.5 A sum of odd numbers of a[] B sum of even numbers of a[] C sum of all the numbers of a[] D None of the above A 0xFFF8 B 0xFFFF C 0x0000 D Error 132 Consider the following C statements. int a[5], sum = 0; for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if(!(a[i]%2)) continue; sum += a[i]; } What would be output of above code? 133 Which of the following causes "unreachable statements" error in C? 136 For the following C statement, what will be the value of x in hex? x = -2<< 2; 134 if integers sum = 25 and n = 10, What would be the results of avg = sum/n; and avg = (float)sum/n; if avg is float? 135 Consider the following C statements. int a[5], sum = 0; for(i=0;i<5;i++) { if((a[i]%2)) continue; sum += a[i]; } What would be output of above code? SUJJECT CODE: 17/21 PGCET
  • 96. A 53 B 35 C 573 D Error A 10 B 20 C 30 D Error A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8 A 10,11,12 B 10,11,11 C 11,11,12 D 11,11,11 138 Consider the following C code? union data { int x; int y; } u; u.x = 10; u.y = 20; printf("%d %d %d",u.x); What would be the output? 139 Consider the following C statements. struct value { int b1:1; int b2:4; int b3:4; } bit; printf("%dn", sizeof(bit)); What would be the output? 137 Consider the following C code? union data { int x; char s[2]; } u; u.s[0] = 5; u.s[1] = 3; printf("%d %d %d",u.x); What would be the output? 140 Consider the following C statements. int x = 10; printf("%d %d %d",x++,x,++x); What would be the output? SUJJECT CODE: 18/21 PGCET
  • 97. A 6 8 9 B 0 8 1 C 0 8 9 D None of the above A FFFF B FFFB C FFFE D Error A 0 B 1 C -1 D Error A 6 8 9 B 0 8 1 C 0 8 9 D Error A c = BLACK; B c = 2; C c = (enum COLOR)2; D All of the above 144 Consider the following C statements. enum month {JAN=5,FEB,MAR=8,APR,MAY}; printf("%d %d %d",++FEB,MAR,APR); What would be the output? 145 Consider the following C statements. enum COLOR {RED, BLACK, GREEN, BLUE}; enum COLOR c; Which of the following is incorrect? 142 Consider the following C statements. int y=-5; printf("%x",y); What would be the output? 143 Consider the following C statements. struct data { int d:1; }; struct data x = {1}; printf("%dn", x.d); What would be the output? 141 Consider the following C statements. enum month {JAN=5,FEB,MAR=8,APR,MAY}; printf("%d %d %d",FEB,MAR,APR); What would be the output? 146 void fun(int n) { printf("%d", n); n = - 1; if(n > 0) fun(n); } What would be output of above function when called as fun(5)? SUJJECT CODE: 19/21 PGCET
  • 98. A 5 4 3 2 1 B 1 2 3 4 5 C 5 4 3 2 1 0 D None of the above A 10 20 B 20 30 C 30 20 D Error A 10 20 30 B 30 10 20 C 30 20 10 D Error 148 What would be output of following C code? int x = 10; void main() { int x = 20; { int x = 30; printf("%d ",x); } f(); printf("%d ",x); } void f() { printf("%d", x); } 147 What would be output of following C code? int x = 10; void main() { int x = 20; { int x = 30; printf("%d ",x); } printf("%d ",x); } SUJJECT CODE: 20/21 PGCET
  • 99. A 10 10 10 10 10 B 10 12 14 16 18 C 10 11 12 13 14 D Error A 10 10 10 10 10 B 10 13 16 19 22 C 10 15 20 25 30 D Error 150 What would be output of following C program? int y = 3; void main() { int i; for(i=0;i<5;i++) fun(); } void fun() { int y = 5; static int x = 10; printf("%d ",x); x += y; } 149 What would be output of following C program? void main() { int i; for(i=0;i<5;i++) fun(); } void fun() { static int x = 10; printf("%d ",x); x += 2; } SUJJECT CODE: 21/21 PGCET
  • 100. A logical relation among data items B how data are stored in memory C Both A and B D None of the above A an integer B a structure variable in C C an array D All of the above A mantissa form B sign-magnitude form C Both A and B D None of the above A primitive data structure B non-linear data structure C uses sequential allocation D All of the above A Array B Stack C Linked list D All of the above A Linked list B Tree C Graph D Stack A left-root-right B left-right-root C root-left-right D None of the above A Linear B Binary C Hashing D All of the above A inorder B preorder C postorder D None of the above A inorder B preorder 1 Data structure means 2 Which of the following is a primitive data structure? 7 Which of the following defines preorder sequence? 8 Which search method compares data elements one-by-one in sequence? 5 Which of the following is linear data structure? 6 Windows explorer is an example of ............ data structure? 3 How an integer is stored in computer memory? 4 Which of the following is true for an array? 10 Which of the following tree traversal visits root node last? 9 Which of the following tree traversal starts from root node? SUJJECT CODE: 1/17 PGCET
  • 101. C postorder D None of the above A Tree B Linked list C Stack D Array A Stack B Queue C Both A and B D None of the above A Stack B Queue C Both A and B D None of the above A Stack B Queue C Both A and B D None of the above A FIFO B LIFO C LILO D None of the above A front B rear C top D bottom A front B rear C top D bottom A front pointer B rear pointer C top pointer D None of the above A overflow B underflow C Both A and B D None of the above A overflow B underflow 12 Which of the following follows LIFO manner? 13 Which of the following data structure allows operations at only one end? 11 Which of the following is non-linear data structure? 18 Which of the following points to element to be deleted next in stack? 19 Which of the following condition relates to push operation in stack? 16 Insertion operation occurs at .............. end in a queue. 17 Deletion operation occurs at ............ end in a queue. 14 Which of the following data structure allows operations at both the ends? 15 A simple queue uses ............. order. 20 Which of the following condition relates to pop operation in stack? SUJJECT CODE: 2/17 PGCET
  • 102. C Both A and B D None of the above A Linear B Binary C Hashing D All of the above A Root node have indegree 0 B Should not contain cycle C Outdegree of leaf node is 0 D All of the above A Root B Leaf C Intermediate D All of the above A Not processed directly by machine instructions B user defined data types in C are examples are non-primitive C More complex D All of the above A Computed address B Linked address C Sequential address D None of the above A Computed address B Linked address C Sequential address D None of the above A Run, dynamic B Run, compile C Compile, dynamic D Compile, sequential A it is basic data type B processed by machine directly C Both A and B D None of the above A Root node B Leaf node C Intermediate node D None of the above A Root node B Leaf node 24 What is true for non-primitive data structures? 25 Array uses .................. Method to access the elements. 22 Which of the following is true for tree? 23 Which of the following node in binary tree has indegree 0. 21 Which of the following search method needs data in sorted order? 30 ......... type of node is only one in given tree? 28 An integer is an primitive data type as 29 Which of the following does not have subtree in tree? 26 Linked list uses .................. Method to access the elements. 27 Array is an example of .............. and ............. memory allocation. SUJJECT CODE: 3/17 PGCET
  • 103. C Intermediate node D None of the above A Array B Linked list C Both A and B D None of the above A only one pointer B two pointers C no pointers D None of the above A infix expressions B prefix expressions C postfix expressions D depends on language A infix B prefix C postfix D All of the above A stores address of next node B can be NULL C Both A and B D None of the above A queue B dqueue C stack D None of the above A marked by special node B by storing length of list C using NULL pointer D All of the above A circular linked list B round list C loop D None of the above A zero list B empty list C null list D no node list 31 Stack can be implemented using 36 Which of the following allows insertion and deletion at either end? 37 End of the list is denoted in the singly linked list as 34 Which of the expression is most suitable for evaluation using stack? 35 The address field in the node of singly linked list 32 A node structure for binary tree has 33 The expressions used in programming languages are 40 If the root node of a binary tree has both left and right pointers NULL, then it contains ........... nodes. 38 If last node in linked list points to first list it is called 39 If a linked list has no nodes, it is called SUJJECT CODE: 4/17 PGCET
  • 104. A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 A simple queue B dqueue C circular queue D All of the above A queue B stack C dqueue D circular queue A queue B stack C dqueue D circular queue A left most node in right subtree B right most node in left subtree C root of the left subtree D root of the right subtree A root node B right most node of the tree C left most node of the tree D None of the above A acyclic graph B directed graph C has a root node with indegree 0 D All of the above A linear search B Binary search C hash search D None of the above A push B pop C peep D change A Array B Tree 42 If singly linked list allows insertion at the end and deletion at the start, it implements .................... data structure. 43 If singly linked list allows insertion and deletion only at start, it implements .................... data structure. 41 Which of the following inserts value at first position, if rear end is pointing to last position? 48 Which of the operation returns top most value in stack? 49 Which of the following stores elements in sequential manner in memory? 46 Which is true for tree? 47 Performing search operation in binary search tree is ......... 44 What is true for inorder successor in binary search tree? 45 Inorder traversal of a binary starts from SUJJECT CODE: 5/17 PGCET
  • 105. C Graph D All of the above A linear search B Binary search C hash search D None of the above A Singly linked list B Circular list C Doubly linked list D All of the above A Search B Insertion C Deletion D None of the above A stack B List C Queue D Tree A Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is 0 B Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is 1 C Difference of heights of left and right subtrees is <= 1 D None of the above A Largest of all B smallest of all C Any value D Can't say A It is height balanced tree B Non leaf nodes have 2-3 offsprings C Length of path from root to each leaf is same D All of the above A Largest of all B smallest of all C Any value D Can't say A dqueue B circular queue C priority queue D None of the above 54 Which of the following is true for AVL tree? 55 The value of root node in max-heap is 52 Which of the following binary tree operation does not change the tree? 53 Which of the following data structure is hierarchical? 50 Which of the following search needs data in sorted order? 51 Which of the following list points to previous and next node both? 58 Binary heap is used to implement ............. data structure. 56 Which is true for 2-3 tree? 57 The value of root node in min-heap is SUJJECT CODE: 6/17 PGCET
  • 106. A Array B Binary tree C Both A and B D None of the above A Simple binary tree B Complete binary tree C AVL tree D 2-3 tree A stack B queue C list D tree A Changing value of an element B Reading an element C Inserting a new element D All of the above A Changing value of an element B Deleting an element C Inserting a new element D None of the above A row-major B column-major C Both A and B D Any of A and B A Array B stack C tree D queue A stack B queue C linked list D None of the above A Infix expression B Postfix expression C Prefix expression D All of the above A Random manner B FCFS manner 60 Binary heap is similar to 61 Which of the following is useful for checking the balanced parantheses for the expression? 59 Binary heap can be represented using 66 A line at the cinema hall represents 67 Which of the following also called Reverse Polish notation? 64 C language uses .................. method for array storage? 65 Which of the following is not a linear data structure? 62 Which of the following array operation is time consuming? 63 Which of the following is fastest operation on array? 68 In a priority queue, two elements with same priority are processed in SUJJECT CODE: 7/17 PGCET
  • 107. C Implementation dependent D None of the above A Recursion B Parameter passing C Evaluating postfix expression D All of the above A Linear B Binary C Hash D All of the above A Inorder B Preorder C postorder D None of the above A Allows traversal in both directions B Deletion operation is faster C Needs more memory D All of the above A Singly linked list B Doubly linked list C Circular list D All of the above A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 A stack B queue C list D tree A stack B queue C dqueue D None of the above A input restricted dqueue B insertion restricted dqueue C output restricted dqueue D None of the above 72 What is drawback of doubly linked list compared to singly linked list? 73 Which of the following allows traversal in both the directions? 70 Which of the following search is faster for large data size? 71 Which of the following traversal on binary search tree gives sorted data? 69 Stack is used for which of the following? 76 Which of the following allows insertion and deletion to be performed at either end? 77 If dqueue allows insertion at only one end it is called 74 If first is a pointer to singly linked list and if first->next = NULL, How many nodes does list contain? 75 Conversion from infix to reverse polish expression uses .............. Data structure. SUJJECT CODE: 8/17 PGCET
  • 108. A input restricted dqueue B deletion restricted dqueue C output restricted dqueue D None of the above A number of incoming edges B number of outgoing edges C sum of incoming and outgoing edges D None of the above A number of incoming edges B number of outgoing edges C sum of incoming and outgoing edges D None of the above A circuit networks B transport networks C maps D All of the above A directed, cyclic B undirected, cyclic C directed, acyclic D undirected, acyclic A loop B swing C Both A and B D None of the above A peers B siblings C brothers D All of the above A less than root B greater than root C Random D None of the above A less than root B greater than root C Random D None of the above A Root node B Middle node 78 If dqueue allows deletion at only one end it is called 79 Indegree of a node in a directed graph means 84 The nodes having same parents in tree are called 85 All the nodes in a left subtree of a binary search tree contains keys ......... 82 A tree is ............... and ................. graph. 83 An edge starting and ending in same node is called 80 Outdegree of a node in a directed graph means 81 Which of the following denotes the application of the graphs? 86 All the nodes in a right subtree of a binary search tree contains keys ......... 87 Which of the following node in a tree has no child? SUJJECT CODE: 9/17 PGCET
  • 109. C Leaf node D All of the above A Root node B Middle node C Leaf node D All of the above A Singly linked list B Doubly linked list C Circular linked list D All of the above A swapping data only B swapping links only C Both A and B D None of the above A 15 B 23 C 5 D 35 A All the keys in left subtree are less than root key B All the keys in right subtree are greater than root key C Both A and B D None of the above A Search B Deletion C Traversal D All of the above A Maximum value of the list B Median of the list C Length of the list D Order of the list A Array B Linked list C Tree D Graph 90 Linked list can be sorted by 91 If following is preorder sequence of the tree, what is the value of root? 15 5 7 9 23 17 35 88 Which of the node in a tree has no parent node? 89 Which of the following does not store NULL in pointer field of any of its nodes? 96 Which of the following is true for recursion? 94 Which of the following property is used by binary search but ignored by linear search? 95 Which is most suitable data structure to maintain the ready-queue in process management? 92 What is true for binary search tree? 93 Which of the tree operation visits node exactly once? SUJJECT CODE: 10/17 PGCET
  • 110. A Uses stack B result in infinite loop if not handled properly C Reduces the code size D All of the above A Printing Fibonacci numbers B Reversing a given string C Tree traversals D All are suitable for recursion A direct B indirect C tail D None of the above A Empty left link to point to inorder predecessor B Empty right link to point to inorder successor C Both A and B D None of the above A find inorder successor of the node to be deleted B find inorder predecessor of the node to be deleted C Both A and B D None of the above A finding inorder successor B finding inorder predecessor C Both A and B D None of the above A near-zero matrix B sparse matrix C zero matrix D None of the above A 1's complement B 2's complement C No-complement D 10's complement A Postorder B BFS C DFS D None of the above A k B k/2 97 Which of the following is not suitable for recursion? 102 A large matrix with most of the elements are 0 is called 103 The signed integers are usually stored by programming languages using 100 To delete a node from a binary search tree having both the subtrees non-empty needs to 101 Inorder threading of a binary tree makes ........... operation faster. 98 If function calls itself, it is an example of ............... recursion. 99 Inorder threaded binary tree uses 104 Which of the following is not a graph traversal method? 105 The data with key k is stored at .............. Location using hashing. SUJJECT CODE: 11/17 PGCET
  • 111. C h(k) D log k A Stack B Linear queue C Circular queue D All of the above A < 2N - 1 B = 2N - 1 C > 2N - 1 D None of the above A m B m(m+1) C m(m+2) D m2 A 2004 B 2008 C 2016 D 2020 A 2m bytes B 2m+1 bytes C 2(2m+1) bytes D 2m2 bytes A 4004 B 4008 C 4012 D 4016 A a + i B a + i * 2 C a + i * 4 D a + i * sizeof(data type) A 2010 B 2012 C 2014 D 2016 108 13. How many values can be stored by an array A(-1..m,1..m)? 109 For an array A(1..m), if base address is 2000 and a size of element is 4 bytes, What is the address of A(5)? 106 Which of the following data structure does not allow reuse of the space, until its get empty? 107 If a binary tree has N levels than possible number of nodes in the tree are 114 For an array A(1..3,1..4), give the base address of A(2,3) element if base address is 2000 and size of element is 2 bytes for row major representation. 112 The address of ith element of C array is determined using ......... function. 113 For an array A(1..3,1..4), give the base address of A(2,3) element if base address is 2000 and size of element is 2 bytes for column major representation. 110 For array A(-m..m) with element size 2, how much storage is required? 111 For array A(3..7), if base address = 4000 and size of element is 4 bytes, what is the address of third element? SUJJECT CODE: 12/17 PGCET
  • 112. A 2010 B 2012 C 2014 D 2016 A top = N B top = N - 1 C top = 0 D None of the above A top = 0 B top = 1 C top = -1 D None of the above A front = rear = -1 B front = rear = 0 C front = rear = 1 D None of the above A rear = N B front = rear = N C front = N D None of the above A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 A 1 B N C N + 1 D results in overflow A 1 B N C N+1 D None of the above A rear = N and front = 1 B rear + 1 = front C Both A and B together D None of the above 115 If a stack is implemented using array A[1..N], the stackful condition is 120 In a linear queue implemented with array A[1..N] and if rear pointer is pointing to N, which position the next element is inserted? 121 In a circular queue implemented with array A[1..N] and if rear pointer is pointing to N, which position the next element is inserted? 118 If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N], which of the condition represents queue is full? 119 If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N] and if front and rear pointers are pointing at same location within queue, how many elements queue can have? 116 If a stack is implemented using array A[0..N-1], the initial value of top of the stack pointer is 117 If a linear queue is implemented using array A[1..N], the initial values of front and rear pointers are 122 What is the queue full condition for circular queue implemented using array A[1..N]? SUJJECT CODE: 13/17 PGCET
  • 113. A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8 A 15 B 31 C 63 D 127 A Binary tree B Strict binary tree C Complete binary tree D All of the above A Binary tree B Strict binary tree C Both A and B D None of the above A depth first search B breadth first search C level order traversal D None of the above A LPTR = NULL B RPTR = NULL C LPTR = RPTR = NULL D None of the above A LPRT and RPTR of root node are NULL B Either of the LPRT and RPTR of root node is NULL C Pointer to root node is NULL D None of the above A Linked representation B Array representation C Both A and B D None of the above 126 In which of the following tree, all the levels are full? 127 In which of the following tree, every node has exactly two childs? 124 No. of nodes at level = 3 in a full binary tree (level of root is 0) are 125 Total number of nodes in a full binary tree with height 5 is 123 What is the height of the full binary tree if it has 15 nodes? 132 Which of the following nodes a completer binary can contain? 130 Which of the following determines that the binary tree has only one node? 131 Which of the following is suitable storage structure for binary trees? 128 Preorder traversal is same as 129 If in a binary tree LPTR and RPTR denotes pointers to left and pointer to right subtrees respectively, which of the following condition for given node determines whether it is leaf node or not? SUJJECT CODE: 14/17 PGCET
  • 114. A 30 B 31 C 32 D Any of the above A i/2 with truncation B 2i C 2i+1 D None of the above A i/2 with truncation B 2i C 2i+1 D None of the above A i/2 with truncation B 2i C 2i+1 D None of the above A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 A 6 B 10 C 11 D None of the above A 1 3 5 6 8 9 B 9 6 3 1 8 5 C 9 3 6 8 5 1 D 9 5 6 8 3 1 A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 133 If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find parent of ith node? 138 Which of the following is valid sequence in an array representing 3-ary max-heap? 139 A binary search tree is build by inserting numbers in following sequence. 10 1 3 5 15 12 16 What is the maximum height of a leaf from root node? 136 What is maximum height of any AVL tree with 7 nodes if height of tree with single node is 0. 137 If a binary tree is stored in array, the right child of node at position 5 is at 134 If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find left child of ith node? 135 If a complete binary tree is stored in array A[1..N], How do you find right child of ith node? 140 A binary search tree is build by inserting numbers in following sequence. 7 5 1 8 3 6 0 9 4 2 What would be the inorder traversal of resulting tree? SUJJECT CODE: 15/17 PGCET
  • 115. A 0 2 4 6 8 1 3 5 7 9 B 9 7 5 3 1 0 2 4 6 8 C 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 D None of the above A top1+top2 = N B top1 = N/2 and top2 = N C top1 = top2 -1 D None of the above A b c / a + d e * - B a b + c d - / e * C a b + d e * c / D None of the above A 7 5 13 17 15 10 B 7 5 13 10 15 17 C 5 7 13 17 15 10 D None of the above A *+ab/c-dg B *a+bc/-dg C -*a/+bcdg D None of the above A {25,12,16,13,10,8,14} B {25,14,13,16,10,8,12} C {25,14,16,13,10,8,12} D None of the above A Inserts a node B deletes first node C No effect D None of the above A Inorder B preorder C postorder D level order 144 The preorder traversal of a*(b+c)/d-g is 145 Which of the following array represents a binary max-heap? 142 What is the postfix expression for infix expression : a + b / c - d * e ? 143 Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 What is correct postorder sequence? 141 Assume that array A[1..N] is used to implement double stack. Two stacks grow from opposite side and top1 and top2 are the top pointers for them. Which of the following is "stack full condition"? 146 Assume that first is a pointer to singly linked list having more than 2 2 nodes, what is the effect of following operation? first = first->next; 147 A binary tree is created by inserting following sequence. 6 10 25 12 4 7 15 8 33 Which traversal does following sequence shows? 6 4 10 7 25 8 12 33 15 SUJJECT CODE: 16/17 PGCET
  • 116. A Node is found B A leaf node is reached C Either of A or B D None of the above A 2 B 3 C 4 D None of the above A 2 B 3 C 4 D None of the above 150 Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 How many nodes are there in right subtree? 148 The search ends in binary search tree, when 149 Assume that the following are the sequence resulted using the inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree. Inorder: 5 7 10 13 15 17 Preorder: 10 5 7 15 13 17 How many nodes are there in left subtree? SUJJECT CODE: 17/17 PGCET
  • 117. A Mesh B Ring C Star D Bus A 100 Hz to 5MHz B 100 Hz to 500MHz C 100 KHz to 500MHz D None of these A 45 B 90 C 68 D 180 A Network Layer B Data link Layer C Transport Layer D Physical Layer A Process Number B Computer's Physical Address C Equivalent to IP Address D None of these A Minimum Transfer Unit B Maximum Transfer Unit C Minimum Transmission Unit D Maximum Transmission Unit A Switch B Repeater C Router D Bridge A Maps host name onto their network addresses B Allow user to login one machine from distant machine C Move news article around D Fetch pages from www A Transport Layer B Network Layer C Physical layer D Data link Layer 10 Congestion Control is done at 3 When the angle of refraction is 90 degrees and the angle of incidence is 68 degrees, then the critical angle would be 4 End-to-End connectivity is provided from host-to-host in 9 Segmentation is done at 7 Which is the devices belongs to the OSI physical layer? 8 Virtual Terminal (TELNET) 1 Which of the following topologies follows the primary-secondary relationships between the devices? 2 Frequency range of the coaxial cable is 5 Port number is 6 MTU Stands for SUJJECT CODE: 1/34 PGCET
  • 118. A Physical layer B Data link Layer C Transport Layer D Network Layer A Non-return to zero code B polar code C bipolar code D both A and B A The bandwidth requirement is different B clocking is derived from data in synchronous transmission C Pusle height is different D Clocking is mixed with data in asynchronous transmission A Error checking B collision avoidance C clock synchronization D Broadcast A Bits B Segments C Frames D Packets A No of bits tramsmitted per unit time B No of signal units per second to represent the bits C No of pulse transmitted per unit time D No of bits received per unit time A Coaxial Cable B Waveguide C Fiber optics cable D All of these A Coaxial Cable B Twisted pair cable C Fiber optics channel D Microwave transmission A Compuetr ports B Buffer memory C Interfaces D Modems A 18 The transfer of data from CPU to peripheral devices of the computer system is achieved 19 If switches are used to replace the hubs on a network, which of the following statement is true? The number of broadcast domains will increase 16 Which of the following is a example of bounded mediaum? 17 Wavelength Division Multiplexing is used in 14 Which Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is employed at the transport layer 15 Baud rate means 12 Which is the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission? 13 The purpose of preamble in the ethernet is 11 Manchester Code is SUJJECT CODE: 2/34 PGCET
  • 119. B C D A checksum B CRC C simple parity ckeck D two-dimetional parity check A equal to reminder of the sender B nonzero C zero D the quotient at the sender A Error detection B Error correction C Error generation D both A and B A Half Duplex B Balanced Multipoint C Full Duplex D Multipoint Link A Hybrid Network B Ring Network C Star Network D Mesh Network A Is used for channel allocation problem B Is used for Buffering C Is used for data transfer D None of these A Does not requires global time synch B both A and B C Does requires global time synch D None of these A Baseband B CSMA/CD C Broadband D both A and C A BLAST B SDLC C ZMODEM D HDLC 27 Which of the following is a type of coax cabling transmission method? 28 The LLC (Logical Link Control) standard format is based on 26 Pure ALOHA 24 FDDI is a 20 Which error detection method uses ones compliment arithmetic? 25 ALOHA 22 Hamming code is used for 23 HDLC does not support 21 In CRC, there is no error if remainder at the receiver is _____. The number of collision domains will increase The number of collision domains will decrease The number of broadcast domains will decrease SUJJECT CODE: 3/34 PGCET
  • 120. A B C D A 0 to 64 B 0 to 63 C 1 to 64 D 1 to 63 A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 A IP Address B MAC Address C ARP Address D All of these A Interior Gateway Routing Protocol B Internal Gateway Routing Protocol C Internet Gateway Routing Protocol D Interior Gigabit Routing Protocol A I B II C I and II D None of these A Bridges connect two networks at transport layer B Routers are improved Bridges C Bridges are type of inexpensive routers D Routers connect two networks at network layer A After packets B After Data C Before packets D Before Data 37 What is the difference between DTE and DCE devices? 31 The Hamming distance between 001111 and 010011 is 36 In the virtual circuit switching approach, a route is established _____________ are sent 33 IGRP Stands for 34 Which of these true? (I) Transmission is a physical movement of the Information (II) Communication means meaningful exchange of information between two communication entities. 35 Which of the following statement is true about router and bridge? 32 What addressing information is shipped with every network interface card? 29 what is a MAC? 30 In the sliding window protocol, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence number? It is Network layer address of the NIC that cannot be modified It is Network layer address of the NIC that can be modified It is Data-Link layer address of the NIC that cannot be modified It is Data-Link layer address of the NIC that can be modified SUJJECT CODE: 4/34 PGCET
  • 121. A DTE does not clocking while DCE goes according to clocking B DCE does not clocking while DTE goes according to clocking C DTE are capable for routing while DCE are not D DCE are capable for routing while DTE are not A Ethernet B Asynchronous Transfer Mode C Token Ring D Token Bus A Techniques for Start/Stop data B DTE/DCE Interface C Techniques for dial access D Data Bit rate A Link State routing B Distance vector routing C Dijkstra's algorithm D Path vector routing A the destination network ID B next hop router ID C The Hop count D All of these A Link State routing B Distance vector routing C Dijkstra's algorithm D Path vector routing A Link State routing B Distance vector routing C Dijkstra's algorithm D Path vector routing A Create LSA's B Flood an internet with information C Calculate the routing tables D create a link state databases A Hop-to-Hope delivery B Network-to-Network delivery C End-to-End delivery D Station-to-Station delivery A Tansmission Control Protocol (TCP) B User Datagram Packet (UDP) 45 Transport Layer is responsible for 46 The file transfer protocol FTP requires a realiable transport service, which protocol of the TCP/IP suite does it use? 44 Dijkstra's algorithm is used to 41 A Routing table contains 42 OSPF is based on 43 BGP is based on 40 RIP is based on 38 Which is the most dominant LAN Technology? 39 X.25 standard Specifies a SUJJECT CODE: 5/34 PGCET
  • 122. C Telnet D All of these A Add more memory to router B Replace router with most powerful one C switch to different routing protocol D Implement summarization A Fiber B UDP C Coaxial Cable D STP A Coaxial Cable B CAT4 UTP C Fiber cable D CAT5 UTP A inserting 0 in flag stream to avoid ambiguity B inserting 0 in user data stream to differentiate it with a flag C Appending a nibble to flag sequence D Appending a nibble to user data stream A 255.255.255.0 B 255.255.240.0 C 255.255.192.0 D 255.255.252.0 A class A B class C C class D D class B A 1-2-3-4-5-6 B 1-2-4-5-3-6 C 1-3-4-5-6-2 D 1-2-5-4-3-6 A In NVRAM B In RAM C In ROM D On TFTP Server A Because it uses UDP Protocol B Beacause it allows remote configuration For subnet addresses, (i) 128.252.4.0 (ii) 128.252.8.0 (iii) 128.252.12.0 and (iv) 128.252.16.0 which will be a subnet mask? 47 If your routing table reaches to large size then how could you decrease the size of table? 49 Which of the following is most expensive to install and terminate? 52 Whci of the following network address classes id reserved for multicast addressed only? 50 Bit stuffing means 51 48 Which of the following is the most resistant to electrical and noise interference? 53 Put the encapsulation steps in order: 1:User Input, 2:data, 3:Frame, 4:Segment, 5:Datagram, 6:bits 54 Where router will store the active configuartion file? 55 Why origional SNMP causes greater network overhead? SUJJECT CODE: 6/34 PGCET
  • 123. C Because it can not automatically provide Information to management info base D All of these A Provide a ability to send ACK packet B Segments can be placed back into their correct sequence at destination C Can issue the NOT READY indicator D Providing routing services A 28 B 27 C 32 D 224 A Flow control mechanism B Congection control mechanism C Both A and B D None of these A 8192 B 65536 C 32768 D 16384 A 5 msec B 7 msec C 1.056 sec D None of these A Retransmission B Persistence C Keep alive D All of these A B C D A To provide LAN router functions B To traslate LAN addresses to Physical interface addresses C To translate IP addresses to LAN addresses D To calcuate shortest path between two nodes on a LAN 56 Which of following is not a function of Transport Layer 57 Let in IPv4 datagram, total length is 461 bytes and length of data is 433 bytes, so determine the header size in bytes 58 IP has 59 How many IP addresses are available to company with class B addresses? 60 TCP sending data at 1 meghabyte/s, if sequence number starts with 0, how long does it take before sequence goes 7002? 61 Which of the following is the functinality of TCP timers? 62 As if IP datagram travels from its source to its destination 63 The primary functions of the ARP that resides in Internet hosts and routers is Source IP address is changed at each router to identify the sending router The router uses destination IP address to consult its routing table the router does not use the IP addresses in the datagram Destination IP address is changed at each router to reflect the next hop SUJJECT CODE: 7/34 PGCET
  • 124. A Congestion at Routers B The running out of address space problem C Overflow of buffer at receiver D Duplication of Datagrams A 254 B 126 C 510 D 16372 A 1 and 2 Only B 2 and 3 Only C 1 and 3 Only D 1, 2 and 3 A Authentication B Integrity C Non-repudiation D Privacy A Authentication B Integrity C Non-repudiation D All of these A FTP Server B DNS Server C NNTP Server D File and Print server A Simplify the storage of files B Allow for backup storage of files C Report security violation of files D Facilitate the transfer of files A UDP port 21 B TCP port 21 C UDP port 69 D UDP port 161 A Checksum B sequence number C packet number D source address 64 Subnetting and Supernetting techniques are used to help avoid 65 Given the address 172.16.2.120 and the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many hosts are available? 66 For system using TCP, the sender window size is determined by _______ window size. (1) Receiver (2) Sender (3) Congestion 67 Encryption/Decryption provide the network with 68 Digital signature can provide the network with 69 Which of the following is one of the most important tasks to perform when hardening a DNS Server? 70 What is the primary purpose of the FTP server? 71 SNMP uses which Transport layer port number to communicate? 72 which of the following is included in a packet header to ensure that data split over several packets is reassembled in the correct order? 73 What is the maximum size of the data that application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below? SUJJECT CODE: 8/34 PGCET
  • 125. A Any Size B 2 16 byte C 2 16 byte size of the TCP header D 1500 byte A Bridge is Layer2 device B Bridge used to connect two or more LAN segment C Bridge reduces collision domain D Bridge reduces broadcast domain A Simplex B Half-Duplex C Full Duplex D All of these A SPX B UDP C ICMP D TCP A X 3 + X +1 B X 2 + X +1 C X4 + X +1 D None of these A Error detection B Error correction C Synchronization D Slowing down the communication A Backtracking B Forwarding C Method to combine a data frame and ACK D None of these A 16 B 8 C 4 D 3 A SR protocol with SWS = 1 B GBN protocol with RWS = 1 C SR protocol with SWS = RWS D GBN protocol with SWS = RWS A Distance and size B Distance and Time 74 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding to the Bridge 75 In a broad sense, Railway track is a example of 76 TFTP uses which transport protocol? 77 What is the remainder obtained by dividing X7 + X 5 +1 by the generator polynomial X 3 + 1 78 Start and Stop bits are used in the serial communication for 79 Piggybacking is a method of 80 A computer is using the following sequence numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9,10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 0, 1, ……. Then what is the size of window using selective repeat protocol? 81 Stop and wait protocol equal to 82 Which of the following will descriminate LAN or a WAN? SUJJECT CODE: 9/34 PGCET
  • 126. C Size and shape D Topology and Time A MAC and LLC B L2CAP and MAC C LCAP and MAC D None of these A ALOHA B CSMA/CD C Slotted ALOHA D None of these A NRZ encoding B Manchester Encoding C Both A and B D None of these A suitable for a WAN B Blocked by solid objects C Uses expensive cables D Use copper shielding A Frame-1 B Frame-2 C Frame-0 D None of these A Stop and Wait B Go-back-N C Selective repeat D Both A and B A Time To Live B Time To Learn C Time To Leave D Time To Link A a perticular network B A perticular computer C A perticular person D The perticular location of a computer A Input B Reset C Radio D CheckBox A <td left align> B <td align="left"> 83 The Data-Link layer is devided into 84 In Ethernet, MAC sub-layer uses access method 85 GIGABIT Ethernet uses 86 which of the following is true for infra-red transmission? 87 In Stop and Wait ARQ if ACK1 is sent by receiver then the sender sends 88 in which ARQ, if a NAK is received, only specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted? 89 What is TTL? 90 A subnet mask is the portion of an IP address that identifies 91 Which of the following will create a Push Button? 92 Choose the correct HTML tag for left align the content inside a table cell SUJJECT CODE: 10/34 PGCET
  • 127. C <td ralign="left"> D <tdleft> A Maxlength B Size C Length D None of these A <BODY> B <INPUT> C <VALUE> D <SELECT> A <h1> B <heading> C <h6> D <head> A SUBMIT B ON SUBMIT C ACTION D METHOD A Unformatted tag B Empty tag C Format tag D None of these A <CAPTION> B <DATA> C <GROUP> D <TABLE> A REV B URL C REL D None of these A HTML Extension B HMT Extension C TMH Extension D None of these A One B Three C Two D Four A cannot be determine B <HR size = 10 noshade> 93 In HTML, Which of the following attributes of text control allow to limit the maximum character? 94 In HTML, Which of the following will be considered a container? 95 The correct HTML Tag for largest heading is 96 Which of the following is a not attribute of <FORM> tag 97 The <INPUT> is 98 The main container of the <TR>, <TD> and <TH> is 99 The attribute that defines the releationship between current document and HREF's URL is 100 The MIME text file is saved with 101 How many basic types of bullets supported by the HTML4. 102 Which of the following will display the line with more thickness? SUJJECT CODE: 11/34 PGCET
  • 128. C <Hr Size = 10> D both B and C A Past Office Protocol B Post Office Protocol C Previous Office Protocol D Present Office Protocol A Internet chat B Web browsing C E-mail D Ping A It can be used to prioritize packets B It can be used to reduce delays C It can be used to optimize throughput D It can be used to prevent packet looping A Does not increase B Increases linearly C Increases quadratically D Increases exponentially A They are used to define the content and structure of data B They define a set of symbols and the relationships of those symbols. C They are themselves XML documents. D They have their own syntax. A an intersection table. B global elements C a normalized definition table. D None of the above is correct. A properties and methods B elements and attributes C structure and data D tables and relationships A SOAP B SGML C SQL D ADO A 32 bits B 128 bytes C 64 bits D 128 bits 103 POP stands for 104 Which one of the following is not a client-server application ? 105 One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the (TTL) field. Which of the following statements best explains the need for this field ? 106 In the slow start phase of TCP congesting control algorithm, the size of the congestion window 107 Which of the following statements is not true about XML Schemas? 108 To eliminate definition duplication, XML Schemas define 109 XML Schemas consist of 110 What standard, protocol or language was generalized to become a standard protocol for sending messages of any type, using any protocol? 111 How long is an IPv6 address? SUJJECT CODE: 12/34 PGCET
  • 129. A NAT B Static C Dynamic D PAT A 100 kbps B 1 Mbps C 2 Mbps D 10 Mbps A TCP B ARP C ICMP D BootP A A B B C C D Both A and B A A network with more than one exit point B A network with more than one exit and entry point C A network with only one entry and no exit point. D A network that has only one entry and exit point. A Acts as the fastest port to all servers. B Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port C Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork D Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain. A To create a layered model larger than the DoD model B So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time. C So different networks could communicate. D So Cisco could use the model. A TCP B ICMP C ARP D BootP 112 What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet? 113 You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server? 119 Which protocol does Ping use? 114 Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts? 115 Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default? 116 What is a stub network? 117 What does a VLAN do? 118 What is the main reason the OSI model was created? SUJJECT CODE: 13/34 PGCET
  • 130. A 1 and 3 B 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D All of the above A 1225 B 1280 C 50 D 99 A 30000 bps B 60000 bps C 75000 bps D 3000 bps A 4 B 12 C 8 D 16 A 10 microsecond B 0.1 microsecond C 1 microsecond D 0.001 micosecond A 275 B 240 C 250 D 300 A TTT B TTF C FFT D FTT A 45 B 43 120 Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true? (1) Leading zeros are required. (2) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. (3) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields. (4) A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types. 121 In the network with 50 computers, Mesh topology will requires how many numbers of cables? 122 Maximum data rate of a channel of 3000 Hz bandwidth and S/N ratio of 30 dB is 123 A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps termnals and n no of 300 bps terminals, For 9600 bps outgoing line what will be the value of n? 124 For the fiber optics cable if the propagation speed is 2x10 8 m/s and distance of 2000m then the propogation time would be 125 characters per second (7bit + 1 parity) which can be transmitted over a 2400 bps line if the transfer is synchronous (1 start + 1 stop bit) 126 State True (T) and false (F) of the following (respectively). 1. Hub is multi-port repeater 2. Bridge has filtering capability 3. The bridge changes the MAC address 127 No of cross points needed for 10 lines in a cross point switch which is full duplex in nature and there are no self connection is, SUJJECT CODE: 14/34 PGCET
  • 131. C 50 D 90 A The application Layer B The Data Link Layer C The session layer D The presentation layer A P2 is zero B P2 equals to P1 C P2 is larger than P1 D P2 is smaller than P1 A 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 A 0.12 B 0.06521 C 0.3 D None of these A 2% B 3% C 10% D 5% A 7 B 15 C 4 D 16 A 50sec B 7.1sec C 12.5sec D None of these A Go-back N protocol B SR Protocol C Stop-n-wait protocol D None of these 128 What layer of the OSI model would be connected with network applications such as Telnet and FTP? 129 Consider the signal is measured at two different points. The power P1 is one point and P2 is at second point. If dB is zero then, 130 To correct the single bit error the number of redundancy bit required for 64 bit data 131 What is the probability of exactly 5 collision followed by a success when ALOHA users generate 50 request/second, if time is slooted in units of 40 msec? 132 In a Stop and Wait ARQ bandwidth 1Mbps and 1bit takes 20ms to make a round trip if system data frame are 1000 bit's in length then what is the % of utilization of the link 133 Consider the sliding window algorithm where sender window size is 9 and receiver window size is 7 and no out of order arrivals. What is the smallest value for maximum sequence number? 134 What will be result for the protocol G-Back-N with window size of 7? 135 if we run N simultaneous stop-n-wait ARQ processors parallelly over the transmission channel, then it is equal to 136 if RTT is 40ms and transmission delay is 200ms then what is the throughput of the ethernet? SUJJECT CODE: 15/34 PGCET
  • 132. A 55% B 67% C 50% D None of these A 1000 B 5000 C 100000 D 10000 A 329.14 second B 329.14 ms C 330 second D 330 ms A Fradment offset B Source IP address C Destination IP address D Destination port address A ping B Tracert C A Only D A and B Both A 10 subnet-10 hosts B 1 subnet-254 hosts C 1 subnet-1 hosts D 254 subnet-254 hosts A 510 subnet-126 hosts B 128 subnet-512 hosts C 126 subnet-510 hosts D None of these A HTTP runs over TCP B HTTP describe the structure of web pages C HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL D HTTP can be used to test the validity of the hyperlink A Byte B word C Segment D Message A Broadcast, Unicast B Unicast, broadcast 137 CSMA/CD LAN is designed over a 1km cable without repeater. The minimum frame size that DLL should consider if cable support signal speed of 200000 km/sec is 138 An image is of 1024x768 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume image is uncompressed the how long will it takes to transmit it over 56 kbps modem channel? 139 In the TCP/IP Protocol suite, which on of the following is a NOT part of the IP header? 140 Which of the following command/s is/are supported by ICMP protocol? 141 If you have a network 192.168.10.0/24. How many subnets and hosts are available? 142 If you have a IP 156.233.42.56 with subnet mask of 7 bits. How many hosts and subnets are available? 143 Which of the following statement is FALSE? 144 In TCP, Unique sequence number is assigned to each 145 ARP request is ________________ while ARP reply will __________________ SUJJECT CODE: 16/34 PGCET
  • 133. C Broadcast, broadcast D Unicast, unicast A 22,64 B 20,60 C 28,56 D 30,60 A TCP but not UDP B TCP and UDP C UDP but not TCP D Neither TCP, nor UDP A 255.255.0.0 B 255.255.64.0 C 255.255.128.0 D 255.255.252.0 A 4 B 6 C 7 D 9 A 94 B 416 C 464 D 512 A Half the baud rate B Twice the baud rate C Same as the baud rate D None of these A 500m of cable B 200 m of cable C 20m of cable D 50m of cable A 2 n B 2n-1 C 2 n -1 D 2 n -2 146 A datagram size consists of minimum _________ bytes and maximum _________ bytes 147 Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in 148 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be 149 In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path having two intermediate node. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes, then the optimum packet size is 150 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 sμ . The minimum frame size is 151 In Ehernet when manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is 152 In a token ring network the transmission speed is 10 7 bps and the propagation speed is 200 metres/μs. The 1-bit delay in this network is equivalent to 153 The maximum window size for data transmission using the selective reject protocol with n bit frame sequence number is 154 Which of the following is private IP address? SUJJECT CODE: 17/34 PGCET
  • 134. A 12.0.0.1 B 168.172.19.39 C 172.15.14.36 D 192.168.24.43 A Gateway DP B Reverse ARP (RARP) C Proxy ARP D Inverse ARP (IARP) A Application B Host-to-Host C Internet D Network Access A NAT Fast B NAT Static C NAT Overload D Overloading Static A socket B bind C listen D connect A 40 B 27 C 3 D None of these A 100 MHz to 10 GHz B 100 MHz to 1 GHz C 100 KHz to 100 MHz D 1 GHz to 10 GHz A spreading B dispersion C traversal D None of these A 802.11 B 802.16 C 802.3 D 802.5 A infrastructure mode B Mix mode 155 Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended for a remote host? 156 The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model? 157 Pat Address Translation is also termed what? 158 which of the following system calls results in the sending of SYN packets? 159 In RSA Algorithm, value of p is 5 and q is 11, find the value of decryption key if the value of encryption key is 27 160 Frequency range of the microwaves is 161 Spreading of light rays in all directions perpendicular to direction of travelling is known as a 162 Standard to implement the wireless LAN based on ethernet is 163 The wireless communication between the devices take place without using access point is SUJJECT CODE: 18/34 PGCET
  • 135. C adhoc mode D None of these A microwave range B visible light C A and B Both D None of these A One-way handshaking B Two-way handshaking C Three-way handshaking D None of these A 5000 bytes B 4000 bytes C 1000 bytes D 6000 bytes A keepalive Timer B Time-wait Timer C Stowatch timer D None of these A Super Control Transmission Protocol B Stream Control Transmission Protocol C Special Control Transmission Protocol D Safety Control Transmission Protocol A message-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol D None of these A message-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol D None of these A message-oriented protocol B bit-oriented protocol C byte-oriented protocol D None of these A intradomain routing B autonomous routing C interdomain routing D None of these 164 Fiber optics cable operates in the frequency range of 165 The connection establishment in TCP is called 166 In sliding window protocol, what is the value of the receiver window for host A if the receiver host B has a buffer size of 5000 bytes and 1000 bytes of received and unprocessed data? 167 Which timer is used to prevent a long idle connection between teo TCPs? 168 SCTP stands for 169 UDP is 170 TCP is 171 SCTP is 172 Routing inside an autonomous system is reffered to as 173 Routing between an autonomous system is reffered to as SUJJECT CODE: 19/34 PGCET
  • 136. A intradomain routing B autonomous routing C interdomain routing D None of these A TCP B RIP C OSPF D Both B and C A BGP B RIP C OSPF D None of these A creating multicast backbone B adding multicast routers C adding unicast routing D None of these A TCP B BOOTP C IP D None of these A techniques to handle dynamic documents B techniques to handle static documents C techniques to handle multimedia documents D None of these A image compression techniques B image editing techniques C image handling techniques D None of these A Delay B Jitter C gap D None of these A time limit B left field C timer field D hop limit A encapsulation B tunneling C tunning D mixing 174 Which of the following is intradomain routing protocol 175 Which of the following is interdomain routing protocol 176 On the network, multicast routers are connected to each other logically by 177 DHCP is backward compitible with 178 Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is 179 JPEG is a 180 The delay between two real time packet is called 181 The TTL field of IPv4 is replaced by which filed of IPv6? 182 IP within IP is called SUJJECT CODE: 20/34 PGCET
  • 137. A 40 B 50 C 90 D 2000 A 1 kbps B 4 kBps C 4 kbps D 7 kbps A 8kbps B 16 kBps C 32 kBps D 448 kbps A HELO B MAIL FROM C RCPT TO D None of these A 53 B 54 C 61 D 60 A 20 B 25 C 23 D 24 A 20 B 21 C 22 D 35 A 20 B 25 C 23 D 24 A 161 B 149 C 144 D 143 183 How many cross points are needed in a single stage switch with 40 inputs and 50 outputs? 184 for 64 kbps satellite channel, 512B data frames and RTT=64ms, what is max throughput for the window size of 1? 185 for 64 kbps satellite channel, 512B data frames and RTT=64ms, what is max throughput for the window size of 8? 186 This command identifies the recipient of the mail. 187 What is the port number for Domain Name System service DNS? 188 What is the port number for (Remote login service) Telnet? 189 What is the port number for (File Transfer Protocol - Data) FTP? 190 What is the port number for (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) SMTP? 191 What is the port number for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)? 192 What is the port number for ECHO? SUJJECT CODE: 21/34 PGCET
  • 138. A 10 B 7 C 9 D 8 A datagram switching B circuit switching C frame switching D none of the above A source B destination C local D none of these A process-to-process communication B host-to-host communication C end-to-end reliable data delivery D None of the choices are correct A flow control B connection-oriented delivery C congestion control D None of the choices are correct A transport address B network address C socket address D None of the choices are correct A file type B data structure C transmission mode D none of the choices are correct A file transfer commands B access commands C port defining commands D none of the choices are correct A DATA B ACK C ERROR D none of the choices are correct A the sender sends an error message B the connection is terminated 193 In _________, resources are allocated on demand 194 which address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet? 195 Which of the following functions does UDP perform? 196 Which of the following does UDP guarantee? 197 The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a 198 In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called 199 In FTP, which category of commands defines the port number for the data connection on the client site? 200 In TFTP, a connection is terminated with. 201 In TFTP, if a duplicate DATA message is received SUJJECT CODE: 22/34 PGCET
  • 139. C the receiver discards the duplicate D none of the choices are correct A path B protocol C host D None of the choices are correct A CGI B Java stand-alone programs C Java applets. D None of the choices are correct A UDP B IP C TCP D None of the choices are correct A persistent B nonpersistent C persistent and nonpersistent D None of the choices are correct A HTTP version number B URL C status code D None of the choices are correct A GET B POST C COPY D None of the choices are correct A HEAD B POST C COPY D None of the choices are correct A a static B an active C a passive D a dynamic A POP3; IMAP4 B IMAP4; POP3 C SMTP; POP3 D None of the choices are correct 202 In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the document. 203 One way to create an active document is to use 204 HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80. 205 In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. 206 Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? 207 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the server. 208 The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about a document without retrieving the document itself. 209 An applet is _______ document application program. 210 _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. SUJJECT CODE: 23/34 PGCET
  • 140. A 80176 bps B 38821 bps C 32681 bps D 81056 bps A Gain of 80 dB B Loss of 80 dB C Gain of 20 dB D Loss of 20 dB A 9.375 x 10 -12 watts/Hz B 9.370 x 10 -11 watts/Hz C 9.388 x 10 11 watts/Hz D 9.368 x 10 12 watts/Hz A 0.75 micrometer B 7500 pm C 400 m D Data insufficient A Loss of 7 dB B Gain of 7 dB C Loss of 5 dB D Gain of 5 dB A 600 B 800 C 876 D 1200 A 0.5 B 0.625 C 0.75 D 1 A C1 and C2 both assume they are on the same network B C2 assumes C1 is on same network, but C1 assumes C2 is on a different network 211 Suppose the BSNL telephone line has a bandwidth of 6100Hz the S/N ratio is 40 dB then capacity of the channel would be 212 when the signal travels through the transmission medium, its power becomes 100 times Then gain/loss would be 213 If channel capacity is 250Kbps, find the white noise present in the channel if the signal strength is 15microW and bandwidth is 8000 Hz, SNR=20000. 214 The wavelength of the red light whose frequency is 4x414 Hz in the air is 215 When the signal travels through the transmission medium, its power becomes one fifth Then power 216 How many 8-bit characters can be transmitted per second over a 9600 baud serial communication link using asynchronous mode of transmission with one start bit, eight data bits, and one parity bit ? 217 A and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race, At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is 218 Two computers C1 and C2 are configured as follows. C1 has IP address 203. 197.2.53 and netmask 255.255. 128.0. C2 has IP address 203.197.75.201 and netmask 255.255.192.0. Which one of the following statements is true? SUJJECT CODE: 24/34 PGCET
  • 141. C C1 assumes C2 is on same network, but C2 assumes C1 is on a different network D C1 and C2 both assume they are on different networks A 225.255.255.0 B 255.255.255.128 C 255.255.255.192 D 255.255.255.224 A physical B ATM C Application adaptation D None of these A AAL1 B AAL2 C AAL5 D None of these A VDSL B ADSL C SDSL D None of these A twisted-pair cable B coaxial cable C fiber-optic cable D None of these A connectionless B virtual C connection-oriented D None of these A Flow B Error C Congestion D None of these A ckoke B data C control D None of these 219 Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network ? 220 Which ATM layer has a 53-byte cell as an end product? 221 The IP protocol uses the which sublayer. 222 Which one out of following is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. 223 SONET is a standard for which kind of networks. 224 In which service, there is a relation between all packets belonging to a message. 225 which control means including a mechanism for detecting corrupted, lost, or duplicate packets. 226 which packet is a special packet that can be sent from a router to the sender when the router encounters a congestion. 227 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing SUJJECT CODE: 25/34 PGCET
  • 142. A can be any number B must be a multiple of 256 C must be a power of 2 D None of the choices are correct A must be a power of 4 B must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses C must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes D None of the choices are correct A 2.4.6.5 B 2.4.6.16 C 2.4.6.64 D None of the choices are correct A 12.2.2.0 B 12.2.2.32 C 12.2.2.64 D None of the choices are correct A be a power of 2 B be a multiple of 128 C be divisible by 128 D None of the choices are correct A /9 B /8 C /16 D None of the choices are correct A classless B classless C both classless and classful D None of the choices are correct A /20 B /19 C /20 D None of the choices are correct A next-hop B network-specific C host-specific D default A classful addressing B classless addressin 228 The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing 229 Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? 230 What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? 231 In fixed-length subnetting, the number of subnets must 232 What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? 233 In which addressing, when an address is given, we can find the beginning address and the range of addresses. 234 In a block, the mask is 255.255.255.224; what is the prefix length? 235 In which forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table? 236 The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using SUJJECT CODE: 26/34 PGCET
  • 143. C classful addressing and classless addressing D None of the choices are correct A reduce B increase C reduce and increase D None of the choices are correct A input and output ports B routing processor C switching fabrics D None of the choices are correct A error checking B error correction C datagram acknowledgmen D None of these A the datagram has not been fragmented B the datagram is 100 bytes in size C the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 D None of the choices are correct A offset number B total length C both offset number and the total length D None of the choices are correct A is 20 to 60 bytes long B is 20 bytes long C is 60 bytes long D is 80 bytes long A first cell; last cell B last two cells; last three cells C last cell; last two cells D None of the choices are correct A LAS B LAN C LIS D None of the choices are correct A the destination IP address in the datagram header B the IP address of the router found in the routing table C the source IP address D None of the choices are correct 237 By using of hierarchy in routing tables,the routing tables size will be 238 The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by 239 A best-effort delivery service such as IP includes 240 If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that 241 What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? 242 The IP header size 243 When we use IP over ATM, padding can be added only to the _____ or the _______. 244 ATM network to be divided into several logical subnets with the help of 245 If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is SUJJECT CODE: 27/34 PGCET
  • 144. A 0x000000000000 B 0.0.0.0 C variable D class dependent A timestamp-request message B source-quench message C router-advertisement message D None of the choices are correct A routers B destination hosts C routers or destination hosts D None of the choices are correct A source-based B group-shared C destination-based D None of the choices are correct A data-driven protocol B command-driven protocol C both data- and command-driven D None of the choices are correct A 1, 1 B 1, n C n, 1 D n, n A 1, 1 B 1, n C n, 1 D n, n A 1, 1 B 1, n C n, 1 D n, n A 16 bits B 32 bits C 64 bits D 128 bits 246 he target hardware address on an Ethernet in an ARP request is. 247 If a host needs to synchronize its clock with another host, it sends a 248 Who can send ICMP error-reporting messages? 249 Multicast link state routing uses the which kind of tree approach. 250 MOSPF is a 251 In the stop-and-wait protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______ where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. 252 In the go-back-N protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. number. 253 In the selective-repeat protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. 254 The checksum in SCTP is SUJJECT CODE: 28/34 PGCET
  • 145. A multistream services B multihoming service C multistream and multihoming services D None of the choices are correct A host B network C client D None of the choices are correct A UDP process B TCP Process C SCTP process D None of the choices are correct A UDP process B TCP Process C SCTP process D None of the choices are correct A UDP process B TCP Process C SCTP process D None of the choices are correct A more B less C same D None of the choices are correct A Internet Explorer B HTML C Web Browser D None of thse A <UL> B <OT> C <OL> D None of these A 12 characters B 18 characters C 22 characters D 24 characters 255 The association identifier in SCTP cannot be a combination of logical and port addresses because of 256 Network programming needs information to be in __________ byte order. 257 SOCK_STREAM sockets are used by 258 SOCK_DGRAM sockets are used by ______ processes. 259 SOCK_RAW sockets are used by ______ processes. 260 IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. 261 The web standerd allows programmers on many different computer platforms to dispersed format and display the information server These programs are called 262 Which of following tag will create a number/order list? 263 <DIR> tag can have only 264 The optical amplifier will SUJJECT CODE: 29/34 PGCET
  • 146. A Converts optical signal to electrical signal, reshape and convert back to Optical B Re-amplifies the origional signal C Both A and B D None of these A Converts optical signal to electrical signal, reshape and convert back to Optical B Re-amplifies the origional signal C Both A and B D None of these A 1.544 B 44.736 C 2.048 D 155.52 A 1.544 B 44.736 C 2.048 D 155.52 A HELO B STOP C QUIT D NOOP A Service Area Network B Storage Area Network C Standard Area Network D Super Area Network A Network Analysis Storage B Network Attached Storage C Nework attached service D None of these A only S1 B Only S2 C Both S1 and S2 D None of these A Router B Repeater C Switch D Gateway 265 Optical Regenerator will 266 Interface type T1 can support data rate in Mbps 267 Interface type T3 can support data rate in Mbps 268 Which of the following command of SMTP responsible for terminate SMTP connection 269 SAN stands for 270 NAS stands for 271 Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: The transport layer is responsible for delivery messages between hosts that may or may not be on different networks S2: The network layer is responsible for delivery messages between processes 272 Which of the following devices translates dissimilar network protocols? SUJJECT CODE: 30/34 PGCET
  • 147. A S1 true, S2 false B S1 false, S2 true C Both S1 and S2 are true D Both are false A Guarantees wire speed B Connects multiple segments C Segments by MAC addresses D Runs BGP transport protocol A S1 true, S2 false B S1 false, S2 true C Both S1 and S2 are true D Both are false A 2 bit B 3 bit C 8 bit D 9 bit A VPI and VCI B VCI and VPP C VCP and VPP D None of these A 1 microsecond B 8 microsecond C 1 milisecond D 8 milisecond A 5% B 2.50% C 7.40% D 8.70% 273 Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: MAC addresses are used to address individual devices on the same LAN S2: MAC addresses are assigned by the manufecturer and are globally unique 274 An advantages of a switch over a hub would be 275 Which of the following statements is/are true? S1: Network layer dividing the transmitted bit stream into frames S2: Network layer determining which route through the subnet to use 276 If the divisor is binary equivalent of X8 + X 3 + X + 1 then CRC will be 277 A virtual connection for the ATM network is defined by a pair of 278 The channel capacity is 125 MBPS, maximum packet size is 1000 bytes, round trip time is 100microsecond, then transmission time is 279 The channel capacity is 125 MBPS, maximum packet size is 1000 bytes, round trip time is 100microsecond, then ulilization of the sender is 280 The distance between A and B is 4000km, propagation delay is 5microsecond/km for the both the links. The data rate between A to B is 100kbps and full duplex kind. Data frames are size of 1000 bits long and ACK frames are negligible.Window size is 4. If RTT between A and C is 50ms then what is the distance between B and C? SUJJECT CODE: 31/34 PGCET
  • 148. A 1000 KM B 2000 KM C 3000 KM D 4000 KM A 100 kbps B 150 kbps C 200 kbps D 250 kbps A 4 km B 3.2 km C 2.7 km D 4.8 km A 7 microsecond B 10 microsecond C 11 microsecond D None of these A 40000 B 400 C 5000 D None of these A 4 ms B 0.4 second C 1 second D None of these A 84 ms B 116 ms C 21 ms D 29 ms 281 The distance between A and B is 4000km, propagation delay is 5microsecond/km for the both the links. The data rate between A to B is 100kbps and full duplex kind. Data frames are size of 1000 bits long and ACK frames are negligible.Window size is 4. What is the required transmission rate between B and C so the buffer of the node B are not flooded? 282 Consider 100baseT cable Ethernet with an efficiency of 50%. Assume frame length of 1kB and propagation speed in the cable is 2x10 8 m/sec. Calculate the distance between a node and the hub 283 Consider a token ring consisting of 20 stations with 10 mt distance between each. If propagation speed is 2x10 8 m/sec. and per station 5 bit delay, then what will be ring latency if ring bandwidth is 10Mbps? 284 A 4 Mbps token ring has token holding time value of 10msec. What is the longest frame (in bytes) that can be sent on this ring? 285 Let TCP operates over a 10Gbps link. If TCP uses the full bandwidth continuously, how long would it take the sequence numbers to wraparound completely? 286 if TCP RTT is currently 20 ms and ACK comes in after 30 ms then what is the timeout period for the next transmission? Use alpha=0.9 and Beta=2. SUJJECT CODE: 32/34 PGCET
  • 149. A 11 RTT B 10 RTT C 8 RTT D 14 RTT A TTF B TFF C TTT D FTF A 15 B 30 C 105 D 225 A Configured to allow certain ports to access the VPN B Physically protects the network from catching fire C Restrict the use of specific application software on the network D Limits the speed in which transmission of data is carried out A IP version 4 B IP version 6 C Both D None of these A Only 1 Hop B Only 2 Hop C Only 3 Hop D None of these A Authentication protocol B Security protocol C Integrity protocol D None of these 287 Assume a TCP implementation over a 10Gbps link with one way delay of 80ms. If TCP receiver window is 2MB and TCP send 1kB packet then how many RTTS does it take until slow start opens the congestion window to 2MB? Assume no congestion and no packet lost. 288 State true (T) and false (F) of the following Persistent connection is default in HTTP 1.1 HTTP supports proxy servers HTTP uses well known port 23 289 There are 15 users communicationg to each other. How many pairs of the keys are required to authenticate the communication is symmetric key is used? 290 In which way does a Firewall increase the security of a VPN? 291 The initial 8 bits of the IP packets are 01000010, Then what will be the version of IP version 292 An IP pcaket has arrived with the first few hexadecimal digits as below, then how many hops this packet can travels? 45000028000100000102……… 293 Kerberos is a 294 If transmitted bit sequence is 111000111000 the which of the following is a example of burst error SUJJECT CODE: 33/34 PGCET
  • 150. A 111100111000 B 111000111100 C 111010111000 D 111111111000 A XHTML B XL Link C Xpath D Xreference A Coding style B Document model , a specification C Document Object Model, a parser D None of these A DOM B SAX C Either A or B D None of these A Simplex, Complex B Machine dependent, machine Independent C Standard, custom D String, Number A Schema B DTD C XSLT stylesheet D Both A and B A SOAP B RemoteXML C XML-RPC D None of these 295 Xpointer specification essentially extends you which specification 296 DOM is a 297 If we have to process huge XML document to read it and to insert the records in to the database, and there are limited memory resources, which parsing API would you use? 298 XML Schema divides data types into two main categories they are 299 Which is the documents that describes how the data will be exchanged, and acts as a kind of contract between the sender and the receiver? 300 What is one of the better known early implementation of XML based communication protocol? SUJJECT CODE: 34/34 PGCET
  • 151. A AND B NOR C NOT D XOR A faster operation B ease of avoiding problems due to hazards C lower hardware requirement D better noise immunity A RTL B DTL C TTL D MOS A 1 to 11 gates B 12 to 99 gates C 100 to 10000 gates D More than 10000 gates A Parallel to serial conversion B Serial to parallel conversion C Digital delay line D All of these. A Combinational logic circuit. B Sequential logic circuit. C Both (a) & (b) D None of above. A Very large scale integration B Very logical switch interface C Very large switch integration D None of these A adding 1's complement twice B adding 1 to 1's complement C subtracting 1 from 1's complement. D calculating 1's complement and inverting Most significant bit A 1234 B ABCD C 1001 D DEFH A Overflow B Carry C Parity D Sign value A 8-bits B 16-bits C 23-bits D 64-bits A 3 inputs and 7 outputs B 4 inputs and 7 outputs C 7 inputs and 3 outputs D 7 inputs and 4 outputs A 11 B 1100 C 1000 D 1010 A all inputs are LOW B all inputs are HIGH C any input is LOW D any input is HIGH A OR Gate and then NOT Gate B NOT Gate and then OR Gate C AND Gate and then OR Gate D OR Gate and then AND Gate 7 VLSI stands for 6 Parallel adders are 5 A shift register can be used for 1 Which one of the following is universal gate? 4 The functional capacity for VLSI devices is 3 Which of the following is the first integrated logic family 2 Advantage of synchronous sequential circuit over asynchronous ones is 11 In ANSI/IEEE Standard 754 ' Mantissa ' is represented by _________ bits 12 BCD to 7-Segment decoder has 10 The values that exceed the specified range can not be correctly represented and are considered 9 Which of the number is not a representative of hexadecimal system 8 2's complement of any binary number can be calculated by 15 NOR gate is formed by connecting _________ 16 The AND Gate performs a logical __________function 13 The decimal 8 is represented as _________ using Gray Code. 14 A NAND gate's output is LOW if SUJJECT CODE: 1/7 PGCET
  • 152. A Addition B Subtraction C Multiplication D Division A multiplication B subtraction C division D addition A All of the inputs are one B Any of the input is one C Any of the input is zero D All the inputs are zero A all inputs are HIGH B any input is HIGH C any input is LOW D all inputs are LOW A a sumterm B a product term C a literal term D always 1 A a sum term B a literal term C a product term D a complemented term A Product of sum form B Sum of product form C Demorgans law D Associative law A A + B(C + D) B A'B + AC' + AB'C C (A' + B + C)(A + B' + C) D both (a) nad (b) A 1 B 2 C 4 D 6 A A parallel to serial converter circuit B A counter circuit C A BCD to Decimal decoder D A 2-to-8 bit decoder A one input and several outputs B one input and one output C several inputs and several outputs D several inputs and one output A Select data from multiple sources and to route it to a single Destination B Select data from Single source and to route it to a multiple Destinations C Select data from Single source and to route to single destination D Select data from multiple sources and to route to multiple destinations A AND B OR C NOT D XOR A AND B OR C NOT D XOR A Giant Array Logic B General Array Logic C Generic Array Logic D Generic Analysis Logic 17 The OR gate performs Boolean ___________. 22 A (bar)B +A(bar)BC(bar)+AC is an example of ________ 23 An example of SOP expression is 21 the boolean expression A + B' + C is 20 the boolean expression AB'CD' is 18 The output of an AND gate is one when _______ 19 A NOR's gate output is HIGH if 28 The PROM consists of a fixed non-programmable ____________ Gate array configured as a 26 A demultiplexer has 27 The main use of the Multiplexer is to 25 Using multiplexer as parallel to serial converter requires ___________ connected to the 24 Half-Adder Logic circuit contains _____ XOR Gates 31 ASCII code is a ……… bit code. 29 Tri-State Buffer is basically a/an _________ gate. 30 GAL is an acronym for ________. SUJJECT CODE: 2/7 PGCET
  • 153. A 1 B 2 C 7 D 8 A Gray code B ASCII code C excess 3-code D BCD code A a) Emitter control logic B Emitter complementary logic C Emitter coupled logic D Emitter coded logic A JK Flip flop B D Flip flop C T Flip flop D Master Slave JK Flip flop A A+BC B B+A C AB+BC D B+AC A 571 B 572 C -571 D -572 A 1 B 2 C 0 D Offset value A to convert from one number system to other B to encode data C to decode data D to convert from serial to parralel data A A +1 =1 B A +A =A C A.A = A D A.1= A A A = A' B AA = A C A + 1 = 1 D A + 0 = A A 86 B 87 C 88 D 89 A 1101 B 1011 C 0101 D 1100 A 2-bit B 7-bit C 8-bit D 16-bit A less expensive B not sensitive to electrostatic discharge C faster D more widely available A 4-to-2 B 4-to-4 C 8-to-1 D 8-to-4 A two ORs ANDed together B a 4-input AND gate 33 ECL stands for 32 8421 codes is also called as. 37 when PUSH is executed , the stack pointer register is decremented by 38 Sum-of-Weights method is used 39 which of the following rules states that if one input of an AND gate is always 1, the output is 34 When an inverter is placed between both inputs of SR flip flop the resulting flip flop is 35 The boolean function AB+A(B+C) +B(B+C) is equivalent to 36 10s complement of 428 is 43 The Extended ASCII Code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is a _____ code 44 One advantage TTL has over CMOS is that TTL is 45 8-bit parallel data can be converted into serial data by using ________ multiplexer 40 Which one of the following is NOT a valid rule of Boolean algebra? 41 The binary value ' 1010110 ' is equivalent to decimal 42 2's complement of 5 is 46 The boolean expression X = AB + CD represents SUJJECT CODE: 3/7 PGCET
  • 154. C two ANDs ORed together D an exclusive-Or A AB+C = A+BC B A(B+C) = B(A+C) C AB=BA D A+B=B+A A B+C B A+BC C AB+C D AC+B A Demorgan's Law B Commutative Law C Distributive Law D Associative Law A Demorgan's Law B Distributive Law C Commutative Law D Associative Law A A+A(bar) = 1 B AA(bar) =0 C 1+A=1 D A+B = B+A A a 2-cell group of 1s B a 8-cell group of 1s C a 4-cell group of 1s D a 4-cell group of 0s A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 A a POS expression B a SOP expression C a "don't care" condition D AND-OR logic A NOR B OR C exclusive-OR D AND A 3 inputs and 2 output B 3 inputs and 3 output C 2 inputs and 3 output D 2 inputs and 2 output A 4 B 3 C 2 D 1 A +7 to -8 B +8 to -7 C +9 to -8 D -9 to +8 A E^2CMOS B TTL C CMOS+ D None of the given options A One B Two C Three D Four 49 A.(B + C) = A.B + A.C is the expression of _________________ 50 A.(B.C) = (A.B).C is an expression of __________ 51 A non-standard POS is converted into a standard POS by using the rule _____ 47 The expression _________ is an example of Commutative Law for Multiplication. 48 (A+B).(A+C) = ___________ 55 On a Karnaugh map, grouping the 0s produces 56 Which gate is best used as a basic comparator? 57 A particular Full Adder has 52 In a 4-variable K-map, a 2-variable product term is produced by 53 The 3-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) has _______ cells for min or max terms 54 The 4-variable Karnaugh Map (K-Map) has _______ cells for min or max terms 61 A latch has _____ stable states 62 An S-R latch can be implemented by using _________ gates 58 For a 3-to-8 decoder how many 2-to-4 decoders will be required? 59 The range of Excess-8 code is from ______ to ______ 60 GAL can be reprogrammed because instead of fuses _______ logic is used in it SUJJECT CODE: 4/7 PGCET
  • 155. A AND, OR B NAND, NOR C NAND, XOR D NOT, XOR A 4 B 8 C 16 D 12 A EX-OR&AND B EX-OR&OR C EX-OR&NOT D None of this A Carry B Remainder C Sum D None of this A high B low C at the same logic level D at the opposite logic level A x NAND X B x NOR x C x NAND 1 D x NOR 1 A 1 B 0 C The inverse of the variables correct answer D None A 100 B 111 C 001 D 110 A 2^4(2 raise to power 4) B 2^3 (2 raise to power 3) C 2^0 (2 raise to power 0) D 2^1 (2 raise to power 1) A B70B B B709 C 48F6 D 48F5 A 111 B 1111 C 1001 D 110 A Undefined B One C Zero D 10 (binary) A voltage B current C watt D unit loads A TTL B CMOS 3.5 series C CMOS 5 Series D Power dissipation of all circuits increases with time. A two AND gates, two OR gates, two inverters B three AND gates, two OR gates, one inverter 63 The Quad Multiplexer has _____ outputs 67 Which of the following expressions is not equivalent to x'? 68 The complement of a variable is always 69 The difference of 111 - 001 equals 64 Half adder consist of. ……&…..Gates 65 In half adder EX-OR gate O/P is 66 For getting an output from an XNOR gate, its both inputs must be 73 The output of the expression F=A+B+C will be Logic ________ when A=0, B=1, C=1. the symbol ' + 74 Fan-out is specified in terms of 75 Generally, the Power dissipation of _______ devices remains constant throughout their operation 70 In the binary number ' 10011 ' the weight of the most significant digit is 71 2's complement of hexadecimal number B70A is 72 The 4-bit 2's complement representation of ' -7 ' is 76 A logic circuit with an output X = A(Bar)BC+AB(Bar) consists of ________. SUJJECT CODE: 5/7 PGCET
  • 156. C two AND gates, one OR gate, two inverters D two AND gates, one OR gate A three AND gates and three inverters B three AND gates and four inverters C three AND gates D one AND gate A A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0 B A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = 0 C A = 0, B = 1, C = 0, D = 0 D A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = 1 A A.B.C B A+(B.C )Bar C A(Bar).B(Bar).C(Bar) D A.B(Bar)+C A All the variables in domain of expression are present B At least one variable in domain of expression is present. C When one or more product terms in the expression are equal to 0. D When one or more product terms in the expression are equal to 1. A 1101 B 1010 C 0110 D 1011 A 2nd B 3rd C 4th D No output will be activated A 2-to-8 encoder B 4-to-16 encoder C BCD-to-Decimal D Decimal-to-BCD Priority A (1100)2 B (0011)2 C (1001)2 D (0101)2 A 451 B 351 C 251 D 151 A 10100 B 11000 C 10010 D None A a) A’B+CD B D(C+A) C AD+A’B D (C+D)(C’+D)+(A+B) A 4 half-adders, 12 full-adders B 16 half-adders, 0 full-adders C 8 half-adders, 8 full-adders D 1 half-adder, 15 full-adders A RTL B DTL C TTL D HTL A (A+B)+C=A(B+C) B A.(B+C)=(A.B)+(A.C) C A+B=B+A D A+A=A 79 According to Demorgan's theorem: (A+B+C)bar = ______________ 80 A SOP expression is equal to 1 81 Adjacent 1s detector circuit will have active low output for the input 77 To implement the expression AB(bar)CD+ ABC(bar)D+ ABCD (bar), it takes one OR gate and 78 Determine the values of A, B, C, and D that make the sum term A(bar) + B+C(bar)+D equal to zero. 85 Conversion of hexadecimal number (69)16 to octal equivalent will give 86 The difference between two decimal numbers 87 and 63 in binary format will be 87 Which of the following functions implements the Karnaugh map shown below? 82 If ' 1110 ' is applied at the input of BCD-to-Decimal decoder which output pin will be activated: 83 The _______ Encoder is used as a keypad encoder. 84 Subtract ( 1010)2 from ( 1101 )2 using 1s complement 91 Let X and Y be the inputs and Z be the output of XOR gate. The value of Z is given by 88 The number of full and half-adders required to add 16-bit numbers is 89 Which of the following logic families has the highest noise immunity? 90 Which of the following Boolean algebra statements represents commutative law? SUJJECT CODE: 6/7 PGCET
  • 157. A X+Y B X.Y C (X.Y)’ D X’Y+XY’ A 24.582 B 2.4582 C 24582 D 0.24582 A Power consumption of TTL is higher than of CMOS B Power consumption of CMOS is higher than of TTL C Both TTL and CMOS have same power consumption D Power consumption of both CMOS and TTL depends on no. of gates in the circuit. A Low switching speeds, high power dissipation B Fast switching speeds, high power dissipation C Fast switching speeds, very low power dissipation D Low switching speeds, very low power dissipation A F (A,B,C) = Pi M(0,3,5,6) B F(A,B,C) = Summation m(0,3,5,6) C F(A,B,C) = Summation m(0,3,5,6) D F(A,B,C) = Summation m(1,2,4,7) A A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A < B = 1 B A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 0 C A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A = B = 0 D A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1 A 4-input, 8-bit B 4-input, 16-bit C 2-input, 8-bit D 2-input, 4-bit A 48.625 B 59.487 C 48.487 D 59.625 A D6C1 B DC61 C D6C5 D none A (90)10 B (132)8 C (5A)16 D All above 92 If we multiply ' 723 ' and ' 34 ' by representing them in floating point notation i.e. by first, 93 Which one is true: 100 The sum of octal numbers (25)8 + (52)8 +(33)8 is : 97 Two 2-input, 4-bit multiplexers 74X157 can be connected to implement a ____multiplexer. 98 What will be the decimal equivalent of 111011.10 99 What will be the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal number 54977 94 3.3 v CMOS series is characterized by __________ and _________as compared to the 5 v CMOS 95 The minterm expansion for F(A,B,C) = (A + B + C)(A + B' + C')(A' + B + C')(A' + B' + C) is 96 The binary numbers A = 1100 and B = 1001 are applied to the inputs of a comparator. What are SUJJECT CODE: 7/7 PGCET
  • 158. A There is an interrupt B There is a control signal C There is an execution D There is a fetch A Bus transfer B cycle stealing C Bus grant D bit stealing A Content addressable memory B Virtual memory C Main memory D Secondary memory A lower power dissipation B greater speed C smaller chip size D fewer masks for fabrication A The address of the current instruction B Data which is to be processed C The address of the next instruction to be executed D Counter value that is used in the program A Semiconductor memory B Memory register C Magnetic memory D None of the above A ALU B Storage unit C Control Unit D None of the above A Magnetic tape B PROM C Floppy disk D None of the above A Floppy disk B Magnetic tape C Hard disk D None of the above A Bus B line C media D none of these A memory, IO, DAM B ALU CPU Memory C Memory CPU IO D CU ALU Registers A Special Register B C Register C B Register D Accumulator A All Language Programming B Assembly Language Programming C Accumulator Language Programming D All Low Programming A Resgister Transfer Language B Register Transistor Language C Register Translation Language D Register Transformation Language A ROM is read / write memory B PC points to the last instruction that was executed C Stack works on the principle of LIFO D All instructions affect the flag 1 Transfer between registers takes place when 6 CD-ROM is a Program counter contains 9 Information retrieval is faster from 3 An associative memory is also called 2 Which technique allows DMA controller to transfer one data word at a time. 5 4 Advantage of CMOS technology over a MOS is 11 12 The main three component of a digital computer system are Which register is responsible for computation in any computer system ? 10 The communication line between the CPU, memory and peripherals is called a 7 Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in 8 Which of the following is used as a primary storage device 15 ALP stands for 14 RTL stands for Which of the following statement is true ? 13
  • 159. A Accumulator B Stack Pointer C Program Counter D All of the above A is easier to implement using hard-wired control logic B has fewer instructions C has more registers D has fewer addressing modes A the length of MAR B the available secondary storage C the available main memory D all of above A Direct B indirect C base index D Immediate A Direct B Random C Sequential D None of the above A CPU B DMA C CAD D None of these A Magnetic disk B Soft disk C Floppy disk D Optical disk A Universal asynchronization receiver/transmitter B Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter C United asynchronous receiver/transmitter D Universal automatic receiver/transmitter A Programmed I/O B DMA C Handshaking D Strobe A Direct memory accumulator controller B Direct memory access controller C Direct memory access content D Direct main access controller A DCP B IOP C Both a & b D None A Primary B RAM C Cache D None of these A Pop B CALL C MOV D PUSH A Uni-directional B Bi-directional 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process? ___ decrements SP (the stack pointer) by two and then transfers a word from the source operand to Data bus is The total size of address space in a virtual memory system is limited by Which of the following requires value of data with the instruction The access method used for magnetic tape is_________ Which is an important data transfer technique ? Which disk read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface ? UART stands for ______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program DMAC stands for Which may be classified as a processor with the direct memory access capability that communicates The main difference(s) between a ClSC and a RISC processor is/are that a RISC processor typically Which of the following are registers ?16
  • 160. C Non-directional D None of the given A is Not Important. B is Important C is bidirectional D is unidirectional A immediate B direct C register D micro A 0-address B Binary C 1-address D 2-address A Memory register instruction B Memory regular instruction C Memory reference instruction D Most register instruction A Execution cycle B Register cycle C Fetch cycle D Interrupt cycle A Reduced Instruction Set Computer B Register Instruction Set Computer C Register Interrupt Set Computer D Reduced Interrupt Set Computer A ALP B Machine language C OPCODE D Higher language A Prefix notation B Postfix notation C Outfix notation D Infix notation A Stack B Queue C Register D Accumulator A Instruction B Microoperation C Pseudoinstruction D Minioperation A reserved ROM address space B reserved RAM address space C reserved IO address space D none of the above A -128 to +128 B -128 to +127 C -127 to +128 D -127 to +127 A 2 processors B 3 processors C 4 processors D none of the above A 2 operands B 1 operands C 3 operands D none of the above A Overflow B Zero result C Negative result D none of the above 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 Which of the following architecture is not suitable for realizing SIMD ? The language which is understandable by the computer system is known as Which of the following is not a valid expression notation ? Expressions can be evaluated with the help of which data structure ? Which is considered as the most basic operation in a computer system ? Stack is nothing but a set of If negative numbers are stored in 2's complement system, the range of numbers that can be stored To achieve parallelism one needs a minimum of Any instruction should have at least Which of the following is not typically found in the status register ? Control bus________ Which of the following is an invalid addressing mode ? Which is the invalid instruction type ? MRI stands for When an interrupt occurs, following will take place RISC stands for
  • 161. A Vector Processor B Array processor C Von Neumann D All of the above A SYPS B BIPS C BAUD D FLOPS A of their higher transfer rate B the cost to store a bit is less C consume less power D the cost to store a bit is high A Implied mode instruction B Indirect mode instruction C Based index addressing mode instruction D Immediate mode instruction A Pointers B Arrays C Records D Recursive procedures with local variable A 1 B 2 C 0 D Offset value A Same B Different C Optimum D Medium A Isolated I/O B Memory-mapped I/O C Both a & b D None of these A Synchronous B Asynchronous C Clock dependent D Decoder independent A Interrupt-initiated I/O B DMA C IOP D DCP A An IRQ Conflict B An IRQ Crash C An IRQ Collision D An IRQ Blockage A Counter register B Flag register C Base register D Desination register A AX register B The concatenation of DX and AX C The concatenation of ES and AX D The concatenation of DS and BX A AL or AX B BL or BX C CL or CX D DL or DX A 1 argument B 2 argument C 3 arguments D No arguments 57 58 59 60 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 46 47 ______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data When two devices in the system want to use the same IRQ line then what will happen? CX register mostly use a When the operand of DIV instruction is of 16-bits then implied dividend will be stored in______ The source register in OUT is To transfer control back the RET instruction take In assembly the CX register is used normally as a ______________register Which of the following units can be used to measure the speed of a computer ? Bubble memory is preffered over floppy disks because All register reference instruction that use accumulator are A certain processor supports only the immediate and the direct addressing modes. Which of the when PUSH is executed , the stack pointer register is decremented by The operating mode of I/O devices is_______ for different device There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be
  • 162. A source B pointer C index D counter A AX B BX C CX D DX A 2 GB B 4 GB C 6 GB D 8 GB A CALL instruction B POP instruction C Jump instruction D RET instruction A Literal B Variable C Label D Starting point A Immediate B Indirect C Direct D Register A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Indexed Register Indirect D Immediate A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Direct D Illegal A 32 K B 16 K C 8 K D 24 K A Zero B Sign C Overflow D Positive A Fakeinstructions B Extrainstruction C Noninstruction D Pseudoinstructions A IZS B ISZ C ICR D CIR A Lable B Opcode C Comment D Data A RAM B Cache C ROM D Register A RLC B RAL C RRC D RAR A INTR B TRAP C RST 7.5 D RST 5.5 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 61 62 63 64 65 Following cannot be part of an instruction The fastest memory available on earth is The instruction used to shift right the accumulator content by one bit through the carry flag bit is The only interrupt that is edge triggered is When the subprogram finishes, the ____________________ retrieves the return address from the In “total: dw 0 ” Opcode total is a ___________ In “mov ax, 5 ” is _____________ Addressing Mode In “ mov [SI], AX ” is _____________ Addressing Mode In “ mov ax, [bx - Si] ” is ___________ Addressing Mode A computer with 32 bit data bus uses 4 K X 8 static RAM memory chips. The smallest memory this PSW does not have following flag Instructions which are not meant for execution are known as Increment operation is incorporated with which instruction ? When a 16 bit number is divided by an 8 bit number, the dividend will be in A 32bit address register can access upto ............................of memory
  • 163. A TRAP B RST 7.5 C INTR D RST 6.5 A railway reservation B weather forecasting C matrix multiplication D all of above A railway reservation B parallel processing C matrix multiplication D all of above A Low cost B Parallel operation C High operating speed D All of the above A Direct B Register C Register Indirect D Immediate A Absolute B Immediate C Indirect D Indexed A Divide logical error B Divide overflow error C Divide syntax error D An illegal instruction A accumulator,accumulator B data bus,accumulator C accumulator, Address Bus D accumulator,memory A Pointer, Segment, or Base Register B Pointer, Index, or Base Register C General Registers D Instruction Pointer A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass A Vector Processing B Parallel Execution C Pipelining D Parallel Processing A CIL B ICL C ISZ D SIZ A Prefix notation B Infix notation C Postfix notation D Outfix notation A Memory Compaction B Memory interleaving C Reducing the size of memory D Inreasing the size of memory 89 90 91 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 76 77 78 79 The speed imbalance between memory access and CPU operation can be reduced by In a vector interrupt the The addressing mode used in the instruction ADD X, Y is When a very large number is divided by very small number so that the quotient is larger than the There is a central register in every processor called the _______ and The word size of a processor is ___________does not hold data but holds the address of data Memory references are processed in which pass of the assembler ? Address symbol table is built in which pass of the assembleer ? Fetch…Decode….Execute phases are overlapped to spped up the overall execution Content of a register is shifted in circular manner for following instruction Which notation is considered to be the best for execution of an instruction ? Which is the non-maskale interrupt ? A typical application of MIMD is SIMD can be used for The advantage of single bus over multibus is the The addressing mode used in the instruction PUSH B is
  • 164. A branch address is assigned to a fixed location in memory B interrupting source supplies the branch information to the processor through interrrupt vector C branch address is obtained from register in the processor D none of the above A CLR A B ORA A C SUB A D MOV A, 00h A Instructions taking multiple cycles B Highly pipelined C Instructions interpreted by microprogramme D None of above A is faster than a hard wired control unit B facilitated easy implementation of new instructions C is useful when very small programs to be run D useally referes to the control unit of a microprocessor A PUSH PSW B PUSH A C PUSH SP D POP PSW A SISD B SIMD C MIMD D MISD A overflow error B underflow errror C 0 D 5.28E + 11 A Direct mode B Indirect mode C Relative mode D Indexed mode A 47 ms B 50 ms C 60 ms D 62 ms A n B n-1 C n+1 D independent of 'n' 98 99 100 92 93 94 95 96 97 The seek time of a disk is 30 ms. It rotates at the rate of 30 rotations per second. Each track has a The number of instructions needed to add 'n' numbers and store the result in memory using only Which of the following instruction may be used to clear the content of accumulator ? Which of the following is the typical characteristic of RISC machine ? A microprogramed control unit Which of the following instruction may be used to save the accumulator value onto the stack ? Von Neumann architecture is A computer uses 8 digit mantissaand 2 digit exponent. If a=0.052 and b=28E + 11 then b+a-b will The most relevant addressing mode to write position independent code is

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